qb - indigo

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JAR Databank Preparation 10.1.1.1 (1) An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ? a) 2nd freedom b) 1st freedom c) 3rd freedom d) 4th freedom 10.1.1.1 (2) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes, a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states. c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention. 10.1.1.2 (3) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the : a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Warzaw convention 1929 c) Geneva convention 1948 d) Geneva convention 1936 10.1.1.2 (4) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of : a) Chicago b) The Hague c) Warsaw d) Montreal 10.1.1.3 (5) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to : a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviation b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies c) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft d) approve new international airlines 10.1.1.4 (6) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ? a) the Air Navigation Commission b) the Assembly c) the Council d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting 10.1.1.4 (7) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states c) binding for all member states d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic 10.1.2.0 (8) Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ? a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations d) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses 10.1.2.0 (9) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transported b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation d) the security system at airports 10.1.2.0 (10) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect : a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments b) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments c) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed d) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements 10.1.2.0 (11) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities b) may request such person to disembark c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members 10.1.2.0 (12) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed a) International Civile Aviation Organisation b) the other Contracting States 1

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Page 1: QB - Indigo

JAR Databank Preparation

10.1.1.1 (1)An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?a) 2nd freedomb) 1st freedomc) 3rd freedomd) 4th freedom

10.1.1.1 (2)The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes,a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

10.1.1.2 (3)The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :a) Chicago convention 1944b) Warzaw convention 1929c) Geneva convention 1948d) Geneva convention 1936

10.1.1.2 (4)The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :a) Chicagob) The Haguec) Warsawd) Montreal

10.1.1.3 (5)One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviationb) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companiesc) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraftd) approve new international airlines

10.1.1.4 (6)Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption ?a) the Air Navigation Commissionb) the Assemblyc) the Councild) the Regional Air Navigation meeting

10.1.1.4 (7)The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national differenceb) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member statesc) binding for all member statesd) binding for all air line companies with international traffic

10.1.2.0 (8)Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the conventionb) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connectionsc) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulationsd) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses

10.1.2.0 (9)The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods transportedb) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goodsc) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviationd) the security system at airports

10.1.2.0 (10)Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governmentsb) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governmentsc) 2 months following the date ICAO is informedd) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governements

10.1.2.0 (11)The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal lawa) may deliver such person to the competent authoritiesb) may request such person to disembarkc) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such persond) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

10.1.2.0 (12)Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addresseda) International Civile Aviation Organisationb) the other Contracting States

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c) United Nationsd) to all States Members of United Nations

10.1.2.0 (13)The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :a) the convention of Tokyob) the convention of Parisc) the convention of Romed) the convention of Chicago

10.1.2.1 (14)""Cabotage"" refers to:a) domestic air services ,b) a national air carrier,c) a flight above territorial waters,d) crop spraying

10.1.2.1 (15)The second freedom of the air is the :a) right to land for a technical stopb) right to overfly without landingc) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic).d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.

10.1.2.1 (16)The first freedom of the air is:a) The right to overfly without landing.b) The right to land for a technical stop.c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.d) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.

10.1.2.2 (17)The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, isa) the convention of Tokyob) the convention of Warsawc) the convention of Romed) the convention of Madrid

10.1.2.2 (18)The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :a) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction stateb) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting statec) caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registrationd) the above convention does not deal with this item

10.1.2.4 (19)The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :a) Warsaw Convention.b) Tokyo Convention.c) Hague Convention.d) Montreal Convention.

10.1.4.0 (20)The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surfaceb) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goodsc) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surfaced) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

10.1.4.0 (21)The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is :a) the Rome Conventionb) the Warsaw Conventionc) the Paris Conventiond) the Tokyo Convention

10.1.4.0 (22)Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by :a) the Rome Conventionb) the Chicago Conventionc) the Warsaw Conventiond) the Montreal Convention

10.2.0.0 (23)When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with thea) five letter combinations used in the international code of signalsb) four letter combinations beginning with Qc) three letters combinations used in the international code of signalsd) letters used for ICAO identification documents

10.2.0.0 (24)The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off massb) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing massc) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off massd) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

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10.2.0.0 (25)The loading limitations shall include :a) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadingsb) all limiting mass and centres of gravityc) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravityd) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings

10.3.0.0 (26)The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by :a) the International Civil Aviation Organisationb) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Unionc) the International Telecommunication Uniond) the state of registry

10.3.0.0 (27)The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :a) to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Unionb) to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisationc) to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Uniond) to state of the operator

10.3.0.0 (28)The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by :a) the state of registry or common mark registering authorityb) the state of registry onlyc) the International Civil Aviation Organisationd) the Internationnal Telecommunication Union

10.3.0.0 (29)When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for examplea) TTTb) FFFc) RCCd) LLL

10.3.0.0 (30)When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for examplea) PANb) RCCc) LLLd) DDD

10.3.0.0 (31)When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used

which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for examplea) XXXb) DDDc) RCCd) LLL

10.3.0.0 (32)The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall bea) at least 50 centimetresb) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetresc) at least 60 centimetresd) at least 75 centimetres

10.3.0.0 (33)The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall bea) at least 30 centimetresb) at least 40 centimetresc) at least 20 centimetresd) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres

10.4.0.0 (34)The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency check can be and can't exceed:a) 31th of December the same yearb) 15th of October the same yearc) 30th of October the same yeard) 30th of April the following year

10.4.0.0 (35)The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:a) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.b) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.c) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.d) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

10.4.0.0 (36)When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:a) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.b) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.d) Is only considered for PPL.

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10.4.0.0 (37)Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?a) Annex 1b) Annex 2c) Annex 3d) Annex 4

10.4.0.0 (38)You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPLa) With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor ratingb) With an ATPLc) With a PPL plus flight instructor ratingd) With a CPL

10.4.0.0 (39)The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is :a) 1 yearb) 6 monthsc) 5 yearsd) 2 years

10.4.0.0 (40)The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :a) 17 yearsb) 16 yearsc) 18 yearsd) 21 years

10.4.0.0 (41)To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :a) 21 and 59 yearsb) 16 and 60 yearsc) 17 and 59 yearsd) 18 and 60 years

10.4.0.0 (42)The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is :a) 21b) 30c) 60d) 90

10.4.0.0 (43)If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed :

a) After 21 days of consecutive ""illness""b) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21daysc) after one calendar month of consecutive illnessd) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires

10.4.0.0 (44)The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than :a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licenceb) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licencec) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licenced) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

10.4.0.0 (45)The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :a) 18 years of ageb) 21 years of agec) 17 years of aged) 16 years of age

10.4.0.0 (46)An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall holda) a current class I medical assessmentb) a current class II medical assessmentc) a current class III medical assessmentd) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence

10.4.0.0 (47)Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.a) Land/inactive.b) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.c) Single-engine/inactive.d) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.4.0.0 (48)The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be :a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportationb) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportationc) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportationd) none of the answers are correct

10.4.0.0 (49)An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance

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referred are :a) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)b) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)c) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)d) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

10.4.0.0 (50)An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :a) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)b) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)c) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)d) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

10.4.0.0 (51)An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively :a) 250 hours and 100 hoursb) 200 hours and 75 hoursc) 200 hours and 100 hoursd) 150 hours and 75 hours

10.4.0.0 (52)The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively :a) 200 hours and 100 hoursb) 250 hours and 10 hoursc) 150 hours and 75 hoursd) 200 hours and 75 hours

10.4.0.0 (53)An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :a) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground timec) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.

10.4.0.0 (54)An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :a) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilotb) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in commandc) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilotd) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (55)The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of :a) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainerb) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainerc) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainerd) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

10.4.0.0 (56)An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectivelya) 50 hours and 10 hoursb) 40 hours and 10 hoursc) 40 hours and 15 hoursd) 50 hours and 15 hours

10.4.0.0 (57)In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed :a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operationsc) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months

10.4.0.0 (58)The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date :a) the medical assessment is issuedb) the licence is issued or validatedc) the licence is issued or renewedd) the licence is delivered to the pilot

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10.4.0.0 (59)When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorizationa) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licenceb) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licencec) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretiond) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights

10.4.0.0 (60)When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from :a) 12 months to 6 monthsb) 12 months to 3 monthsc) 24 months to 12 monthsd) none of the answers are correct

10.4.0.0 (61)Type ratings shall be establisheda) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authorityb) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilotsc) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopterd) all the answers are correct

10.4.0.0 (62)The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit :a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licenceb) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licencec) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authorityd) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

10.4.0.0 (63)For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at nighta) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in commandb) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilotc) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in commandd) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (64)An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :

a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanesb) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in commandc) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in commandd) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (65)An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground timeb) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground timed) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command

10.4.0.0 (66)The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :a) Annex 1b) Annex 2c) Annex 11d) Annex 12

10.4.0.0 (67)At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.a) At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licenceb) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one yearc) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.d) 1998-11-27 0:00

10.4.0.0 (68)More than 12 hoursa) More than 12 daysb) More than one weekc) Any periodd) 1998-11-30 0:00

10.4.0.0 (69)According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid fora) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafterb) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafterc) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafterd) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter

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10.4.0.0 (70)According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:a) 150 hours of flight timeb) 200 hours of flight timec) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground timed) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

10.4.0.0 (71)According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :a) one yearb) two yearsc) The period of validity of the licence.d) Indefinitely

10.4.0.0 (72)According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :a) Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.b) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.c) Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.d) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

10.4.0.0 (73)According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including :a) All self.-sustaining gliders.b) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.c) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.d) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.

10.4.0.0 (74)According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has :a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator trainingb) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew memberc) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.

10.4.0.0 (75)According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :a) Of issueb) Of the skill test

c) The application is received by the Authority.d) Of the last medical certificate

10.4.0.0 (76)According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for :a) Two yearsb) One yearc) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.d) Five years after licence issuie.

10.5.0.0 (77)Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required ,b) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : required ,c) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : required ,d) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : not required

10.5.1.0 (78)Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lightsb) Switching on and off three times the landing lightsc) Switching on and off four times the landing lightsd) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

10.5.1.0 (79)If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?a) Descendb) Let downc) You landd) Descend for landing

10.5.1.0 (80)If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received ?a) CAN NOTb) CAN NOT COMPLYc) UNABLE TO COMPLYd) NOT POSSIBLE

10.5.1.0 (81)A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:a) The airport is unsafe, do not landb) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

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c) Give way to other aircraft in emergencyd) Continue circling and wait for further instructions

10.5.1.0 (82)On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:a) aircraft taking off or about to take offb) other vehicles and pedestriansc) other converging aircraftd) all vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle

10.5.1.0 (83)A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

10.5.1.0 (84)Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :a) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 kmb) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 kmc) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 kmd) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km

10.5.1.0 (85)The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:a) The commanderb) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspacec) The aircraft ownerd) The airliner operator

10.5.1.0 (86)Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?a) Emergency aircraftb) Military aircraftc) VIP (Head of state) aircraftd) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention

10.5.1.0 (87)An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:a) 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.c) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.d) 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.

10.5.1.0 (88)The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibilityb) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibilityc) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibilityd) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility

10.5.1.0 (89)The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibilityc) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibilityd) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility

10.5.1.0 (90)A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:a) 5%b) 3%c) 2%d) 10%

10.5.1.0 (91)An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode ""A""a) 7 700b) 7 500c) 7 600d) 7 000

10.5.1.0 (92)An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHzb) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHzc) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHzd) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

10.5.1.0 (93)Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.

10.5.1.0 (94)Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by

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an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?a) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraftb) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of coursec) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of coursed) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

10.5.1.0 (95)Aircraft ""A"" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft ""B"" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?a) Aircraft ""B"" if ""A"" is on its leftb) Aircraft ""A"" if ""B"" is on its rightc) Aircraft ""A"" regardless of the direction which ""B"" is approachingd) Aircraft ""B"" regardless of the direction ""A"" is approaching

10.5.1.0 (96)Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track?a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicableb) Inform the ATC unit immediatelyc) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructionsd) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

10.5.1.0 (97)While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permitb) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight planc) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hoursd) Squawk 7700

10.5.1.0 (98)A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fistb) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.c) Crossing arms extended above his headd) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

10.5.1.0 (99)An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landingb) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destinationc) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

10.5.1.0 (100)A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.b) Come back and land.c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

10.5.1.0 (101)Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service:a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.b) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.c) need to file a flight pland) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.

10.5.1.0 (102)When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :a) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.b) of an emergency.c) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.d) it is a deviation from the track.

10.5.1.0 (103)Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight :a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated positionb) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated positionc) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated positiond) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

10.5.1.0 (104)An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:a) on the ground when the engines are runningb) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,

10.5.1.0 (105)The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways

10.5.1.0 (106)An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to

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communicate with ATS shall try to:a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290b) Fly the emergency trianglec) Declare an emergencyd) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

10.5.1.0 (107)An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than :a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latterb) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latterc) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latterd) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

10.5.1.0 (108)VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :a) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ,b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ,c) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ,d) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted

10.5.1.0 (109)During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will :a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ,b) Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination ,c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ,d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

10.5.1.0 (110)Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraftThe signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructionsYou should :a) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.b) follow ATC instructions.c) request ATC for other instructions.d) select code A7500 on your transponder.

10.5.1.0 (111)Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft :a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.b) is cleared to land.c) must land immediately and clear the landing area.d) must give way to another aircraft.

10.5.1.0 (112)Given:AGL = above ground levelAMSL = above mean sea levelFL = flight levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500

ft margin above the following two levels:a) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.b) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.c) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.d) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.

10.5.1.0 (113)An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290b) Fly the emergency trianglec) Declare an emergencyd) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

10.5.1.0 (114)While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :a) must vacate the landing area in use.b) must stop.c) must return to its point of departure.d) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

10.5.1.0 (115)While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :a) may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.b) must stop.c) must return to its point of departure.d) is cleared for take-off.

10.5.1.0 (116)An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :a) not land because the airport is not available for landing.b) give way to another aircraft.c) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.d) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

10.6.2.0 (117)What does the abbreviation OIS mean?a) Obstacle identification surface.b) Obstacle in surface.c) Obstacle identification slope.d) Obstruction in surface.

10.6.2.0 (118)What does the abbreviation DER mean?a) Depature end of runway.

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b) Distance end of route.c) Departure end of route.d) Distance end of runway.

10.6.2.0 (119)The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :a) 25 NMb) 10 NMc) 15 NMd) 30 NM

10.6.3.0 (120)A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away.The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:a) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedureb) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be usedc) ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine outd) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure

10.6.3.0 (121)If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:a) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.b) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.c) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.

10.6.3.0 (122)In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?a) The terrain surrounding the airport.b) ATC requirements.c) Navigation aids.d) Airspace restrictions.

10.6.3.0 (123)In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:a) 0 ft.b) 3.3 % gradient.c) 35 ft.d) 0.8 % gradient.

10.6.3.0 (124)In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway centre line within:a) 15°.b) 30°.c) 45°.d) 12.5°.

10.6.3.0 (125)Turning departures provide track guidance within :a) 10 Kmb) 5 Kmc) 15 Kmd) 20 Km

10.6.3.0 (126)We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within :a) 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-lineb) 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-linec) 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-lined) 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line

10.6.4.0 (127)Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:a) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.b) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.c) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.d) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

10.6.4.0 (128)Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?a) 150m (492 ft).b) 300m (984 ft).c) 450m (1476 ft).d) 600m (1968 ft).

10.6.4.0 (129)In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:a) Final approach segment.b) Initial approach segment.c) Intermediate approach segment.d) Arrival segment.

10.6.4.0 (130)In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:a) FAP.b) FAF.

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c) MAP.d) IF.

10.6.4.0 (131)The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.

10.6.4.0 (132)Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sightb) When the aircraft has the control tower in sightc) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yetd) When seems possible to land

10.6.4.0 (133)A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:a) Base turnb) Procedure turnc) Reversal procedured) Race track

10.6.4.0 (134)If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.

10.6.4.0 (135)In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:a) Mean sea level.b) Aeredrome reference point.c) Relevant runway threshold.d) Aerodrome elevation.

10.6.4.0 (136)A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :a) Procedure turn.b) Base turn.c) Race track.d) Reversal track.

10.6.4.0 (137)You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination regrouping all the correct answers is :a) 1, 2, 3.b) 1, 2.c) 2, 3.d) 1, 3.

10.6.4.0 (138)During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:a) 135 ktb) 120 ktc) 125 ktd) 150 kt

10.6.4.0 (139)In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:a) 1 minute 30 seconds.b) 1 minute.c) 2 minutes.d) 3 minutes.

10.6.4.0 (140)How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.a) Up to 5.b) 3.c) 4.d) Up to 4.

10.6.4.0 (141)Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?a) At the IAF.b) At the IF.c) At the FAF.d) At the final en-route fix.

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10.6.4.0 (142)Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?a) At least 300m (984 ft).b) 150m (492 ft).c) 300m (984 ft).d) At least 150m (492 ft).

10.6.4.0 (143)In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:a) 1 minute.b) 1 minute 15 seconds.c) 1minute 30 seconds.d) 2 minutes.

10.6.4.0 (144)In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:a) 1 minute 15 seconds.b) 1 minute.c) 1 minute 30 seconds.d) 2 minutes.

10.6.4.0 (145)In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:a) Shuttle.b) Based turn.c) Racetrack pattern.d) Procedure turn.

10.6.4.0 (146)In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:a) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).c) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).d) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

10.6.4.0 (147)In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:a) Half a scale deflection.b) One scale deflection.c) A quarter of scale deflection.d) One and a half of scale deflection.

10.6.4.0 (148)In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other

standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:a) 6m.b) 3m.c) 9m.d) 12m.

10.6.4.0 (149)Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?a) Initial, intermediate and final.b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.c) Arrival, intermediate and final.d) Initial and final.

10.6.4.0 (150)Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:a) 2.5%.b) 0.8%.c) 3.3%.d) 5%.

10.6.4.0 (151)Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?a) At the point where the climb is established.b) At the missed approach point.c) At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.d) At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.

10.6.4.0 (152)The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:a) Visual manoeuvring (circling).b) Visual approach.c) Contact approach.d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.

10.6.4.0 (153)It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:a) Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.b) Permits circling only in VMC.c) Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.d) Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.

10.6.4.0 (154)When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

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a) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.b) Only for categories A and B aircraft.c) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.d) For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.

10.6.4.0 (155)A circling approach is:a) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.b) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.c) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.d) A contact flight manoeuvre.

10.6.4.0 (156)If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:a) Landing runway.b) MAP.c) FAF.d) Final missed approach track.

10.6.4.0 (157)If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?a) Initiate a missed approachb) Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctactc) If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contactd) Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude

10.6.4.0 (158)What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg ?a) Initiate a missed approachb) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitudec) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodromed) Request an amended clearance

10.6.4.0 (159)Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :a) half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.b) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.c) half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.d) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.

10.6.4.0 (160)Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?a) the stateb) the operator

c) the pilot-in-command ,d) the ""flight-operations"" of the company

10.6.4.0 (161)On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is :a) 30 degrees or lessb) 40 degrees or lessc) 20 degrees or lessd) 10 degrees or less

10.6.4.0 (162)Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :a) 6,5%.b) 5%.c) 7%.d) 8%.

10.6.4.0 (163)The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :a) A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.b) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully,c) the first part of the segment ,d) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum

10.6.4.0 (164)In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least :a) 984 ftb) 1476 ftc) 492 ftd) decreasing from 984 to 492 ft

10.6.4.0 (165)During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :a) 150 m (492 ft)b) 300 m (984 ft)c) 210 m (690 ft)d) 120 m (394 ft)

10.6.4.0 (166)During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :a) 30 m (98 ft)b) 50 m (164 ft)

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c) 90 m (295 ft)d) 120 m (384 ft)

10.6.4.0 (167)During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :a) 30 m (98 ft)b) 50 m (164 ft)c) 90 m (295 ft)d) 120 m (384 ft)

10.6.4.0 (168)During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :a) 50 m (164 ft)b) 30 m (98 ft)c) 90 m (295 ft)d) 120 m (384 ft)

10.6.4.0 (169)Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:a) 25 NMb) 20 NMc) 10 NMd) 5 NM

10.6.4.0 (170)The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :a) ± 5 NMb) ± 10 NMc) ± 12.5 NMd) ± 2.5 NM

10.6.4.0 (171)In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:a) the OCHb) 200 ftc) 350 ftd) 400 ft

10.6.4.0 (172)For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :a) 200 ftb) 250 ftc) 150 ftd) 100 ft

10.6.4.0 (173)A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach...

a) using bearing, elevation and distance information.b) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.c) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.d) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.

10.6.4.0 (174)Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:a) 2.5%b) 2%c) 5%d) 3.3%

10.6.5.0 (175)What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?a) inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.b) a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.c) it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure.

10.6.5.0 (176)In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :a) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.b) rate of 3°per second.c) maximum bank angle of 25°.d) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.

10.6.5.0 (177)Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed ?a) 230 kt IAS.b) 230 kt TAS.c) 240 kt IAS.d) 240 kt TAS.

10.6.5.0 (178)Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?a) To the right.b) To the left.c) First right and then to the left.d) Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

10.6.5.0 (179)What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?a) 1 minuteb) 2 minutes

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c) 1,5 minutesd) 30 secondes

10.6.5.0 (180)You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.a) Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"".b) Off set.c) Parallel.d) Direct.

10.6.5.0 (181)What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?a) 1 minute 30 seconds.b) 1 minute.c) 2 minutes.d) 2 minutes 30 seconds.

10.6.5.0 (182)In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:a) Heading.b) Course.c) Bearing.d) Track.

10.6.5.0 (183)Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:a) 5°.b) 10°.c) 15°.d) 20°.

10.6.5.0 (184)How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?a) 5 NM.b) 3 NM.c) 5 km.d) 3 km.

10.6.5.0 (185)In a standard holding pattern turns are made :a) to the rightb) to the leftc) in a direction depending on the entry ,d) in a direction depending on the wind direction

10.6.5.0 (186)Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?a) Right hand turns / 1 minute outboundb) Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outboundc) Left hand turns / 1 minute outboundd) Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound

10.6.6.0 (187)The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:a) Transition altitude.b) Transition layer.c) Transition level.d) The level specified by ATC.

10.6.6.0 (188)The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:a) 3000 ft.b) 2500 ft.c) 1500 ft.d) 1000 ft.

10.6.6.0 (189)The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:a) as altitude.b) as height.c) as hlight level.d) according pilot's choice.

10.6.6.0 (190)The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :a) as flight level.b) as height.c) as altitude.d) According to pilot's choice.

10.6.6.0 (191)During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed asa) altitude above mean sea level during descentb) altitude above mean sea level during climbc) flight level during descentd) either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb

10.6.6.0 (192)Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:a) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.b) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.c) only at transition altitude.d) only at transition level.

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10.6.6.0 (193)In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:a) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitudeb) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitudec) flight level on or below the transition leveld) flight level on or below the transition altitude

10.6.6.0 (194)At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?a) When passing the transition levelb) When passing the transition altitudec) Within the transition layerd) When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL

10.6.6.0 (195)The transition level:a) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been establishedb) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been establishedc) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIPd) is calculated and decided by the commander

10.6.6.0 (196)The transition level:a) Is calculated by ATSb) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodromec) Is calculated by the commanderd) Will be distributed via NOTAM

10.6.7.0 (197)What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?a) Mode A code 7600.b) Mode A code 7500.c) Mode B code 7600.d) Mode A code 7700.

10.6.7.0 (198)When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:a) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.b) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.d) Only when directed by ATC.

10.6.7.0 (199)When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:a) Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.

b) Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.c) Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.d) Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.

10.6.7.0 (200)The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:a) 7600.b) 2000.c) 7500.d) 7700.

10.6.7.0 (201)When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:a) 7500.b) 7700.c) 7600.d) 7000.

10.6.7.0 (202)Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:a) Requested by ATC.b) They operate within controlled airspace.c) They operate a transponder with Mode C.d) They operate within non controlled airspace.

10.6.7.0 (203)When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:a) Read back the mode and code to be set.b) Use only the word ROGER.c) Use only the word WILCO.d) Read back only the code to be set.

10.6.7.0 (204)Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.b) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.c) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.d) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

10.6.7.0 (205)Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code :a) A 7600 Mode Cb) A 5300 Mode Cc) A 7620 Mode Cd) A 0020 Mode C

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10.7.0.0 (206)When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, ifa) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthyb) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthyc) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthyd) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy

10.7.1.0 (207)A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:a) Control area.b) Control zone.c) Advisory airspace.d) Flight Information Region.

10.7.1.0 (208)A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:a) Control zone.b) Control area.c) Air traffic zone.d) Advisory airspace.

10.7.1.0 (209)ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:a) Class B.b) Class A.c) Class D.d) Class E.

10.7.1.0 (210)Aerodrome traffic is:a) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area.c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.d) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.

10.7.1.0 (211)Air Traffic Service unit means:a) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting offices.b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.c) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.d) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.

10.7.1.0 (212)Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) :a) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.b) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.d) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.

10.7.1.0 (213)An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof isa) An AIRMET informationb) A SIGMET informationc) A NOTAMd) An En-Route Meteo Report

10.7.1.0 (214)Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?a) Annex 11b) Annex 14c) Annex 6d) Annex 17

10.7.1.1 (215)Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?a) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.b) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.c) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.d) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.

10.7.1.1 (216)Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:a) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.b) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.c) Flight Information Service only.d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.

10.7.1.1 (217)Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.

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10.7.1.1 (218)A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:a) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.b) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.d) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

10.7.1.1 (219)A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:a) 200 metres.b) 300 metres.c) 150 metres.d) 500 metres.

10.7.1.1 (220)The units providing Air Traffic Services are:a) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.b) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.c) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.d) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.

10.7.1.1 (221)The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control servicea) An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.b) An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing.c) An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.d) An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.

10.7.1.1 (222)Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:a) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air trafficb) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air trafficc) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air trafficd) Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

10.7.1.1 (223)Which statement is correct?a) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL,b) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,

c) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL,d) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level

10.7.1.1 (224)To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /a) two way radiocommunication is not required.b) a clearance is required.c) a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required.d) a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.

10.7.1.1 (225)An air traffic control unit :a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.b) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.c) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.d) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.

10.7.1.1 (226)The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done :a) by agreement with the receiving unit.b) automatically at the control zone boundary.c) with the pilot's consent.d) through a central control unit.

10.7.1.1 (227)Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy ofa) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basisb) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basisc) plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basisd) plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

10.7.1.1 (228)Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minusa) 30 seconds of UTC at all timesb) 15 seconds of UTC at all timesc) 10 seconds of UTC at all timesd) 1 minute of UTC at all times

10.7.1.1 (229)Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments ofa) 60 NM or moreb) 75 NM or morec) 50 NM or mored) 100 NM or more

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10.7.1.1 (230)Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribeda) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreementsb) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreementsc) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreementsd) by regional air navigation agreements

10.7.1.1 (231)What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?a) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100b) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195c) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levelsd) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100

10.7.1.1 (232)The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :a) Not applicableb) 250 KT IASc) 250 KT TASd) 240 KT IAS

10.7.1.1 (233)The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :a) 250 KT IASb) 250 KT TASc) Not applicabled) 240 KT IAS

10.7.1.1 (234)The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is :a) 250 KT IASb) 250 KT TASc) Not applicabled) 260 KT IAS

10.7.1.1 (235)The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :a) Not applicableb) 250 KT IASc) 250 KT TASd) 260 KT IAS

10.7.1.1 (236)Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in :a) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

b) has to be the same as the underlying flight information regionc) have to be as indicated by ICAO councild) have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings

10.7.1.1 (237)The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of cloudsb) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsc) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of cloudsd) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud

10.7.1.1 (238)A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from cloudsa) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of cloudsb) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsc) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsd) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

10.7.1.1 (239)A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from cloudsa) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsb) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsc) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloudsd) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds

10.7.1.1 (240)An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :a) Airspace Cb) Airspace Dc) Airspace Ed) Airspace B

10.7.1.1 (241)An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified asa) Airspace Bb) Airspace Cc) Airspace Dd) Airspace E

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10.7.1.1 (242)An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as :a) Airspace Db) Airspace Bc) Airspace Ed) Airspace A

10.7.1.1 (243)An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified asa) Airspace Eb) Airspace Dc) Airspace Bd) Airspace A

10.7.1.1 (244)An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classifieda) Airspace Fb) Airspace Gc) Airspace Ed) Airspace D

10.7.1.1 (245)An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified asa) Airspace Gb) Airspace Fc) Airspace Cd) Airspace E

10.7.1.2 (246)Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:a) Achieving separation between controlled flightsb) Achieving separation between IFR flightsc) Providing flight Information Serviced) Providing advisory service

10.7.1.2 (247)Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:a) Achieving separation between controlled flightsb) Providing flight Information Servicec) Providing advisory servicesd) Providing alerting services

10.7.1.2 (248)You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What does it mean ?a) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issuedb) Do not take off before 0920c) The take off clearence is expected at 0920d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan

10.7.1.2 (249)The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:a) 10 minutes.b) 5 minutes.c) 15 minutes.d) 3 minutes.

10.7.1.2 (250)The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:a) 5 minutes.b) 3 minutes.c) 10 minutes.d) 15 minutes.

10.7.1.2 (251)The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:a) 3 minutes.b) 5 minutes.c) 6 minutes.d) 10 minutes.

10.7.1.2 (252)The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:a) 5 minutes.b) 3 minutes.c) 10 minutes.d) 2 minutes.

10.7.1.2 (253)The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:a) 3 minutes.

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b) 5 minutes.c) 10 minutes.d) 8 minutes.

10.7.1.2 (254)When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided:a) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.b) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.c) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.d) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

10.7.1.2 (255)The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses DME stations, is:a) 20 NM.b) 10 NM.c) 5 NM.d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.

10.7.1.2 (256)An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected ?a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120

10.7.1.2 (257)What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircrafta) 6 NMb) 3 NMc) 2 kmd) 10 km

10.7.1.3 (258)When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported valuesb) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourlyc) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in used) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

10.7.1.3 (259)The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceeda) 30 seconds

b) 1 minutec) 2 minutesd) 3 minutes

10.7.1.3 (260)Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updateda) immediately a significant change occursb) at least every half an hour independently of any significant changec) as prescribed by the meteorological officed) as prescribed by the state

10.7.1.3 (261)Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsability ofa) the air traffic servicesb) the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)c) both air traffic services and the meteorological officed) the unit as prescribed the states

10.7.1.3 (262)ATIS broadcasta) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILSb) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VORc) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VORd) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency

10.7.1.3 (263)Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes :a) C, D, E, F, and Gb) F and G onlyc) A, B, C, D, E, F and Gd) F only

10.7.1.3 (264)Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:a) C to G (inclusive)b) A to G (inclusive)c) A to E (inclusive)d) F and G

10.7.1.3 (265)ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are :a) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greaterb) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greaterc) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the

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greaterd) cumulonimbus

10.7.1.4 (266)When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:a) operational air traffic control centresb) flight information or control organisationsc) air traffic co-ordination servicesd) search and rescue co-ordination centres

10.7.1.4 (267)The Alerting Service is provided by:a) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.c) Only by ATC units.d) The Area Control Centres.

10.7.1.4 (268)The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:a) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.c) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.d) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

10.7.1.4 (269)A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first case:a) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.b) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.c) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.d) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

10.7.1.4 (270)Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unitb) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received,c) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of unlawful interferenced) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this,

10.7.1.4 (271)When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:a) air traffic control and flight information centers.b) search and rescue coordination centres.

c) air traffic coordination centres.d) control centres only.

10.7.1.5 (272)Alert phase is defined as follows:a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.b) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.d) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

10.7.1.5 (273)When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of :a) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250d) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190

10.7.1.5 (274)When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of :a) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200b) 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250c) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260d) 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

10.7.3.0 (275)The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:a) limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.b) does not permit such flight in any circumstances.c) limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.d) limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.

10.7.3.0 (276)The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre):a) is 15 minutes.b) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights).c) is 10 minutes.d) is 5 minutes.

10.7.3.0 (277)A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:a) 60 minutes prior to departure.b) 10 minutes prior to departure.

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c) 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.d) 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.

10.7.3.0 (278)If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.

10.7.3.0 (279)The pilot in command of an aircraft:1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.2 - is responsible only if he is the ""pilot flying"".3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 05-Marb) 2003-04-05c) 1 - 4d) 2002-03-05

10.7.3.0 (280)A strayed aircraft is :a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lostb) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended trackc) only that aircraft which reports that it is lostd) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established

10.7.3.1 (281)""ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential traffic one to each other.a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.c) All IFR flights.d) Only controlled IFR flights.

10.7.3.1 (282)When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:1 He must inform the control unit (""cancel IFR"")2 He must request and obtain clearance.3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a VFR flight plan.4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.The correct combination of statements is:a) 1 and 4

b) 2 and 4c) 2 and 3d) 1 and 3

10.7.3.1 (283)A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.c) Crossing arms extended above his head.d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

10.7.3.1 (284)In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

10.7.3.1 (285)Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.

10.7.3.1 (286)The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.

10.7.3.1 (287)Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?a) The pilot in command.b) The aircraft operator.c) The ATC.d) The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.

10.7.3.1 (288)Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?a) Zb) I

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c) Vd) Y

10.7.3.1 (289)Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?a) Yb) Ic) Vd) Z

10.7.3.1 (290)In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.c) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.d) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

10.7.3.1 (291)A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:a) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.b) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.c) Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.d) Read back should be unsolicited.

10.7.3.1 (292)Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :a) on the initiative of the aircraft commanderb) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditionsc) as instructed by an air traffic control unitd) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

10.7.3.1 (293)A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.In section I the pilot fills in :a) a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ,b) weather noted ,c) flight identification and weather noted ,d) urgent messages

10.7.3.1 (294)The letter ""L"" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:a) 7 000 kg.b) 14 000 kg.c) 20 000 kg.d) 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.

10.7.3.1 (295)If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...a) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of theairportc) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airportd) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of theairport.

10.7.3.1 (296)The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:a) true air speed (TAS).b) estimated ground speed (G/S).c) indicated air speed (IAS).d) true air speed at 65% power.

10.7.3.1 (297)The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :a) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.b) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).c) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.d) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.

10.7.3.2 (298)Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?a) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.b) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.c) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.d) Return to the aerodrome of departure.

10.7.3.2 (299)Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:a) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.b) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.

10.7.3.2 (300)Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:a) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.b) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.

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c) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.

10.7.3.2 (301)If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:a) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.b) He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.c) The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed with ATC.d) The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.

10.7.3.2 (302)The ""VMC and own separation"" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to cross the level of another controlled flight when:a) Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.b) Requested by the pilot and during the day light.c) Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown.d) This procedure is not allowed.

10.7.3.2 (303)Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:a) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.b) Decided on pilot's discretion.c) Prescribed by the aircraft operations.d) the weather permits.

10.7.3.2 (304)What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?a) Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.b) Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.c) Time separation and track separation.d) Composite separation.

10.7.3.2 (305)The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:a) 1000 feet (300 m).b) 2000 feet (600 m).c) 500 feet (150 m).d) 2500 feet (750 m).

10.7.3.2 (306)The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:a) 2000 feet (600 m).b) 1000 feet (300 m).c) 500 feet (150 m).d) 4000 feet (1200 m).

10.7.3.2 (307)Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:a) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.b) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.d) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.

10.7.3.2 (308)Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller:""Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further advised"".Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to your current flight plan route:a) On the nearest way.b) With an intercept of 20° or more.c) With an intercept of at least 45°.d) With an intercept of at least 30°.

10.7.3.2 (309)Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction is:a) 4 000 feet.b) 2 000 feet.c) 3 000 feet.d) 1 500 feet.

10.7.3.2 (310)The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft ""on track"" uses DME stations, is:a) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.c) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.

10.7.3.2 (311)A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on track"" way-point. This minimum is:a) 80 NM.b) 60 NM.c) 50 NM.d) 20 NM.

10.7.3.2 (312)A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified as:

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a) B.b) B and C.c) B, C and D.d) B, C, D and E.

10.7.3.2 (313)One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:a) 45° immediately after take-off.b) 30° immediately after take-off.c) 15° immediately after take-off.d) 25° immediately after take-off.

10.7.3.2 (314)Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:a) The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.b) The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.c) The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.d) The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

10.7.3.2 (315)The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called :a) Composite separationb) Combined separationc) Reduced separationd) Essential separation

10.7.3.2 (316)What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?a) 1000 feetb) 500 feetc) 1500 feetd) 2000 feet

10.7.3.2 (317)Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)a) Above the transition altitude when applicableb) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPac) only in airspace class Ad) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

10.7.3.2 (318)Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possiblea) If the commander so requestsb) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutesc) If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutesd) Only when leaving controlled airspace

10.7.3.2 (319)Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descenda) 10 NMb) 12 NMc) 15 NMd) 20 NM

10.7.3.2 (320)Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :a) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700b) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500c) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700d) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500

10.7.3.2 (321)When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is :a) 80 NMb) 100 NMc) 70 NMd) 60 NM

10.7.3.2 (322)Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes ""on Track"" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :a) 20 NMb) 10 NMc) 25 NMd) 40 NM

10.7.3.2 (323)Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will bea) 3 minutesb) 5 minutesc) 10 minutesd) 2 minutes

10.7.3.2 (324)Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising

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level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will bea) 5 minutesb) 3 minutesc) 10 minutesd) 2 minutes

10.7.3.2 (325)Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will bea) 10 minutesb) 15 minutesc) 5 minutesd) 3 minutes

10.7.3.2 (326)Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and :a) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive daysb) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive daysc) On at least 20 days consecutivelyd) On at least 20 occasions

10.7.3.3 (327)The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated:a) 25 NM (46 km).b) 15 NM (28 km).c) 20 NM (37 km).d) 30 NM (55 km).

10.7.3.3 (328)""Time Approach Procedure"" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft:a) To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time.b) To pass a specified point.c) To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence.d) To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure.

10.7.3.3 (329)During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact departure control:a) When advised by Tower.b) Before penetrating the clouds.c) When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance.d) After take-off.

10.7.3.3 (330)A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed :a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground,b) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC,c) during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure,d) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more

10.7.3.3 (331)An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :a) all mentioned answers are correctb) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,c) the aircraft gets radar vectors ,d) the pilot is following the published approach procedure

10.7.3.3 (332)The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is :a) 5 minutes or more.b) 15 minutes or morec) 10 minutesd) 20 minutes

10.7.3.3 (333)Which statement is correct ?During a ""Visual Approach"" in Controlled Airspace (Classe C):a) ATC will apply separation with other trafficb) the pilot to apply separation with other traffic,c) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-trafficd) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic

10.7.3.3 (334)If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any directiona) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runwayb) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runwayc) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runwayd) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

10.7.3.3 (335)For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft:a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.b) will land.c) will stop on the parking area.d) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.

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10.7.3.3 (336)For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:a) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separationb) At the discretion of the air traffic controllerc) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requestsd) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight

10.7.3.3 (337)If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditionsa) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled trafficb) Continued approach will be according to VFRc) The approach must be passing the FAFd) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

10.7.3.3 (338)At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is :a) 5 KTb) 3 KTc) 10 KTd) 8 KT

10.7.3.3 (339)At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is :a) 2 KTb) 4 KTc) 5 KTd) 3 KT

10.7.3.3 (340)At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is :a) 10 KTb) 5 KTc) 8 KTd) 4 KT

10.7.3.3 (341)During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:

a) the pilot in command.b) the approach controller.c) the radar controller.d) the airport controller.

10.7.3.3 (342)A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :a) 300 m (1000 ft)b) 200 m (660 ft)c) 150 m (500 ft)d) 100 m (330 ft)

10.7.3.3 (343)A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :a) 3.0 NMb) 5.0 NMc) 1.0 NMd) 2.0 NM

10.7.3.3 (344)Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that :a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approachb) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approachc) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approachd) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

10.7.3.3 (345)When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than :a) 30 degreesb) 25 degreesc) 20 degreesd) 15 degrees

10.7.3.3 (346)Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :a) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar displayb) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar

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displayc) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar displayd) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

10.7.3.3 (347)When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for :a) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angleb) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation anglec) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angled) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

10.7.3.3 (348)Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by :a) at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approachb) at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approachc) at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approachd) at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

10.7.3.4 (349)When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:a) 50 metres.b) 30 metres.c) 45 metres.d) 60 metres.

10.7.3.4 (350)Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct?a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ,b) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area,c) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller,d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule

10.7.3.4 (351)Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ?a) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraftb) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ,c) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact

between aircraft and approach control ,d) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ,

10.7.3.4 (352)A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :a) Poorb) Goodc) Medium/poord) Medium

10.7.3.4 (353)Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation :a) At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraftb) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraftc) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraftd) At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

10.7.3.4 (354)Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class :a) E airspaceb) D and E airspacesc) D airspaced) C, D and E airspaces

10.7.3.4 (355)In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft ?a) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutesb) medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutesc) light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutesd) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

10.7.3.4 (356)According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic :a) Before landing and take-offb) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.c) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.d) When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP

10.7.3.4 (357)A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by :

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a) Less than 760 mb) 760 mc) Less than 730 md) 730 m

10.7.3.4 (358)A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is :a) 2 minutesb) 5 minutesc) 3 minutesd) 1 minute

10.7.3.4 (359)In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway ?a) 2 minutesb) 3 minutesc) 4 minutesd) 1 minute

10.7.3.5 (360)Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are:a) Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.b) Provided with air traffic control services, only.c) Known to the relevant air traffic services units.d) Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.

10.7.3.5 (361)Alerting service shall be provided:a) For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATS.b) For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.c) To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.d) In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the ATS.

10.7.3.5 (362)What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?a) 2 minutesb) 3 minutesc) 1 minuted) 5 minutes

10.7.3.6 (363)Where a ""Secondary Surveillance Radar"" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.

10.7.3.6 (364)Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?a) Code 7500.b) Code 7700.c) Code 7600.d) Code 2000.

10.7.3.6 (365)Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.

10.7.3.6 (366)What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation"" after you have been vectored to an airway?a) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.b) Radar Service is terminated.c) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

10.7.3.6 (367)An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by:a) More than 300 ft.b) 300 ft.c) +/- 300 ft.d) More than 200 ft.

10.7.3.6 (368)The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:a) 3.0 NM.b) 5.0 NM.c) 2.0 NM.d) 1.5 NM.

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10.7.3.6 (369)Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:a) 8 NM.b) 10 NM.c) 5 NM.d) 6 NM.

10.7.3.6 (370)An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:a) 2 NM.b) 3 NM.c) 1 NM.d) 4 NM.

10.7.3.6 (371)When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:a) 2 NM from touchdown.b) 3 NM from touchdown.c) 2.5 NM from touchdown.d) 1 NM from touchdown.

10.7.3.6 (372)Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:a) +/- 20 kt.b) +/- 10 kt.c) +/- 15 kt.d) +/- 8 kt.

10.7.3.6 (373)The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:a) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.b) 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.c) 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.d) 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.

10.7.3.6 (374)Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:a) You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.b) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

c) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.d) You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

10.7.3.6 (375)The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain.a) Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.b) Prevent collisions with terrainc) Do not prevent collisions with terraind) Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

10.7.3.6 (376)Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?a) Code 7700.b) Code 7500.c) Code 7600.d) Code 7000.

10.7.3.6 (377)One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:a) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.b) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.c) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.d) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.

10.7.3.6 (378)The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:a) To provide radar separation.b) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.c) To assist aircraft on the location storms.d) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.

10.7.3.6 (379)When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:a) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.b) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.d) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.

10.7.3.6 (380)One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:a) To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).b) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.c) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.d) To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.

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10.7.3.6 (381)Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:a) 2 NM.b) 4 NM.c) 5 NM.d) 3 NM.

10.7.3.6 (382)When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:a) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from ""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"".b) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"".c) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"".d) To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"".

10.7.3.6 (383)When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:a) 30 degrees.b) 25 degrees.c) 15 degrees.d) 20 degrees.

10.7.3.6 (384)The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:a) 3 NM.b) 2 NM.c) 5 NM.d) 2.5 NM.

10.7.3.6 (385)The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:a) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.b) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.c) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.d) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

10.7.3.6 (386)The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:a) +/- 300 ft.b) +/- 200 ft.c) +/- 250 ft.d) +/- 500 ft.

10.7.3.6 (387)Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:a) 5.0 NM.b) 3.0 NM.c) 10.0 NM.d) 3.5 NM.

10.7.3.6 (388)The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion):a) +/- 300 ft.b) +/- 200 ft.c) +/- 150 ft.d) +/- 250 ft.

10.7.3.6 (389)An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:a) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.b) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.c) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.d) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

10.7.3.6 (390)When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restorage is impossible, than :a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowedb) you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight,c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner,d) you are not allowed to commence the flight

10.7.3.6 (391)The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been establishedb) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraftc) The aircraft is subject to positive controld) Position reports may be omitted

10.7.3.6 (392)Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than :a) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of thresholdb) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of thresholdc) 15 knots at any staged) 25 knots at any stage

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10.7.3.6 (393)Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to be achieved within :a) 1NMb) 2NMc) 3NMd) 5NM

10.7.3.6 (394)Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than :a) 2,5 NMb) 1,5 NMc) 3 NMd) 5 NM

10.7.3.6 (395)During radar-control, a ""radar-controller"" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the ""tower-controller"" has not issued a ""landing-clearance"" at the moment the aircraft is :a) 2 NM from touch-down,b) 1NM from touch-down,c) 3 NM from touch-down,d) 4 NM from touch-down,

10.7.3.6 (396)When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of :a) 4 NM from the touchdownb) 2 NM from the touchdownc) 3 NM from the touchdownd) 1.5 NM from the touchdown

10.7.3.6 (397)The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at eacha) half NMb) 1 NMc) 1.5 NMd) half mile

10.7.3.6 (398)Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :a) 2 NM from touchdown

b) 3 NM from touchdownc) 4 NM from touchdownd) 5 NM from touchdown

10.7.3.6 (399)An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :a) 2 NM from the touchdownb) 4 NM from the touchdownc) 5 NM from the touchdownd) 1.5 NM from the touchdown

10.7.3.6 (400)An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the :a) Last 2 NM of the approachb) Last 4 NM of the approachc) Last 3 NM of the approachd) Last 5 NM of the approach

10.7.3.6 (401)What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?a) ± 20KTb) ± 15 KTc) ± 10KTd) ± 25 KT

10.7.3.6 (402)When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the pilot must fly heading:a) 030° magneticb) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)c) 030° trued) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)

10.8.1.0 (403)In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?a) GEN.b) RAC.c) COM.d) MET.

10.8.1.0 (404)In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations on refuelling services?a) AD.b) FAL.

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c) GEN.d) SAR.

10.8.1.0 (405)In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?a) ENR.b) MAP.c) GEN.d) AGA.

10.8.1.0 (406)A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:a) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).c) NOTAM.d) AIRAC.

10.8.1.0 (407)A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:a) An AIRAC.b) A NOTAM RAC.c) An ATS NOTAM.d) An Advisory NOTAM.

10.8.1.0 (408)Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:a) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.b) Only AIP and NOTAM's.c) AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.d) Only NOTAM's and Circulars.

10.8.1.0 (409)The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :a) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.b) only in NOTAMc) only in AIPd) NOTAM, AIP and MAL

10.8.1.0 (410)In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with ""location indicators""?a) GENb) AGAc) ENRd) AD

10.8.1.0 (411)An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elementsa) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summuriesb) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summariesc) AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summariesd) AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC

10.8.1.0 (412)The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by :a) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figuresb) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figuresc) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and Dd) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

10.8.1.0 (413)In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period ofa) At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they referb) At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they referc) At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they referd) At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

10.8.1.0 (414)Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.a) Three months or longerb) Six months or longerc) One year or longerd) Two months or longer

10.8.1.0 (415)Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with :a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRACb) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a numberc) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identificald) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number

10.8.1.0 (416)A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of :a) Not more than one monthb) Not more than three monthsc) Not more than 28 daysd) Not more than 2 months

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10.8.1.0 (417)A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of :a) Not more than one monthb) No more than 15 daysc) Not more than 28 daysd) Not more than 10 days

10.8.1.0 (418)The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code isa) REDb) YELLOWc) GREENd) ORANGE

10.8.1.0 (419)Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing chartsa) Visibility minimab) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sectorc) OCH or OCAd) DME-frequencies

10.8.1.0 (420)Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIPa) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternateb) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sectorc) OCA or OCHd) DME-frequencies

10.8.1.0 (421)ASHTAMa) GVATAMb) NAVTAMc) VULTAMd) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.8.1.0 (422)AIRACa) IFPSb) NOTAMc) EATCHIPd) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.8.1.0 (423)AIP Supplementsa) AIP Amendments

b) NOTAMc) Trigger NOTAMd) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.8.1.0 (424)The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are :a) GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)b) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.c) GEN, ENR, RAC, ADd) GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL

10.8.1.0 (425)The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :a) GENb) ENRc) AGAd) MET

10.8.1.0 (426)The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIPa) GENb) FALc) RACd) AD

10.8.1.0 (427)The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIPa) ENRb) GENc) ADd) MAP

10.8.1.0 (428)An AIRAC is :a) An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.b) A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.c) A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.d) A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.

10.9.1.0 (429)Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?a) Annex 14

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b) Annex 6c) Annex 11d) Annex 10

10.9.1.1 (430)""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.a) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.b) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.c) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.d) Precision approach runways in general.

10.9.1.1 (431)""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be:a) 18 m.b) 15 m.c) 23 m.d) 25 m.

10.9.1.1 (432)""TODA"" take-off distance available is:a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).b) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if provided).d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

10.9.1.1 (433)""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to:a) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.b) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.c) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.d) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

10.9.1.1 (434)Which ""code letter"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?a) Code letter ""C"".b) Code letter ""B"".c) Code letter ""D"".d) Code letter ""E"".

10.9.1.1 (435)According to the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"", the ""Code Letter E"" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:a) 52 m up to but not including 65 m.b) 36 m up to but not including 52 m.

c) 24 m up to but not including 36 m.d) 15 m up to but not including 24 m.

10.9.1.1 (436)In the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the code element 2 shall identify:a) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.b) Only the aircraft wing span.c) The width of the aircraft wing.d) The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.

10.9.1.1 (437)The ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed:a) 2B.b) 6D.c) 5E.d) 4F.

10.9.1.1 (438)According with the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the ""Code number 4"" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of:a) 1 800 m and over.b) 1 600 m.c) 1 500 m.d) 1 200 m.

10.9.1.1 (439)The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where:a) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.b) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.c) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.d) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

10.9.1.1 (440)""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway provided) .b) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if provided) .d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

10.9.1.1 (441)Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?a) 45 metresb) 35 metres

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c) 40 metresd) 50 metres

10.9.1.2 (442)Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:a) Fixed lights showing variable white.b) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.c) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.d) Flashing white.

10.9.1.2 (443)Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:a) Flashing white.b) Fixed green.c) Flashing green.d) Fixed white.

10.9.1.2 (444)The light shown by an ""Aerodrome Identification Beacon"" at a land aerodrome shall be:a) Green colour identification given by Morse Code.b) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.c) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.d) White colour identification given by Morse Code.

10.9.1.2 (445)In the ""VASIS"" , how many light units are in each wing bar?a) 3.b) 2.c) 4.d) 5.

10.9.1.2 (446)In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:a) 300 m.b) 150 m.c) 200 m.d) 250 m.

10.9.1.2 (447)How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?a) 2.b) 3.c) None.d) 1.

10.9.1.2 (448)Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing green.b) Fixed lights showing blue.c) Fixed lights showing yellow.d) Fixed lights showing white.

10.9.1.2 (449)In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:a) Fixed lights showing variable white.b) Flashing lights showing variable white.c) Fixed lights showing variable green.d) Flashing lights showing variable green.

10.9.1.2 (450)The abbreviation PAPI stands for:a) Precision Approach Path Indicator.b) Precision Approach Path Index.c) Precision Approach Power Indicator.d) Precision Approach Power Index.

10.9.1.2 (451)The ""PAPI"" shall consist of:a) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.b) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.c) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.

10.9.1.2 (452)In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:a) On or close to the approach slope.b) Above the approach slope.c) Below the approach slope.d) Only on the approach slope.

10.9.1.2 (453)In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:a) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C"" and ""R"".b) By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.d) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter.

10.9.1.2 (454)Taxiway edge lights shall be:a) Fixed showing blue.b) Fixed showing green.c) Fixed showing yellow.d) Flashing showing blue.

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10.9.1.2 (455)Runway end lights shall be:a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.c) Fixed lights showing variable red.d) Fixed lights showing variable white.

10.9.1.2 (456)Runway threshold lights shall be:a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.c) Fixed lights green colours.d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

10.9.1.2 (457)Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions.c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.d) mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.

10.9.1.2 (458)Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?a) 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unitb) 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unitc) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unitd) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit

10.9.1.2 (459)What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II :a) 900mb) 150mc) 300md) 600m

10.9.1.2 (460)What is a ""barrette""?a) three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.b) a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.c) a CAT II or III holding position.d) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.

10.9.1.2 (461)A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:a) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.b) a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

c) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.d) a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

10.9.1.2 (462)When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at :a) 300 m from thresholdb) 150 m from thresholdc) 450 m from thresholdd) 600 m from threshold

10.9.1.2 (463)Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,b) always of a straight row of lights towards the runwayc) of flashing lights only,d) of an arbitrary amount of green lights,

10.9.1.2 (464)Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?a) 900 metresb) 420 metresc) 1000 metresd) 1200 metres

10.9.1.3 (465)High intensity obstacle lights should be:a) Flashing white.b) Flashing red.c) Fixed red.d) Fixed orange.

10.9.1.3 (466)Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:a) Flashing red or preferably yellow.b) Fixed red or preferably orange.c) Fixed red or preferably blue.d) Flashing blue.

10.9.1.3 (467)Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:a) Fixed red.b) Flashing red.c) Flashing yellow.d) Fixed orange.

10.9.1.4 (468)The runway edge lights shall be :

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a) whiteb) bluec) greend) red

10.9.1.5 (469)The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.b) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.c) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.d) The longuest aeroplane maximum width only

10.10.1.0 (470)The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is :a) annex 9b) annex 8c) annex 6d) annex 15

10.10.1.0 (471)The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is :a) annex 9b) annex 8c) annex 15d) annex 16

10.10.1.0 (472)A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) :a) The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goodsb) The air waybill number and the nature of the goodsc) The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill numberd) The air waybill number

10.10.1.0 (473)Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are :a) 2 of eachb) 3 of eachc) 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.d) 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list

10.10.1.0 (474)In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received :a) at least 2 hours in advance of arrivalb) at least 4 hours in advance of arrivalc) at least 1 hour in advance of arrivald) at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA

10.10.1.0 (475)An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty.a) For a period to be established by that Stateb) for a period of 24 hoursc) for a period of 48 hoursd) for a period of 12 hours

10.10.1.0 (476)Which one of the statements is correct :a) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crewb) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crewc) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengersd) contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages

10.10.2.0 (477)When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:a) At least 30 minute prior to land.b) At least one hour prior to land.c) At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.d) At least immediately before landing.

10.10.2.0 (478)The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.a) The stated above is correct.b) The operator has no obligation.c) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.d) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.

10.10.2.0 (479)When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state

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where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operatora) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operatorb) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taes on thexes on the operatorc) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operatord) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator

10.10.2.0 (480)Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to :a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargob) cargo and is covered by a traffic documentc) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration formsd) cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment

10.10.2.0 (481)Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed :a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Unionb) by IATA and accepted by the contracting statesc) by IATA and accepted by ICAOd) by the Regional Postal Office

10.10.2.0 (482)Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival whena) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrivalb) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrivalc) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrivald) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger

10.10.2.0 (483)The documents for entry and departure of aircraft :a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in inkb) has to be typewrittenc) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniquesd) are accepted at the contracting state discretion

10.10.2.0 (484)When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator :a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibilityc) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving stated) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

10.10.2.0 (485)In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting statesa) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flightb) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flightc) in certain cases any other identity may be requiredd) none of the answers are applicable

10.11.1.1 (486)The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.

10.11.1.3 (487)Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.-aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopterThe command of the situation is the responsibility of,a) (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).b) (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations.c) (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).d) (1) until the completion of operations.

10.11.1.4 (488)The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:a) Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing.c) Black for food and water.d) Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.

10.11.1.4 (489)The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:a) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.b) Red for food and water.c) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.d) Black for food and water.

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10.11.1.4 (490)The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:a) Blue for food and water.b) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.c) Black for food and water.d) Red for miscellaneous equipment.

10.11.1.4 (491)The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code:a) Black for miscellaneous equipment.b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing.c) Red for food and water.d) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

10.11.1.4 (492)(For this question use annex 010-9801A)Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning ""REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"" is (are) :a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4

10.11.1.4 (493)(For this question use annex 010-9802A)Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning ""we have found all personnel"" is :a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4

10.11.1.4 (494)(For this question use annex 010-9803A)What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ?a) Require medical assistanceb) Require assistancec) Landing here impossibled) Drop emergency supplies at this point

10.11.1.4 (495)(For this question use annex 010-9804A)The ground - air visual code illustrated means :a) Require assistanceb) Please indicate directionc) Proceding in the direction shownd) Require medical assistance

10.11.1.4 (496)(For this question use annex 010-9805A)Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter similar to the symbol meanning ""REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"" is :a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4

10.11.1.4 (497)(For this question use annex 010-9806A)What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?a) operation completedb) we have found all personnelc) we have found only some personneld) we are returning to base

10.11.1.4 (498)Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?a) 2430 KHzb) 121.5 MHzc) 243.0 MHzd) 2.182 KHz

10.11.1.4 (499)An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the form of an ""X"".This indicates :a) ""Need medical assistance"".b) ""Landing impossible"".c) ""All occupants alive"".d) ""Need mechanical assistance"".

10.11.1.4 (500)At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must :a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.b) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.c) transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter ""R"" using his navigational lights.d) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.

10.12.1.0 (501)For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as :a) boarding prior to all passengersb) boarding after to all other passengersc) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretiond) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion

10.12.1.0 (502)Aeronautical part

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a) Security program.b) Manoeuvring area.c) Terminal.d) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.12.1.0 (503)The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its departure is justified to protect lives.a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act.c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consusltations between the State where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's State.d) 1999-06-08 0:00

10.12.1.1 (504)The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by :a) Each contracting stateb) ICAOc) ECACd) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned

10.12.1.1 (505)Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority :a) Shall be specified to ICAOb) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECACc) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting statesd) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC

10.12.1.2 (506)Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be takena) The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.b) Correct.c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings.d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.

10.12.1.2 (507)When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security

screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passeda) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraftb) only the passengers are to be re screenedc) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screenedd) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified

10.12.1.2 (508)Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply :a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member stateb) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargoc) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flightsd) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights

10.12.1.2 (509)When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon :a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraftb) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft onlyc) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destinationd) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival

10.12.1.2 (510)Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below :a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custodyb) Deportees and persons in lawful custody onlyc) Deportees and inadmissible persons onlyd) None of the answers is correct

10.13.1.0 (511)Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways.c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.

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d) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.

10.13.1.0 (512)Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of an accident investigation?a) The government of the state in which the accident took placeb) Operators of the same aircraft typec) The aircraft manufacturerd) The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered

10.13.1.0 (513)Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :a) Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kgb) Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kgc) Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kgd) Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg

21.1.0.0 (514)For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.2 No routine check is necessary.3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.4 Certain components may not be accessible.5 The principle is the redundancy of components6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,5,6b) 2,3,4c) 1,3,4d) 2,5,6

21.1.1.0 (515)DURALUMIN alloys :1 have an aluminium-copper base.2 have an aluminium-magnesium base.3 are easy to weld.4 are difficult to weld.5 have a good thermal conductivity.6 have a poor air corrosion resistanceThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,4,5b) 2,4,5c) 1,3,6d) 2,3,6

21.1.1.0 (516)Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:1. normal bending stresses2. tangent bending stresses3. torsional moment4. shear stressesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 3b) 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2, 4d) 1, 3, 4

21.1.1.0 (517)'Fail safe construction' is :a) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.b) A simple and cheap type of construction.c) A type of construction for small aircraft only.d) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

21.1.1.0 (518)The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:a) assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.b) withstand the shear stresses.c) provide sound and thermal isolation.d) integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.

21.1.1.0 (519)The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is thata) the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrumb) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much timec) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.d) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way

21.1.3.0 (520)The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:a) compression, then in tension.b) tension, then in compression.c) tension.d) compression.

21.1.3.0 (521)In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is:a) highest at the wing rootb) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the spanc) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi spand) lowest at the wing root

21.1.3.0 (522)The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:1 Is a limitation set by regulation.2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.4 Requires to empty external tanks first.5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.The correct combination of true statements is :a) 1,2,3b) 2,5

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c) 2,4d) 1,3,5

21.1.3.0 (523)On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are:a) the spars.b) the ribs.c) the webs.d) the skin.

21.1.4.0 (524)The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is :a) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulenceb) to a have greater effectiveness at high speedc) that it does not require a de-icing systemd) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation

21.1.5.0 (525)A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to :a) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.b) absorb the spring tension.c) control the wheels.d) lock the landing gear.

21.1.5.0 (526)In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:a) Hydraulically driven.b) Mechanically driven.c) Pneumatically driven.d) Electrically driven.

21.1.5.0 (527)Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.a) Mechanicallyb) Electrically.c) Pneumatically.d) By hydraulic accumulators.

21.1.5.0 (528)If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:a) Repaired several times.b) repaired once.c) Never repaired.d) Used on the nose wheel only.

21.1.5.0 (529)The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will be :

a) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.b) Increased on the faster turning wheels.c) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.d) Increased on the slower turning wheels.

21.1.5.0 (530)The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:a) Multiple disk brake.b) Drum type brake.c) Single disk brake.d) Belt brake.

21.1.5.0 (531)The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :a) release air from the tyre in case of overheating.b) prevent the brakes from overheating.c) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.d) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.

21.1.5.0 (532)Thermal plugs are installed in:a) wheel rims.b) fire warning systems.c) cabin windows.d) cargo compartments.

21.1.5.0 (533)When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:a) 0b) 1c) 0.1d) 0.5

21.1.5.0 (534)Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actionsThis effect is overcome by means of:3. the torque link4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinderThe combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 3.b) 1, 4.c) 2, 4.d) 2, 3.

21.1.5.0 (535)The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is :a) locked-down.b) in the required position.c) locked-down and its door is locked.d) not in the required position.

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21.1.5.0 (536)A tubeless tyre has :1- a built-in-air tube.2- no built-in-air tube.3- a crossed side casing.4- a radial side casing.The combination of correct statements is:a) 2, 4.b) 1, 4.c) 2, 3.d) 1,3.

21.1.5.0 (537)In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:a) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.b) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.c) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.d) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.

21.1.5.0 (538)Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft ?a) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.b) Nitrogen.c) Oxygen.d) Springs.

21.1.5.0 (539)In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of :a) A latch located in the landing gear lever.b) An aural warning horn.c) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.d) A bolt.

21.1.5.0 (540)A tubeless tyre is a tyre:1. which requires solid or branched wheels2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations3. whose mounting rim must be flawless4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 5, 6.b) 3, 4, 5.c) 1, 2, 5.d) 2, 3, 6.

21.1.5.0 (541)Landing gear torque links are used to:a) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.b) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

c) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.d) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

21.1.5.0 (542)A main landing gear is said to be ""locked down"" when:a) the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.b) it is in the down position.c) the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.d) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.

21.1.5.0 (543)The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressureThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 4.b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.c) 2, 4.d) 1, 3.

21.1.5.0 (544)On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from :a) the aeroplane's hydraulic system.b) the master cylinders.c) pressure to the rudder pedals.d) the brake actuators.

21.1.5.0 (545)""Nose wheel shimmy"" may be described as :a) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.b) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.c) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.d) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

21.1.5.0 (546)The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear isa) Taxiing with a small turning radius.b) Touch down with crosswindc) Gear down selectiond) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

21.1.5.0 (547)Tyre ""creep"" may be described as the :a) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.b) the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature.c) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.d) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.

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21.1.5.0 (548)The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing ..a) by pilot actionb) automaticallyc) at a certain low speedd) the system is always armed

21.1.5.0 (549)The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are :a) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring functionb) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.d) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation function.

21.1.5.0 (550)The function of a fusible plug is toa) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.b) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.c) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric systemd) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

21.1.5.0 (551)(For this question use appendix )Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams :a) 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheelsb) 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandemc) 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- forkd) 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels

21.1.5.0 (552)A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to :a) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.b) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.c) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nosewheel.d) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.

21.1.5.0 (553)Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics :1 - high heating2 - valve fragility3 - lower risk of bursting4 - better adjustment to wheelsThe combination containing all the correct statements is:a) 04-Marb) 03-Fevc) 04-Fevd) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

21.1.5.0 (554)On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for

example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:a) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.b) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.c) the ""Emergency Burst"" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre temperature.d) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.

21.1.5.0 (555)On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:a) will wear at the shouldersb) it's tread will deteriorate fasterc) will have an increased critical hydroplanning speedd) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

21.1.6.1 (556)The trim tab :a) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.b) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.c) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.d) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

21.1.6.1 (557)The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:a) reduce or to cancel control forces.b) trim the aeroplane during normal flight.c) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.d) lower manoeuvring control forces.

21.1.6.1 (558)An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:a) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.b) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.c) there is a trimmable stabilizer.d) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

21.1.6.1 (559)An artificial feel unit system:a) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.b) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.c) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.d) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.

21.1.6.1 (560)A Yaw Damper is :a) A rudder damper designed to avoid the ""Dutch roll"".b) An elevator augmentor.c) An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.d) A roll trim tab.

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21.1.6.1 (561)In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...a) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.b) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.c) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.d) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.

21.1.6.2 (562)The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems4. immunity to different interfering signals5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 3 and 5b) 1 and 2c) 1 and 5d) 2 and 3

21.1.6.2 (563)Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers?a) Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.b) Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.c) Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.d) Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.

21.1.6.2 (564)On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:a) leading edge flapb) trailing edge flapc) leading edge flap close to the wing rootd) leading edge flap close to the wing tip

21.1.6.2 (565)The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches isa) To reduce the probability of a trim-runawayb) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.c) Because there are two trim motors.d) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed

21.1.6.2 (566)On an aeroplane, spoilers are :a) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.b) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.

c) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.d) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

21.1.6.2 (567)On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:a) leading edge flaps close to the wing rootb) trailing edge flaps close to the wing rootc) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tipd) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip

21.1.7.1 (568)Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:1. thermal stability2. low emulsifying characteristics3. corrosion resistance4. good resistance to combustion5. high compressibility6. high volatility7. high viscosityThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 3, 4b) 1, 2, 5, 7c) 2, 3, 4, 5d) 1, 3, 4, 6

21.1.7.1 (569)In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi.An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:a) 3000 psib) 1200 psic) 4200 psid) 1800 psi

21.1.7.1 (570)Hydraulic fluids :a) Are irritating to eyes and skin.b) Cause high fire risk.c) Do not require special care.d) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

21.1.7.1 (571)Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:a) Phosphate ester base fluids.b) Water base fluids.c) Vegetable base fluids.d) Mineral base fluids.

21.1.7.1 (572)Hydraulic power is a function of :a) System pressure and volume flow.b) Pump RPM only.c) System pressure and tank capacity.d) Pump size and volume flow.

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21.1.7.1 (573)Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:a) 3000 psib) 4000 psic) 2000 psid) 1000 psi

21.1.7.1 (574)In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:a) Synthetic oil.b) Mineral oil.c) Vegetable oil.d) Water and glycol.

21.1.7.1 (575)The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:a) synthetic oilb) vegetable oilc) mixture of mineral oil and alcohold) mineral oil

21.1.7.1 (576)The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is :a) Synthetic fluid.b) Mineral oil based fluid.c) Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).d) Water and glycol based fluid.

21.1.7.1 (577)The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is called ...a) An actuator or jack.b) A hydraulic pump.c) An accumulator.d) A Pressure regulator.

21.1.7.1 (578)The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:a) high pressure and large flow.b) high pressure and small flow.c) small pressure and large flow.d) small pressure and small flow.

21.1.7.1 (579)Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:a) purple.b) pink.c) blue.d) red.

21.1.7.1 (580)(For this question use annex 021-6716A)In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)a) 100 N.b) 1000 N.c) 20 N.d) 1 N.

21.1.7.1 (581)Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :a) an increased fluid temperature.b) fluid loss.c) a decreased fluid temperature.d) an increased fluid pressure.

21.1.7.1 (582)Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :a) fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.b) always remain the same.c) initially increase with system pressurisation.d) increase as ambient temperature decreases.

21.1.7.1 (583)Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be :a) 3000 psi.b) 2000 psi.c) 1000 psi.d) 4000 psi.

21.1.7.1 (584)For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is :a) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve.b) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm²).c) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.d) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.

21.1.7.2 (585)Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?a) At the pumps.b) In the reservoirs.c) At actuators.d) At the coolers.

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21.1.7.2 (586)In a modern hydraulic system, ""hydraulic fuses"" can be found. Their function is :a) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.b) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.c) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.d) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.

21.1.7.2 (587)In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:a) prevent pump cavitationb) seal the systemc) keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperatured) reduce fluid combustibility

21.1.7.2 (588)The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:a) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.b) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.c) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.d) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.

21.1.7.2 (589)Shuttle valves will automatically:a) Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.b) Shut down systems which are overloaded.c) Guard systems against overpressure.d) Reduce pump loads.

21.1.7.2 (590)In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used :a) for damping pressure surges in the system.b) for fluid storage.c) for pressure storage.d) as a pressure relief valve.

21.1.7.2 (591)The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a :a) check valve.b) flow control valve.c) distribution valve.d) shutoff valve.

21.1.7.2 (592)The function of the selector valve is to:a) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.b) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.c) automatically activate the hydraulic system.d) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

21.1.7.2 (593)Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read :a) 1500 psi.b) 2500 psi.c) 1000 psi.d) 500 psi.

21.1.7.2 (594)An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :a) store fluid under pressure.b) increase pressure surges within the system.c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure.d) reduce fluid temperature only.

21.1.7.2 (595)(For this question use annex 021-6736A)The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout :a) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place.b) since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces.c) the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.d) the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.

21.1.7.2 (596)In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :a) allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.b) is a self-lapping non-return valve.c) allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.d) regulates pump delivery pressure.

21.1.7.2 (597)To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporatesa) a high pressure relief valve.b) a stand-by hydraulic pump.c) an accumulator.d) auxiliary hydraulic motors.

21.1.7.2 (598)The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to :a) prevent cavitation in the pumpb) ensure sufficient pump outputc) prevent overheating of the pump.d) prevent vapour locking.

21.1.7.2 (599)The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for :a) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.b) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

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c) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.d) flap extension only.

21.1.7.2 (600)The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:a) by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.b) in flight only.c) by the air conditioning system.d) by an auxiliary system.

21.1.7.2 (601)The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if :a) the pump output pressure is insufficient.b) the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.c) there is a leak in the reservoir return line.d) the pump power accumulator is deflated.

21.1.8.3 (602)If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:a) decreasesb) increasesc) remains constantd) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.

21.1.8.3 (603)The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions:1. control of cabin altitude,2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,3. limitation of differential pressure4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude5. cabin ventilation6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 3b) 2, 6, 4c) 5, 6, 1d) 4, 5, 3

21.1.8.3 (604)During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:a) cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressureb) the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reachedc) the cabin differential pressure is maintained constantd) absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft

21.1.8.3 (605)(For this question use annex 021-786A)In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi.The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is:a) FL 230b) FL 340

c) FL 280d) FL 180

21.1.8.3 (606)The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to :a) Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.b) regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.c) discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.d) regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

21.1.8.3 (607)Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.b) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.c) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.d) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

21.1.8.3 (608)Cabin pressure is controlled by :a) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.b) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.c) the cabin air re-circulation system.d) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).

21.1.8.3 (609)During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:a) Partially open.b) fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.c) At the pre-set position for take-off.d) Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

21.1.8.3 (610)The purpose of a ditching control is to:a) close the outflow valve(s).b) achieve rapid depressurisation.c) open the outflow valve(s).d) direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

21.1.8.3 (611)The cabin pressure is regulated by the:a) Outflow valve.b) Air cycle machine.c) Air conditioning pack.d) Cabin inlet airflow valve.

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21.1.8.3 (612)The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by :a) The cabin outflow valve.b) The cabin inlet airflow.c) The engine's RPM.d) The engine's bleed valves.

21.1.8.3 (613)Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:a) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.b) cockpit and passenger cabin.c) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.d) actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.

21.1.8.3 (614)Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:a) 8000 ftb) 4000 ftc) 6000 ftd) 10000 ft

21.1.8.3 (615)Cabin altitude means the:a) cabin pressure expressed as altitude.b) difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.c) flight level the aircraft is flying at.d) flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.

21.1.8.3 (616)A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:a) 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)b) 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)c) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)d) 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)

21.1.8.3 (617)On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately:a) 7 - 9 psib) 3 - 5 psic) 13 - 15 psid) 22 psi

21.1.8.3 (618)On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:a) Airflow leaving the cabin.b) Airflow entering the cabin.c) RPM of the engine.d) Bleed air valve.

21.1.8.3 (619)If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:a) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.b) Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.c) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.d) Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

21.1.8.3 (620)The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:a) cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.b) approximately 5 psi at maximum.c) approximately 15 psi at maximum.d) the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

21.1.8.3 (621)The cabin rate of descent is:a) a cabin pressure increase.b) always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.c) a cabin pressure decrease.d) is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

21.1.8.3 (622)The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is approximately:a) 9.0 psib) 3.5 psic) 13.5 psid) 15.5 psi

21.1.8.3 (623)An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level.During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min.Given that :DELTA P: Differential pressureZc: Cabin altitudea) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.b) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.c) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.d) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.

21.1.8.3 (624)An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :VZc: Cabin rate of climb indicationZc: Cabin pressure altitudeDELTA P: Differential pressureThis will result in a:a) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P decreaseb) VZc decreaseZc increaseDELTA P decreasec) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P increased) VZc decreaseZc decreaseDELTA P increase

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21.1.8.3 (625)In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by :a) a rate of change selector.b) the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane altitude.c) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and ambient barometric pressure.d) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

21.1.8.3 (626)The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :a) has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.b) is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.c) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.

21.1.8.3 (627)Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :a) regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).b) pressurisation duct relief valve(s).c) engine rpm.d) inward relief valve(s).

21.1.8.3 (628)Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained :a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.b) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.c) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.d) the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

21.1.8.3 (629)Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate :a) a rate of climb.b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.c) zero.d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

21.1.8.3 (630)Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that:a) the pressure differential would go to the maximum valueb) the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressurec) the air supply would automatically be stoppedd) the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

21.1.8.3 (631)A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the :a) position of the outflow valve(s).

b) mass air flow into the cabin.c) position of the inward relief valve.d) position of the duct relief valve(s).

21.1.8.3 (632)If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the :a) negative pressure relief valve will open.b) negative pressure relief valve will closec) outflow valve open completely.d) air cycle machine will stop.

21.1.8.4 (633)The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:a) wings.b) pitot tubes.c) propellers.d) engine intakes.

21.1.8.4 (634)With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:a) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.b) The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to maintain.c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular to the leading edges.

21.1.8.4 (635)A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..a) When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.b) When entering areas with icing conditions.c) When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edgesd) Only at take-off and during approach.

21.1.8.4 (636)Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that :1 - They prevent ice formation.2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :a) 03-Fevb) 04-Fevc) 03-Jand) 04-Jan

21.1.9.1 (637)The pneumatic system accumulator is useful :a) to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.b) to eliminate the fluid flow variations.

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c) to offset for the starting of some devices.d) in emergency cases.

21.1.9.1 (638)In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :a) low pressure bleed air valveb) high pressure bleed air valvec) fan bleed air valved) intermediate pressure check-valve

21.1.9.2 (639)In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:a) in the turbine.b) in a pressure relief valve.c) of Freon in a heat exchanger.d) of Freon in the turbine.

21.1.9.2 (640)Main cabin temperature is:a) controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.b) controlled by individual passenger.c) not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.d) Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

21.1.9.2 (641)Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is placed:a) after the cooling turbine.b) before the heat exchangers.c) before the cooling turbine.d) just after the heat exchangers.

21.1.9.2 (642)The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components: these include two heat exchangers, the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S).The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:a) P: precools the engine bleed airS: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary exchanger or from the pack's compressor.b) P: warms up engine bleed airS: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.c) P: warms up engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack.d) P: pre-cools the engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo compartment (animals).

21.1.9.2 (643)""Conditioned"" air is air that has:a) been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.b) oxygen content regulated to a preset value.c) oxygen content increased.d) oxygen content reduced.

21.1.9.2 (644)The term ""cabin pressure"" applies when an aeroplane:a) has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient pressure.b) is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.c) has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.

21.1.9.2 (645)When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:a) unaffected.b) decreased.c) increased.d) dependent on the degree of pressurisation.

21.1.9.2 (646)The term ""bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.b) source of the charge air.c) means by which pressurisation is controlled.d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

21.1.9.2 (647)In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:a) compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine.b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.d) compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger.

21.1.9.2 (648)In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:a) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.b) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.c) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.d) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

21.1.9.2 (649)Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the:a) compressor section.b) fan section.c) turbine section.d) by-pass ducting.

21.1.9.2 (650)What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?

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a) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.b) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.c) Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.d) Cooling of the APU compartment.

21.1.9.2 (651)The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:a) main engine compressors.b) piston compressors.c) roots type compressors.d) single radial compressors.

21.1.9.2 (652)Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:a) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.b) the second fan stage.c) the low pressure compressor.d) the high pressure compressor.

21.1.9.2 (653)In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:a) humidity.b) purity.c) pressure.d) temperature.

21.1.9.2 (654)In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:a) cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.b) allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation.c) cool bleed air.d) allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.

21.1.9.2 (655)The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):a) drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air.b) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.c) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.d) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.

21.1.9.2 (656)In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by:a) an expansion turbine.b) a compressor.c) a condenser.d) an evaporator.

21.1.9.2 (657)In a ""bootstrap"" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to:a) ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.b) increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.c) ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.d) maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

21.1.9.2 (658)A turbo-fan cold air unit will:a) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.b) not affect the charge air pressure.c) increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.d) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.

21.1.9.2 (659)The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from :a) hot air coming from the engine's compressors.b) hot air coming from the engine's turbines.c) a fuel heater system.d) an electrical heater system.

21.1.9.2 (660)The pack cooling fan provides:a) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation.b) cooling air to the pre-cooler.c) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).d) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.

21.1.9.2 (661)The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit :a) outlet and uses a centrifugal process.b) inlet and uses a centrifugal process.c) outlet and uses an evaporation process.d) inlet and uses an evaporation process.

21.1.9.2 (662)The term ""Bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the :a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.b) source of the charge air.c) means by which pressurisation is controlled.d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

21.1.9.2 (663)In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :a) compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary

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heat exchanger.c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.d) used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.

21.1.9.2 (664)The function of an air cycle machine is to :a) cool the bleed air.b) decrease the pressure of the bleed air.c) remove the water from the bleed air.d) pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

21.1.9.2 (665)""Conditioned"" air is air that has :a) been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.b) had any moisture removed from it.c) had the oxygen content increased.d) had the oxygen content reduced.

21.1.9.3 (666)In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is:a) Thermal (use of hot air).b) Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).c) Electrical (electrical resistances).d) Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).

21.1.9.3 (667)Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:a) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).b) on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very often used for large surfaces de-icing.c) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.d) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports, windshield...

21.1.9.3 (668)The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:1) engine air intake and pod.2) front glass shield.3) radome.4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.5) leading edge of wing.6) cabin windows.7) trailing edge of wings.8) electronic equipment compartment.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 4, 5b) 1, 4, 5, 7c) 1, 2, 5, 6d) 1, 2, 3, 8

21.1.9.3 (669)The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is thea) Hot air system.

b) Pneumatic system with expandable boots.c) Liquid de-icing system.d) Electrical de-icing system.

21.1.9.3 (670)During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protecta) leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.b) the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.c) slats and the leading edge flaps only.d) leading edges only.

21.1.9.3 (671)In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied bya) bleed air from the engines.b) turbo compressors.c) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.d) the APU.

21.1.9.3 (672)The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is :a) Pneumatic boots.b) Electrical heating.c) Thermal anti-icing.d) Fluid de-icing.

21.1.9.3 (673)The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes worksa) electrically.b) pneumatically.c) with hot air.d) with anti-icing fluid.

21.1.9.3 (674)The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :1. Simple and reliable system2. Profiles maintained3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrustThe combination of correct statements is:a) 1,2b) 3,4c) 1,3d) 2,4

21.1.10.1 (675)On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by :a) Electric heating.b) Vinyl coating.c) Anti-icing fluid.d) Rain repellent system.

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21.1.10.1 (676)Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:a) Pitot tubes.b) Elevator leading edges.c) Slat leading edges.d) Fin leading edges.

21.1.10.1 (677)The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:a) Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components.b) Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.c) Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.d) Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.

21.1.10.1 (678)The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that :a) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavyb) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows.c) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protectiond) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection

21.1.11.1 (679)The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:a) Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...).b) Prevent overpressure in the tank.c) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.d) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.

21.1.11.1 (680)On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:a) Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.b) A pressure regulator in the wing tip.c) Bleed air from the engines.d) The return lines of the fuel pumps.

21.1.11.1 (681)The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:a) Integral tanks.b) Cell tanks.c) Combined fuel tanks.d) Fixed built-in tanks.

21.1.11.1 (682)The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to :a) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.b) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

c) close the vent lines in case of turbulence.d) prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.

21.1.11.1 (683)The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:a) vent system.b) tank drains.c) top off unit.d) dump system.

21.1.11.1 (684)The automatic fuelling shut off valve:a) stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.b) cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.c) stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.d) stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

21.1.11.1 (685)Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :a) All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.b) Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.c) Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available.d) Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.

21.1.11.1 (686)The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is toa) increase the fuel level at the boost pump locationb) trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tankc) distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuellingd) ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure

21.1.11.2 (687)On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:a) centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.b) electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.c) mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.d) removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.

21.1.11.2 (688)The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to:a) prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.b) maintain and improve fuel heating power.c) ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.d) prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.

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21.1.11.2 (689)On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type:a) 115 V ACb) 28 V ACc) 28 V DCd) 115 V DC

21.1.11.2 (690)The fuel crossfeed system:a) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.b) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.c) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.d) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

21.1.11.2 (691)On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:a) Centrifugal pumps.b) Gear type pumps.c) Piston pumps.d) Diaphragm pumps.

21.1.11.2 (692)On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :a) Located on the engines.b) Installed in each tank.c) Installed only in the center tank.d) not necessary at all.

21.1.11.2 (693)During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:a) the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.b) fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.c) the surge vent tank is filled.d) there is fire.

21.1.11.2 (694)The cross-feed fuel system is used to :a) feed every engine from any fuel tank.b) allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergencyc) allow the unusable fuel elimination.d) automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

21.1.11.2 (695)The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel ..a) To prime the pumps.b) Because their efficiency is greater.c) To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.d) To cool the pumps.

21.1.11.2 (696)The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...a) Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).b) Through the refueling cap of every tankc) By means of the aircraft suction pumps.d) By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).

21.1.11.2 (697)The vapor lock is :a) A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble.b) The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.c) The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensationd) The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.

21.1.11.2 (698)The fuel system boost pumps are used to :a) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.b) avoid the bubbles accumulation.c) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.d) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.

21.1.11.2 (699)The cross-feed fuel system enables:a) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.b) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.c) the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.d) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.

21.1.11.2 (700)Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:a) centrifugal low pressure type pumps.b) low pressure variable swash plate pumps.c) centrifugal high pressure pumps.d) high pressure variable swash plate pumps.

21.1.11.3 (701)Fuel dump systems are required:a) on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) is significant higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).b) on all transport category aircraft.c) on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.d) on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.

21.1.11.3 (702)The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:a) All up to a defined reserve quantity.b) 15 tons.

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c) All fuel.d) All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached.

21.1.11.4 (703)(For this question use annex 021-980A)The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out :a) after high pressure valve (item 4).b) in the fuel control unit (item 3).c) after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).d) after low pressure valve (item 1).

21.1.11.4 (704)The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:a) dielectric change between fuel and air.b) density variation of the fuel.c) resistivity variation of the fuel.d) electrical resistance change.

21.1.11.4 (705)In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would :a) remain the same.b) increase by 5 %.c) decrease by 5 %.d) increase by 10 %.

21.2.1.1 (706)Fuses are rated to a value by :a) the number of amperes they will carry.b) the number of volts they will pass.c) their wattage.d) their resistance measured in ohms.

21.2.1.1 (707)The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is:a) (1)not resettable, (2)resettable.b) (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breakerc) (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breakerd) (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable.

21.2.1.1 (708)An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth, may be defined as aa) single pole circuit.b) complete negative system.c) double pole circuit.d) semi-negative system.

21.2.1.1 (709)When an ""open circuit"" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :a) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.b) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.c) component will operate normally, but will not switch off.d) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.

21.2.1.1 (710)If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field :a) a force will be exerted on the conductor.b) the current will increase.c) there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.d) the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.

21.2.1.1 (711)A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :a) allow a short term overload before rupturing.b) limit the current in the field circuit.c) instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.d) limit the current in the armature.

21.2.1.1 (712)The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is :a) Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.b) The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.c) power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.d) current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force.

21.2.1.1 (713)A condenser in parallel with breaker points willa) intensify current in secondary windingb) permit arcing across pointsc) assist in negative feedback to secondary coild) assist in collapse of secondary winding.

21.2.1.1 (714)The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics,a) 12 volt / 80 amp hoursb) 12 volt / 40 amp hoursc) 24 volt / 80 amp hoursd) 24 volt / 40 amp hours

21.2.1.1 (715)The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:a) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2b) Req = R1 + R2c) Req = R1 x R2d) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)

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21.2.1.2 (716)If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:a) is unserviceable.b) has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.c) has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.d) has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.

21.2.1.2 (717)In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because...a) they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.b) their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries.c) their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.d) they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.

21.2.1.2 (718)On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are:1. low risk of thermal runaway2. high internal resistance, hence higher power3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating4. wider permissible temperature range5. good storage capability6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The combination of correct statement is:a) 3, 4, 5, 6b) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6d) 3, 4, 6, 7

21.2.1.2 (719)The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :a) 2,2 volts.b) 1,4 volts.c) 1,8 volts.d) 1,2 volts.

21.2.1.2 (720)Batteries are rated in :a) Amperes.hours.b) Amperes/volts.c) Watts.d) Ohms.

21.2.1.2 (721)When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter :a) a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.b) no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.c) the battery should be isolated.d) the load condition is unimportant.

21.2.1.2 (722)Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of :

a) 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.b) 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.c) 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.d) 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.

21.2.1.2 (723)The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :a) ampere-hours.b) volts.c) watts.d) internal resistance.

21.2.1.2 (724)A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve :a) comparing the ""on-load"" and ""off-load"" battery voltages.b) checking the level of the electrolyte.c) checking the discharge current of the battery ""on-load"".d) checking the battery voltage ""off-load"".

21.2.1.2 (725)When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the :a) voltage to decrease under load.b) voltage to increase due to the current available.c) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.d) electrolyte to ""boil"".

21.2.1.2 (726)Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery :a) would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.b) indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.c) indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.d) indicates a faulty reverse current relay.

21.2.1.3 (727)A relay is :a) An electromagnetically operated switch.b) An electrical security switch.c) A switch specially designed for AC circuits.d) An electrical energy conversion unit.

21.2.1.3 (728)A relay is :a) a magnetically operated switch.b) another name for a solenoid valve.c) a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.d) a device which is used to increase electrical power.

21.2.1.3 (729)When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :

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a) an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.b) there will be no effect on the conductor.c) the field will collapse.d) current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.

21.2.1.3 (730)A circuit breaker :a) may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.b) is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.c) can only be reset after major maintenance.d) can be reset on the ground only.

21.2.1.3 (731)Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :a) used in AC and DC circuits.b) used only in AC circuits.c) used only in DC circuits.d) reset at any time.

21.2.1.3 (732)A ""trip-free"" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which :a) will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.b) is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.c) can be reset at any time.d) will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.

21.2.1.4 (733)In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:a) 4b) 24c) 12d) 8

21.2.1.4 (734)In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft.2- may be disconnected from the generator.3- is a hydro-mechanical system.4- is an electronic system.5- may not be disconnected in flight.6- may be disconnected in flight.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3, 6b) 1, 2, 5c) 2, 3, 4d) 1, 4, 5

21.2.1.4 (735)In an alternator rotor coil you can find :a) AC.b) Three-phase AC.c) Only induced current.d) DC.

21.2.1.4 (736)Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will :a) increase the intensity of the excitation current.b) change the direction of the excitation current.c) maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.d) decrease the intensity of the excitation current.

21.2.1.4 (737)The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:a) induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.b) induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.c) alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.d) The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.

21.2.1.4 (738)A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:a) voltage coil and the series winding turn.b) voltage coil and the series winding.c) generator and the series winding turn.d) shunt exciter and the series winding turn.

21.2.1.4 (739)The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in:1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar2. opening of generator field current relay3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators5. lighting of an indicator lampThe combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b) 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 4, 5d) 1, 3, 5

21.2.1.4 (740)A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :a) air via a ram air intake.b) water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system.c) a fan located before the generator.d) air tapped from the low pressure compressor.

21.2.1.4 (741)The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :a) series with the shunt field coil.b) series with the armature.c) parallel with the shunt field coil.d) parallel with the armature.

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21.2.1.4 (742)The output of a generator is controlled by :a) varying the field strength.b) varying the speed of the engine.c) varying the length of wire in the armature windings.d) the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

21.2.1.4 (743)In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that :a) their voltages are almost equal.b) the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.c) equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.d) adequate voltage differences exists.

21.2.1.4 (744)On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. over-speed5. under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,2,4,5b) 1,2,4,6c) 1,3,5,6d) 2,3,4,5,6

21.2.1.4 (745)The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...a) its rotation speedb) the strength of the excitation currentc) its loadd) its phase balance

21.2.1.4 (746)The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the :a) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is trueb) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is truec) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is trued) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

21.2.1.5 (747)The so-called ""hot buses"" or ""direct buses"" are:a) directly connected to the battery.b) kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.c) automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.d) providing an alternative current.

21.2.1.5 (748)The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are :a) series wound.b) shunt wound.

c) series shunt wound.d) compound wound.

21.2.1.5 (749)A bus-bar is :a) a distribution point for electrical power.b) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.c) the stator of a moving coil instrument.d) a device which may only be used in DC circuits.

21.2.1.5 (750)When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by :a) an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation current of the generators.b) an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.c) carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.d) the synchronous bus-bar.

21.2.1.5 (751)In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that :a) generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.b) only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.c) generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.d) one generator comes ""on-line"" before the other.

21.2.1.5 (752)The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery:1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory2 - when there is a battery overheat condition3 - in case of an internal short circuit4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unitThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 2001-02-03b) 02-Janc) 1 - 2 - 3 -4d) 1

21.2.1.6 (753)A static inverter is a:a) transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.b) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.c) static discharger.d) filter against radio interference.

21.2.1.6 (754)The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..a) To change DC into AC.b) To change the DC voltage.c) To change AC into DC.d) To avoid a short circuit.

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21.2.1.6 (755)In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from :a) an inverter.b) a rectifier.c) a contactor.d) a TRU.

21.2.1.6 (756)A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is :a) an inverter.b) an AC generator.c) a transformer rectifier unit.d) a thermistor.

21.2.1.7 (757)Static dischargers :1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified cloudsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2,4,5.b) 1,2,5.c) 1,3,4.d) 3,4,5.

21.2.1.7 (758)The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:1. Weight saving2. Easy fault detection3. Increase of short-circuit risk4. Reduction of short-circuit risk5. Circuits are not single-wired linesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 4b) 1, 2, 3c) 2, 3, 5d) 1, 3, 5

21.2.1.7 (759)Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems4. set the aircraft to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3, 4b) 1, 2, 3c) 3, 4d) 2, 4

21.2.1.7 (760)The purpose of static wick dischargers is to :a) dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as

a result of static electricity.b) dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.c) provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.d) be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.

21.2.1.7 (761)It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if :a) static noises can be heard on the radio.b) a circuit breaker pops out.c) there is interference on the VOR receiver.d) there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

21.2.1.7 (762)The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :a) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.b) provide a single earth for electrical devices.c) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.d) isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.

21.2.2.1 (763)The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :a) 400 Hz.b) 200 Hz.c) 50 Hz.d) 60 Hz.

21.2.2.1 (764)The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:1. simple connection2. high starting torque3. flexibility in use4. lighter weight of equipment5. easy to convert into direct current6. easy maintenance of machinesThe combination of correct statements is:a) 3, 4, 5, 6b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6d) 1, 4, 6

21.2.2.1 (765)If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current flowing in the circuit will :a) increase.b) be zero.c) decrease.d) remain the same.

21.2.2.2 (766)When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:a) energizing current.b) frequency.c) voltage.d) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

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21.2.2.2 (767)The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:a) maintain a constant frequency.b) take part in the balancing of reactive loads.c) mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.d) take part in the voltage regulation.

21.2.2.2 (768)The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which:a) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.b) is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.c) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.d) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter.

21.2.2.2 (769)In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:a) pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.b) pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.c) pilot has to throttle back.d) pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.

21.2.2.2 (770)As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that:1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts upThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2, 3b) 3, 4c) 2, 4d) 1, 3

21.2.2.2 (771)On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by:a) a set of permanent magnets.b) the main field winding.c) the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.d) the auxiliary winding.

21.2.2.2 (772)A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are :a) low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.b) excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.c) illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.d) slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

21.2.2.2 (773)A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :a) may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.b) may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.c) automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.d) automatically resets at engine shut-down.

21.2.2.2 (774)The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the :a) rotor.b) stator.c) oscillator.d) slip ring.

21.2.2.2 (775)The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the :a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.b) number of individual poles and the field strength.c) field strength and the speed of the rotor.d) number of individual poles only.

21.2.2.2 (776)The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :a) drive the generator at a constant speed.b) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.c) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.d) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

21.2.2.2 (777)If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relationship of each generator:a) is unimportant.b) must be synchronised.c) must be 120° out of phase.d) must be 240° out of phase.

21.2.2.2 (778)The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the :a) generator at varying loads and speeds.b) batteries at varying loads.c) generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.d) output of the TRU.

21.2.2.2 (779)A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at :a) 120°.b) 60°.c) 45°.d) 90°.

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21.2.2.2 (780)On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the:a) oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.b) oil temperature and synchronous speed.c) output speed and oil pressure.d) low oil temperature and low oil quantity.

21.2.2.2 (781)An AC generator driven by a CSD unit :a) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.b) does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.c) does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.d) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.

21.2.2.2 (782)Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected :a) during engine operation only.b) at flight idle engine rpm.c) in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator.d) on the ground only.

21.2.2.2 (783)The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are :a) kVA and kVAR.b) volts and amperes.c) volts and kilowatts.d) amperes and kilowatts.

21.2.2.2 (784)""Frequency wild"" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator :a) output frequency varies with engine speed.b) output frequency is too high.c) voltage regulator is out of adjustment.d) output frequency is too low.

21.2.2.2 (785)The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:a) drive the generator at a constant speed.b) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.c) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.d) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.

21.2.2.2 (786)The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the :a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.b) number of individual poles and the field strength.c) field strength and the speed of the moving part.d) number of individual poles only.

21.2.2.2 (787)A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuringa) that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.b) that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.c) that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPMd) equal AC voltage from all generators.

21.2.2.3 (788)A thermal circuit breaker:a) protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the maximum permissible current.b) is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second.c) forbids any overcurrent.d) can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.

21.2.2.3 (789)In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows :a) power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.b) connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.c) connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.d) connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.

21.2.2.3 (790)Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the:a) exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.b) exciter control relay opens.c) generator breaker opens.d) exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.

21.2.2.3 (791)As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for paralleling AC generators:1. Equal voltage2. Equal current3. Equal frequencies4. Same phase rotation5. Voltages of same phaseThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3, 4, 5b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 3, 5d) 1, 4, 5

21.2.2.3 (792)A magnetic circuit-breaker is:a) a protection system that has a quick tripping response.b) permits an overcurrent limited in time.c) can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.d) is a system with a slow response time.

21.2.2.3 (793)On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the

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aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens:a) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.b) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.c) The generator breaker and tie breaker.d) The generator breaker.

21.2.2.3 (794)When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:a) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.b) the tie breaker.c) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.d) the generator breaker.

21.2.2.3 (795)When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the protection device opens the :a) exciter breaker and generator breaker.b) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.c) tie breaker.d) generator breaker and tie breaker.

21.2.2.3 (796)When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the:a) generator breaker.b) exciter breaker.c) exciter breaker and generator breaker.d) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.

21.2.2.3 (797)The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in:a) parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current consumption.b) series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption.c) parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage.d) series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage.

21.2.2.3 (798)To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel :a) both real an reactive loads must be matched.b) the matching of loads is unimportant.c) only reactive loads need to be matched.d) only real loads need to be matched.

21.2.2.3 (799)When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each generator:a) is unimportant.b) must be synchronous.

c) must be in opposition.d) must be 90° out of synchronisation.

21.2.2.3 (800)When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same:a) voltage and frequency.b) amperage and kVAR.c) voltage and amperage.d) frequency and amperage.

21.2.2.3 (801)Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :a) automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.b) controlling the generator field current.c) carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.

21.2.2.3 (802)Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :a) adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.b) carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.c) controlling the generator field current.d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.

21.2.2.3 (803)Load shedding means ..a) Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric generatorsb) To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limitsc) Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief valued) A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces

21.2.2.5 (804)The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:a) 12000 revolutions per minute.b) 6000 revolutions per minute.c) 800 revolutions per minute.d) 1600 revolutions per minute.

21.2.2.6 (805)In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a :a) Transformer Rectifier Unit.b) static inverter.c) 3 phase current transformer unit.d) rotary converter.

21.2.2.6 (806)On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in flight from :

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a) a Transformer Rectifier Unit.b) a static inverter.c) a DC transformer and rectifier.d) the AC bus via current limiters.

21.2.4.0 (807)In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:a) screen unitb) keyboardc) hard disk drived) diskette drive

21.2.4.0 (808)In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:a) keyboardb) screen unitc) hard disk drived) diskette drive

21.2.4.0 (809)In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:a) hard disk driveb) printerc) key boardd) screen unit

21.2.4.0 (810)In computer technology, an EPROM is:1. a read-only memory2. a write memory3. erases its content when power supply is cut off4. keeps its content when power supply is cut offThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,4b) 1,3c) 2,3d) 2,4

21.2.4.2 (811)(For this question use annex 021- 6660A)The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) :a) an INVERT or NOT gate.b) a NAND gate.c) a NOR gate.d) an EXCLUSIVE gate.

21.2.4.2 (812)Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the :a) ""all or nothing"" gate.b) ""any or all"" gate.c) ""state indicator"" gate.d) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate.

21.2.4.2 (813)The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to :a) invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.b) ensure the input signal is AC only.c) ensure the input signal is DC only.d) ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.

21.2.4.3 (814)Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the :a) ""any or all"" gate.b) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate.c) ""state indicator"" gate.d) ""all or nothing"" gate.

21.2.5.1 (815)The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:a) 2.46 mb) 24.60 cmc) 2.46 cmd) 24.60 m

21.2.5.1 (816)For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band because:a) It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power.b) Its penetration power is higher.c) It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.d) It allows greater scanning rates.

21.2.5.1 (817)The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:a) 1000 metres.b) 100 metres.c) 10 metres.d) 1 metre.

21.2.5.1 (818)The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder is a:a) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.b) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.c) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.d) cathode-ray tube.

21.2.5.1 (819)The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths:a) decimetric.b) centimetric.

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c) hectometric.d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (820)The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths:a) centimetric.b) metric.c) hectometric.d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (821)The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:a) metric.b) hectometric.c) decimetric.d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (822)The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:a) metric.b) hectometric.c) decimetric.d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (823)The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:a) decimetric.b) hectometric.c) metric.d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (824)The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths:a) metric.b) centimetric.c) hectometric.d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (825)The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:a) metric.b) hectometric.c) decimetric.d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (826)The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths:a) centimetric.b) metric.

c) hectometric.d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (827)The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:a) decimetric.b) metric.c) hectometric.d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (828)The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:a) centimetric.b) myriametric.c) decimetric.d) metric.

21.2.5.1 (829)The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:a) hectometric or kilometric.b) metric.c) decimetric.d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (830)In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:a) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.b) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.c) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.d) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.

21.2.5.3 (831)In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:a) HFb) VHFc) UHFd) VLF

21.2.5.3 (832)Skip distance is the:a) range from the transmitter to the first sky waveb) highest critical frequency distancec) wavelength distance of a certain frequencyd) thickness of the ionosphere

21.2.5.3 (833)A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called :a) attenuation

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b) refractionc) propagationd) ducting

21.2.5.3 (834)The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs :a) Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layerb) Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layerc) Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layerd) Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

21.2.5.3 (835)In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found :a) at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.b) by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.c) at night and when raining.d) by day and when raining.

21.3.1.1 (836)The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are :a) intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.b) both valves open.c) both valves closed.d) exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.

21.3.1.1 (837)The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change linesa) 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.b) 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.c) 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.d) 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.

21.3.1.1 (838)The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is :a) piston area * piston stroke * number of cylindersb) piston area * piston strokec) cylinder volume * number of cylindersd) cylinder length * cylinder diameter

21.3.1.1 (839)In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a :a) lighter construction.b) lower fuel consumption.c) better piston cooling.d) cheaper construction

21.3.1.1 (840)The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :

a) induction, compression, power, exhaust.b) induction, power, compression, exhaust.c) compression induction, power, exhaust.d) induction, compression, expansion, power.

21.3.1.1 (841)The crank assembly consists ofa) crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.b) propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.c) Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.d) crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

21.3.1.1 (842)The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Center)a) before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.b) before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.c) behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.d) behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

21.3.1.1 (843)The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :a) Torque times RPM.b) Work times velocity.c) Force times distance.d) Pressure times arm.

21.3.1.1 (844)The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is :a) Brake horse power.b) Friction horse power.c) Heat loss power.d) Indicated horse power.

21.3.1.1 (845)The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:a) gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.b) propeller blades.c) accessory gear box.d) camshaft.

21.3.1.1 (846)On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:a) overall efficiencyb) compression ratioc) piston displacementd) engine r.p.m.

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21.3.1.1 (847)In a four-stroke piston engine, the only ""driving"" stroke is :a) firing-expansionb) intakec) compressiond) exhaust

21.3.1.1 (848)A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the :a) total volume to the clearance volume.b) clearance volume to the swept volume.c) total volume to the swept volume.d) swept volume to the clearance volume.

21.3.1.1 (849)The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:a) volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead centre.b) diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.c) area of the piston to the cylinder volume.d) weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.

21.3.1.1 (850)The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed the :a) crankshaftb) pistonc) camshaftd) reduction gear

21.3.1.2 (851)The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:a) pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.b) difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.c) pressure in the oil tank reservoir.d) pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

21.3.1.2 (852)For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:a) oil temperature.b) outside pressure.c) oil pressure.d) quantity of oil.

21.3.1.2 (853)For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:a) the circulation of lubricating oilb) a rich fuel/air mixturec) a properly functioning thermostatd) a lean fuel/air mixture

21.3.1.2 (854)In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because :a) it washes the lubricant of cylinder wallsb) it fouls the spark plugsc) it drains the carburettor float chamberd) the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

21.3.1.2 (855)The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted :a) in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pumpb) between the oil tank and the pressure pumpc) after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engined) after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump

21.3.1.2 (856)Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of aa) worn oil pumpb) too large oil pumpc) restricted oil passaged) too small scavenger pump.

21.3.1.4 (857)The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:a) secondary current to the sparking plugs.b) primary current to the condenser.c) secondary current to the condenser.d) primary current to the sparking plugs.

21.3.1.4 (858)The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the:a) contact breaker points opening.b) distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.c) contact breaker points closing.d) rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.

21.3.1.4 (859)If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:a) the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the ""OFF"" positionb) a still operating engine will run downc) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ""ON"" positiond) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced

21.3.1.4 (860)The purpose of an ignition switch is to :a) control the primary circuit of the magnetob) connect the secondary coil to the distributor

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c) connect the battery to the magnetod) connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil

21.3.1.4 (861)Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current :a) from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.b) from the booster coil.c) directly from the aircraft batteries.d) from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

21.3.1.4 (862)Ignition systems of piston engines are :a) independant from the electrical system of the aircraft.b) dependant on the battery.c) dependant on the DC-Generator.d) dependant on the AC-Generator.

21.3.1.4 (863)Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:a) sparking plugs.b) carburettor.c) oil pump.d) fuel filter.

21.3.1.4 (864)An aircraft magneto is switched off bya) grounding the primary circuitb) opening the primary circuitc) opening the secondary circuitd) grounding the secondary circuit.

21.3.1.4 (865)An impulse magneto couplinga) gives a retarded spark at startingb) reduces magneto speed during engine warm-upc) advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at startingd) gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

21.3.1.4 (866)If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be :a) excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.b) switch wire groundedc) defective condenserd) fouled spark plugs

21.3.1.4 (867)If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the enginea) cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

b) will not operate at the left magnetoc) will not operate at the right magnetod) cannot be started with the switch in the ON position

21.3.1.4 (868)An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is fora) providing a retarded spark for engine starting.b) advancing ignition timingc) quick removal and installationd) absorbing starting loads

21.3.1.4 (869)In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in :a) breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs.b) obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.c) accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.d) creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.

21.3.1.4 (870)When the magneto selector switch is set to ""OFF"" position, the piston engine continues to run normally.The most probable cause of this failure is that:a) On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.b) There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.c) A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.d) There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).

21.3.1.5 (871)On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the adjustment of :a) fuel flow.b) air flow.c) fuel flow and air flow.d) fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

21.3.1.5 (872)A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned :a) upstream of the needle valve.b) between the needle valve and the metering jet.c) between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.d) downstream of th discharge nozzle.

21.3.1.5 (873)The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:a) create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor jets.b) prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.

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c) ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system.d) create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.

21.3.1.5 (874)In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?a) venturi and the throttle valveb) float chamber and fuel inlet filterc) accelerator pump and main metering jetd) main air bleed and main discharge nozzle

21.3.1.5 (875)The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:a) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inletb) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitudec) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressured) measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system

21.3.1.5 (876)In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of:a) vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettorb) freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettorc) compression of air at the carburettor venturid) low volatility of aviation fuel

21.3.1.5 (877)Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat?a) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixtureb) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus leaning the fuel/air mixturec) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixtured) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture

21.3.1.5 (878)Vapour lock is :a) vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettorb) the formation of water vapour in a fuel systemc) vaporizing of fuel in the carburettord) the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor

21.3.1.5 (879)With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor :a) may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.b) will only form at OAT's below +10°C.c) will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.d) will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.

21.3.1.5 (880)To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air

flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with :a) a diffuserb) a power jetc) an accelerator pumpd) a mixture control

21.3.1.5 (881)Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:a) faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advancedb) slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advancedc) faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occursd) faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.

21.3.1.5 (882)""Vapor lock"" is the phenomenon by which:a) heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.b) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime.c) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.d) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the exhaust.

21.3.1.6 (883)The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting, because of the decreasing :a) air density.b) engine temperature.c) humidity.d) temperature.

21.3.1.6 (884)The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are :a) cold and dry air at high pressure.b) warm and humid air at low pressure.c) cold and humid air at high pressure.d) warm and dry air at high pressure.

21.3.1.6 (885)The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :a) lower back pressure.b) lower losses during the gas change.c) lower friction losses.d) leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

21.3.1.6 (886)During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine :a) increases.

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b) decreases.c) only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward.d) stays constant.

21.3.1.6 (887)The global output of a piston engine is of:(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total thermal energy produced).a) 0.30b) 0.50c) 0.75d) 0.90

21.3.1.7 (888)A turbocharger system is normally driven by:a) the exhaust system.b) an electric motor.c) an hydraulic motor.d) an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.

21.3.1.7 (889)A turbocharger consists of a :a) compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.b) compressor and turbine on individual shafts.c) compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.d) turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.

21.3.1.7 (890)The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor :a) enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery.b) enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.c) enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.d) enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.

21.3.1.7 (891)In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by :a) a manifold pressure gauge only.b) a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings.c) both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.d) both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.

21.3.1.7 (892)The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :a) maintain power at altitudeb) increase quantity of fuel at metering jetc) provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ftd) provide a richer mixture at high altitudes

21.3.1.7 (893)The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is :a) a radial compressor.b) an axial compressor.c) a hybrid compressor.d) a piston compressor.

21.3.1.7 (894)What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized ?a) The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.b) The power of the motor will decrease.c) The turbine shaft will break.d) The turbine blades will separate.

21.3.1.7 (895)One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :a) it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.b) it has a better propulsive efficiency.c) there is no torsion at the crankshaft.d) there is no danger of knocking.

21.3.1.8 (896)The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :a) the anti-knock capabilityb) fuel volatilityc) quantity of heat generated by its combustiond) fuel electrical conductivity

21.3.1.8 (897)Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to :a) keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in useb) drain tanks at end of each day's flightc) use only high octane gasolined) keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight

21.3.1.8 (898)The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of the following relations?a) the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio isb) the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio isc) the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is.d) compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.

21.3.1.8 (899)A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:a) provided that the grade is higherb) provided that the grade is lowerc) neverd) provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

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21.3.1.9 (900)A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in aa) lower cylinder head temperature.b) higher efficiency.c) slight loss of power.d) higher torque.

21.3.1.9 (901)Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with :a) Mass ratio of 1/15.b) Cruising mixture setting.c) Full rich setting.d) Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.

21.3.1.9 (902)For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the :a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.d) mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

21.3.1.9 (903)Specific fuel consumption is defined as the :a) mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.b) designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.c) quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.d) maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.

21.3.1.9 (904)In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to :a) correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.b) prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.c) weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.d) enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.

21.3.1.9 (905)The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:a) varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.b) moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.c) altering the depression on the main discharge tube.d) varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.

21.3.1.9 (906)An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :a) black smoke from exhaust.b) high cylinder head temperaturesc) white smoke from exhaust.d) a long purple flame from exhaust.

21.3.1.9 (907)When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause :a) high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperatureb) high engine rpmc) low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperatured) high manifold pressure

21.3.1.9 (908)The main purpose of the mixture control is to:a) adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratiob) decrease the air supplied to the enginec) increase the oxygen supplied to the engined) decrease oxygen supplied to the engine

21.3.1.9 (909)Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.d) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor

21.3.1.9 (910)Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively :a) weak mixture.b) rich mixture.c) low barometric pressure.d) high barometric pressure.

21.3.1.9 (911)In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be :a) richb) weakc) too weak to support combustiond) normal

21.3.1.9 (912)For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight ratio of:a) 1/15 thb) 1/9 thc) 1/10thd) 1/12th

21.3.1.9 (913)(For this question use appendix )On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:a) 1b) 2

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c) 3d) 4

21.3.1.9 (914)The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :a) real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.b) mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.c) volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.d) volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.

21.3.1.10 (915)The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:a) is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil, when the engine is inoperative.b) is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a constant speed.c) controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.d) is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems.

21.3.1.10 (916)Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.During deceleration :a) when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.b) at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.c) when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.d) with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.

21.3.1.10 (917)The pitch angle of a constant-speed propellera) increases with increasing true air speed.b) only varies with engine RPM.c) decreases with increasing true air speed.d) is independent of the true air speed.

21.3.1.10 (918)A propeller blade is twisted, so as toa) keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.b) avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.c) decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.d) allow a higher mechanical stress.

21.3.1.10 (919)A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during :a) Take-off and landing.b) Cruise.c) Take-off.d) Landing.

21.3.1.10 (920)When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of

a fixed pitch propeller :a) reduces.b) increases.c) stays constant.d) stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.

21.3.1.10 (921)When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved) :a) increases.b) reduces.c) first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.d) stays constant.

21.3.1.10 (922)The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a :a) higher efficiency in all operating ranges.b) constant efficiency in all operating ranges.c) lower propeller blade stress.d) higher efficiency in cruising range.

21.3.1.10 (923)To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :a) use the electric unfeathering pump.b) manually release the blade latch.c) gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.d) gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.

21.3.1.10 (924)In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering systema) move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.b) move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.c) move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.d) move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force.

21.3.1.10 (925)For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is :a) (1) low (2) forward.b) (1) low (2) aft.c) (1) high (2) aft.d) (1) high (2) forward.

21.3.1.10 (926)On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller :a) manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.b) the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.c) in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening

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the throttle.d) in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant.

21.3.1.10 (927)An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists ..a) If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.b) If there is an unbalanced propeller.c) Only for counterrotating propellerd) Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.

21.3.1.10 (928)In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellersa) the left engine is the critical motor.b) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.c) the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine.d) the right engine is the critical motor.

21.3.1.10 (929)In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller'a) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.b) the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.c) the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.d) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

21.3.1.10 (930)In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by :a) pulling the RPM lever backwards.b) pushing the RPM lever forward.c) pushing the power lever forward.d) pulling the power levers backwards.

21.3.1.10 (931)Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at :a) cruising speedb) idlingc) full throttled) take-off

21.3.1.10 (932)Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :a) blade is relatively high.b) blade is relatively small.c) airfoil section is negative.d) blades reduces to zero.

21.3.1.10 (933)The 'constant speed propeller' hasa) only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the same design speed.

b) in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.c) only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller.d) its best efficiency during climb.

21.3.1.10 (934)What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a ""constant speed propeller"" if the manifold pressure is increased ?a) It will increaseb) It will increase and after a short time it will be the same againc) It will decrease so that the engine can increased) It will remain the same

21.3.1.10 (935)The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:a) low airspeeds with high power setting.b) high airspeeds with low power setting.c) high airspeeds with high power setting.d) low airspeeds with low power setting.

21.3.1.10 (936)The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the :a) reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.b) propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.c) propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.d) propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

21.3.1.10 (937)When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be...a) feathered.b) windmilling.c) transparent.d) at zero drag.

21.3.1.10 (938)During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...a) high manifold pressure and low RPM.b) low manifold pressure and high RPM.c) high manifold pressure and high RPM.d) low manifold pressure and low RPM.

21.3.1.10 (939)From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:a) increaseb) decreasec) remain the samed) increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

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21.3.1.11 (940)When applying carburettor heating :a) the mixture becomes richer.b) a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.c) the mixture becomes leaner.d) no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

21.3.1.11 (941)When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the :a) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.b) volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.c) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.d) volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.

21.3.1.11 (942)When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of a :a) decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel.b) constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel.c) increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.d) decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.

21.3.1.11 (943)When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by :a) increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.b) adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.c) reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.d) increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.

21.3.1.11 (944)To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to:a) decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.b) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air density.c) increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.d) increase the mixture ratio.

21.3.1.11 (945)The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for continuous operation is termed :a) rated power.b) maximum power.c) take-off power.d) critical power.

21.3.1.11 (946)With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted

with a fixed pitch propeller?a) RPM indicator.b) RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.c) RPM and MAP indicator.d) RPM and EGT indicator.

21.3.1.11 (947)An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to :a) assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.b) control the cylinder head temperature.c) control the carburator inlet air flow.d) control the fuel temperature.

21.3.1.11 (948)During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the :a) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.b) RPM decreases.c) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.d) RPM increases.

21.3.1.11 (949)The conditions which can cause knocking are :a) High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.b) High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.c) Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.d) Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

21.3.1.11 (950)Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine ?a) using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratiob) the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane ratingc) using an engine with a low compression ratiod) slightly retarding the ignition timing

21.3.1.11 (951)On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates...a) a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.b) a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.c) zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.d) a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.

21.3.1.11 (952)Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :a) the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.b) the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.c) power is increased too abruptly.d) the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.

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21.3.1.12 (953)Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when :a) the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the plugb) the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.c) a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.d) the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.

21.3.1.12 (954)With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you:a) Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixtureb) Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixturec) Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixtured) Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture

21.3.2.1 (955)In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...a) drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gasesb) clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrustc) compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamberd) drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.

21.3.2.2 (956)(Use the appendix to answer this question)The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:a) free turbine and centrifugal compressorb) free turbine and axial compressorc) single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressord) single shaft turbine and axial compressor

21.3.3.1 (957)The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:a) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.b) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.c) feed cooling air to the engine cowling.d) serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.

21.3.3.2 (958)In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:a) rotor - statorb) stator - rotorc) rotor - rotor - statord) stator - stator - rotor

21.3.3.2 (959)In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :a) the same as turbine rpm.b) independent of turbine rpm.c) greater than turbine rpm.d) less than turbine rpm.

21.3.3.2 (960)In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to:a) maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.b) maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.c) reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.d) reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

21.3.3.2 (961)The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the :a) Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).b) inlet guide vanes.c) surge bleed valves.d) variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

21.3.3.2 (962)Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a device in which the:a) pressure rises and velocity falls.b) pressure rises at a constant velocity.c) velocity, pressure and temperature rise.d) velocity rises and pressure falls.

21.3.3.2 (963)The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:a) the greater part of the thrust.b) half the thrust.c) the lesser part of the thrust.d) none of the thrust.

21.3.3.2 (964)In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to :a) the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.b) oil pressure.c) thermal expansion.d) blade creep.

21.3.3.2 (965)The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to :a) reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.b) control the acceleration time of the engine.c) spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.d) enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.

21.3.3.2 (966)The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are :1 - expensive to manufacture2 - limited airflow3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage4 - limited compression ratioThe combination of correct answers is :

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a) 03-Janb) 02-Janc) 03-Fevd) 04-Fev

21.3.3.2 (967)A stage in an axial compressor:a) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator bladesb) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1c) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor discd) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8

21.3.3.4 (968)In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:a) within the combustion chamber.b) across the turbine.c) in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.d) at the entry to the exhaust unit.

21.3.3.5 (969)When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :a) pressure drops.b) pressure rises.c) velocity decreases.d) temperature increases.

21.3.3.5 (970)In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:a) V increases, Ps decreases.b) V decreases, Ps increases.c) V increases, Ps increases.d) V decreases, Ps decreases.

21.3.3.5 (971)An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:a) fully in the stator.b) fully in the rotor.c) in the stator and in the rotor.d) in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.

21.3.3.5 (972)A ""fan"" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:a) the low pressure turbine.b) the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.c) the high pressure turbine.d) airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.

21.3.3.5 (973)In a free turbine engine:a) there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power

output shaft.b) its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.c) the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.d) the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

21.3.3.5 (974)The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow is to :a) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.b) prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.c) prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.d) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded.

21.3.3.5 (975)Turbine blade stages may be classed as either ""impulse"" or ""reaction"". In an impulse blade section :a) the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades .b) the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades .c) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor blades .d) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the rotor blades .

21.3.3.7 (976)For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:a) external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow massb) internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow massc) internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow massd) fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

21.3.3.8 (977)A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when:a) the reverser doors are unlocked.b) the reverser doors are locked.c) reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.d) the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.

21.3.3.10 (978)At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature:a) will rise.b) will be unchanged.c) may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.d) will fall.

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21.3.3.10 (979)If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that :a) EPR decreases and EGT increases.b) both EPR and EGT decrease.c) EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.d) EPR remains constant and EGT increases.

21.3.3.10 (980)Using compressor bleed air to power systems:a) decreases aircraft performanceb) has no influence on aircraft performancec) increases aircraft performanced) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing

21.3.3.11 (981)The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the :1. tacho-generator N12. tacho-generator N23. thrust reverser pneumatic motors4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)5. oil pumps6. hydraulic pumps7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.c) 2, 4, 5, 6.d) 4, 5, 6, 7.

21.3.4.1 (982)The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:1 - throughout the operating range of the engine2 - for accelerations3 - for ground starts4 - for in-flight relights5 - during turbulence in flight6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditionsThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 3 - 4 - 5 - 6b) 3c) 2002-03-04d) 1

21.3.4.2 (983)For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the engine :a) will run without any external assistance.b) is designed to idle after starting.c) operates most efficiently in the cruise..d) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.

21.3.4.2 (984)An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds bya) centrifugal forceb) engine oil pressurec) a coil springd) electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

21.3.4.3 (985)A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by:a) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter.b) compressor surging.c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.d) failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter.

21.3.4.4 (986)The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following range:a) 20 to 50 psib) 5 to 10 psic) 3000 to 5000 psid) 300 to 500 psi

21.3.4.4 (987)The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:a) maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases.b) reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.c) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.d) maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.

21.3.4.4 (988)(For this question use annex 021-4008A)Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in annex.In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).Rebalancing of the two tanks is:a) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 1 pumps ""OFF"" and tank 2 pumps ""ON"".b) impossible without causing the APU stop.c) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 2 pumps ""OFF"".d) impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.

21.3.4.4 (989)In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of:a) fuel supplied.b) air entering the compressor.c) air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves.d) air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.

21.3.4.5 (990)In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:a) jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.b) fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles.c) fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.d) automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter.

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21.3.4.5 (991)The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:a) cool the oil and heat the fuel.b) cool the oil only.c) cool both the oil and the fuel.d) heat the fuel only.

21.3.4.5 (992)In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal oil pressure.This higher pressure :a) is normal, if it decreases after startup.b) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.c) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.d) requires an oil change.

21.3.4.6 (993)The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the:a) flash pointb) combustion pointc) fire pointd) self ignition point

21.3.4.7 (994)An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:a) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.b) jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.c) combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.d) compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

21.3.4.7 (995)The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving4 - is independant of the outside air temperatureThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 03-Janb) 02-Janc) 03-Fevd) 4

21.3.4.8 (996)Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing.4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPRThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

a) 1, 3.b) 2, 3, 4.c) 3, 4, 5.d) 1, 5.

21.3.4.8 (997)The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:a) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.b) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.c) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.d) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

21.3.4.8 (998)The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:- a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine RPM- a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 2001-05-06b) 2001-03-05c) 2003-04-06d) 2002-04-05

21.3.5.1 (999)On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:a) ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit.b) ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.c) ground power unit, the starting system.d) ground power unit.

21.3.5.1 (1000)A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification limitations) and on the ground :a) air conditioning and electrical services.b) air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.c) either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.d) air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air).

21.3.5.1 (1001)In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against :a) high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature.b) high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.c) overspeed and high oil temperature only.d) high TGT only.

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21.4.1.0 (1002)Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than:a) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.b) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.c) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.d) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.

21.4.1.0 (1003)The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanesa) must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits.b) must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes.c) depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.d) must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.

21.4.1.0 (1004)A manual inflation handle:a) serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation failsb) serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function failsc) operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slided) is generally not applied on slides.

21.4.1.0 (1005)The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to :a) replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.b) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.c) mark only the exits at the floor level.d) to be used only at night.

21.4.1.0 (1006)An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative the:1. external door opening mechanism2. internal door opening mechanism3. door opening aid device4. open door locking system5. auxiliary means of evacuation6. emergency lightingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6b) 1, 2, 5, 6c) 2, 3, 4, 6d) 1, 3, 4, 5

21.4.1.0 (1007)Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :a) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.b) the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.c) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.d) pressurized air from the air conditioning system.

21.4.2.0 (1008)Smoke detector systems are installed in thea) upper cargo compartments (class E).b) wheel wells.c) engine nacelles.d) fuel tanks.

21.4.2.0 (1009)Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect :a) smoke.b) overtemperature.c) fire.d) overtemperature and fire.

21.4.2.0 (1010)Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type :a) optical or ionizationb) chemicalc) electricald) magnetic

21.4.2.0 (1011)(For this question use annex 021-10164A)The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex.The repeating bell is activated when:a) the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.b) the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.c) only one sensor detects smoke.d) the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.

21.4.3.0 (1012)When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated:1. its resistance decreases.2. its resistance increases.3. the leakage current increases.4. the leakage current decreases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3b) 2, 3c) 1, 4d) 2, 4

21.4.3.0 (1013)A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:a) inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.b) activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.c) automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire.d) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.

21.4.3.0 (1014)In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault

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protection), if the line is accidently grounded:a) the fire alarm is triggered.b) the power supply is cut off automatically.c) there will be no effect on the systemd) the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.

21.4.3.0 (1015)When a wire type fire system is tested:a) the wiring and the warning are tested.b) Only the warning function is tested.c) a part of the wire is totally heated.d) the wire is totally heated.

21.4.3.0 (1016)A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested bya) heating up the sensor with test power connection.b) checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.c) checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.d) checking the sensor with pressurized gas.

21.4.3.0 (1017)In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the:a) landing gear bays / wheel wells.b) cabin.c) fuel tanks.d) tyres.

21.4.3.0 (1018)The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:a) warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).b) warning bell.c) warning light.d) gear warning.

21.4.3.0 (1019)On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes :a) a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all enginesb) a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each enginec) a single warning light and a single alarm belld) both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

21.4.3.0 (1020)In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are :1. the main landing gear wheel wells2. the fuel tanks3. the oil tanks4. the auxiliary power unit5. around the enginesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,4,5b) 2,3c) 2,5d) 1,2,3,4,5

21.4.3.0 (1021)Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces :a) a decrease in resistanceb) an increase in resistancec) a decrease in the reference currentd) a decrease in pressure

21.4.3.0 (1022)A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:a) Fire detection systemb) Smoke detection systemc) Carbon dioxide warning systemd) Fire fighting system

21.4.3.0 (1023)On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:a) at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loopsb) only at an isolated point of the loopsc) only in a uniform way along the loopsd) on at least one loop

21.4.3.0 (1024)When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:a) avoid false alarms in case of vibrationsb) allow temperatures to equalisec) delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiencyd) wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire

21.4.4.0 (1025)The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is:a) Freon.b) Water.c) CO2.d) Powder.

21.4.4.0 (1026)If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire, the following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting:a) BCF and CO2 type extinguishersb) Water type extinguishersc) Dry and water type extinguishersd) CO2 and water type extinguishers

21.4.4.0 (1027)The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :a) sand.b) water.

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c) carbon dioxide.d) freon.

21.4.4.0 (1028)In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located containing :a) halon.b) powder.c) water.d) special fluids.

21.4.4.0 (1029)(For this question use annex 021-9377A)When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in :a) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) indicator lampb) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on both enginesc) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1d) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine n°1 and agent n°2 on engine n°2

21.4.4.0 (1030)Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are :1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned3. setting of extinguishing systems4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves5. isolation of the associated electric current generators6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agentThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,3,4,5b) 1,2,5,6c) 2,3,4,5d) 1,3,4

21.4.4.0 (1031)With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge:a) is the pilot's taskb) is automatic and immediatec) is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engined) does not need the engine to be stopped

21.4.4.0 (1032)The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they :a) act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.b) use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.c) are electrical conductors.d) are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

21.4.4.0 (1033)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1034)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1035)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1036)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1037)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1038)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1039)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least:

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a) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1040)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.b) 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1041)An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped with at least:a) 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.b) 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.c) 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.d) 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher.

21.4.4.0 (1042)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a:a) crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment.b) crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.c) crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.d) crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1043)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:a) 1,83 m.b) 1,80 m.c) 1,86 m.d) 1,89 m.

21.4.4.0 (1044)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen in:1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft.4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3 et 4.

b) 1, 2.c) 1, 2, 4.d) 1,4.

21.4.4.0 (1045)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency descend is:a) 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.b) 30 minutes.c) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft.d) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.

21.4.5.0 (1046)The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts :a) after pulling the oxygen mask downwardsb) immediatelyc) only above FL200d) After the system has been switched on by a crew member

21.4.5.0 (1047)A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:a) 198 (110% of the seating capacity).b) 270 (150% of the seating capacity).c) 240 (one additional mask per seat block).d) 210 (one additional mask per seat row).

21.4.5.0 (1048)When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:a) able to radiotelephone.b) only able to receive.c) only able to transmit.d) not able to do any radio communication.

21.4.5.0 (1049)In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:a) give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.b) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.c) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.d) protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.

21.4.5.0 (1050)An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following characteristics:Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness= 230Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should be:

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a) 220.b) 230.c) 200.d) 180.

21.4.5.0 (1051)From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?a) FL 250.b) FL 300.c) FL 390.d) FL 100.

21.4.5.0 (1052)What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?a) Cabin air and oxygen.b) 100% oxygen.c) Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.d) A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

21.4.5.0 (1053)The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes.2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.4. Avoid greasy matter.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3, 4.b) 1, 2, 3.c) 2, 3, 4.d) 1, 2, 4.

21.4.5.0 (1054)The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is :1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2b) 1, 3c) 2, 3d) 2, 4

21.4.5.0 (1055)The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is :a) Gaseous.b) Chemical compound.c) Liquid.d) Gaseous or chemical compound..

21.4.5.0 (1056)If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:a) oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

b) oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.c) passenger oxygen masks will drop down.d) oxygen bottles will explode.

21.4.5.0 (1057)The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to :a) deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.b) deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.c) is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.d) mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

21.4.5.0 (1058)The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :a) switching the passenger oxygen ON.b) switching the diluter demand regulator ON.c) opening the oxygen-bottle valves.d) switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.

21.4.5.0 (1059)The passenger oxygen mask will supply :a) a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.b) 100 % oxygen.c) a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.d) a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

21.4.5.0 (1060)The chemical oxygen generator is a system:1. which is inexpensive2. requiring no external input3. which is lightweight4. requiring no maintenance5. with adjustable flow rate6. which is unsafeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3, 4b) 2, 3, 6c) 1, 4, 6d) 2, 4, 5

21.4.5.0 (1061)Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)2. supply pure oxygen3. supply diluted oxygen4. supply oxygen at normal pressure5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2, 3, 4, 5b) 3, 4, 5, 6c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 1, 3, 4, 6

21.4.5.0 (1062)A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total

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number of :a) seats exceeded by 10%.b) seats.c) passengers.d) passengers exceeded by 10%.

21.4.5.0 (1063)A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:a) 15000 ft.b) 13000 ft.c) 12000 ft.d) 14000 ft.

21.4.5.0 (1064)Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during commercial flight.a) 410.b) 300.c) 250.d) 490.

21.4.5.0 (1065)A diluter demand oxygen regulator :a) delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.b) delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.c) is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.d) mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

21.4.5.0 (1066)A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:a) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft.b) no first aid required.c) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.d) 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.

21.4.5.0 (1067)As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before :a) take-off.b) the aircraft reaches FL 100.c) the aircraft reaches FL 140.d) the aircraft reaches FL 250.

21.4.5.0 (1068)In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state:a) gaseous.b) liquid.c) chemical.d) chemical or gaseous.

21.4.5.0 (1069)Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,4b) 1, 2, 4c) 3d) 2, 3

21.4.5.0 (1070)Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with :a) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.b) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.c) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.d) only portable oxygen bottles.

21.4.5.0 (1071)Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the system is activated bya) firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.b) activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.c) firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed.d) pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.

21.4.5.0 (1072)A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ?a) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengersb) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew membersc) if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutesd) manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible

21.4.5.0 (1073)A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is :a) Grease

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b) Waterc) Halond) Nitrogen

21.4.5.0 (1074)The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly :a) a continuous flow systemb) a pressure demand systemc) portable equipment onlyd) an air recycle system

21.4.5.0 (1075)The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the :a) user breathes inb) diluter control is in normal positionc) user requires 100 percent oxygend) pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi

21.4.5.0 (1076)The purpose of the ""Pressure Relief Valve"" in a high pressure oxygen system is to :a) relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctionsb) reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulatorc) act as a manual shut-off valved) maximize the charging pressure of the system

21.4.5.0 (1077)The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:a) provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent following a depressurization.b) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.c) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.d) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization.

21.4.5.0 (1078)The survival oxygen is:a) the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurization.b) the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons.c) the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.d) a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers.

21.4.5.0 (1079)Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that :a) with setting on ""NORMAL"", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air.b) the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers.c) the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.d) the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen.

21.4.5.0 (1080)An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :- a power lever : ON/OFF- an ""O2"" lever : NORMAL/100%- an emergency lever : ON/OFFAmong the following statements, the correct proposition is :a) the power lever on ON, and, the ""O2"" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.b) the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.c) the ""O2"" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate.d) with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe.

21.4.5.0 (1081)The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device.2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization.4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2,3b) 1,2,3,4c) 2d) 3,4

21.4.5.0 (1082)When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:a) increases when the altitude increases.b) decreases when the altitude increases.c) is constant whatever the altitude.d) is 100 %.

21.4.5.0 (1083)In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes :a) a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.b) pure oxygen under pressure.c) pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.d) cabin air under pressure.

21.4.5.0 (1084)Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the :a) cabin only.b) cockpit and the cabin.c) cockpit only.d) toilets only.

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21.4.5.0 (1085)The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about :a) 15 minutes.b) 30 minutes.c) 2 hours.d) 5 minutes.

21.4.5.0 (1086)The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. reduced weight and volume,2. easy storage and maintenance,3. greater autonomy,4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning,6. no maintenance.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 4, 6b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6c) 2, 3, 5d) 1, 3, 4, 5

21.4.5.0 (1087)The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a flow which cannot be modulated,2. a heavy and bulky system,3. non reversible functioning,4. risks of explosion,5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3, 5b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 4d) 1, 2, 3, 5

21.4.5.0 (1088)The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a greater autonomy,2. no risk of explosion,3. reversible functioning,4. easy storage and maintenance,5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3, 5b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 4, 5d) 2, 3, 4

21.4.5.0 (1089)When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the outside, the slide:a) is disarmed automatically.b) unfolds and becomes inflated.c) unfolds but does not become inflated.d) becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding.

21.4.5.0 (1090)The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:a) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.b) the oxygen system would be contaminated.

c) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.d) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.

21.4.5.0 (1091)A passenger emergency mask is a :a) continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.b) mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.c) continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin.d) mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke.

21.4.5.0 (1092)A smoke mask is a :a) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.b) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.c) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.d) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

21.4.5.0 (1093)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:a) 10000 ft.b) 12500 ft.c) 13000 ft.d) 14000 ft.

21.4.5.0 (1094)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater than:a) 13000 ft.b) 10000 ft.c) 14000 ft.d) 15000 ft.

21.4.5.0 (1095)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude pressure is greater than:a) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.b) 13000 ft.c) 10000 ft.d) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.

21.4.5.0 (1096)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater than the number of:a) seats by 10 %.b) passengers by 10 %.

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c) seats by 30 %.d) passengers by 30%.

21.4.5.0 (1097)In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:a) 100%b) normal.c) emergency.d) on demand.

21.4.5.0 (1098)The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used2 - in case of accidental drop of the ""continuous flow"" passenger masks, no crew action is required3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite greaseThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 03-Janb) 04-Janc) 03-Fevd) 04-Fev

21.4.6.0 (1099)In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:a) protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases.b) gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.c) protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.d) protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.

21.4.6.0 (1100)An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than :a) 90 minutes at cruising speed.b) 60 minutes at cruising speed.c) 30 minutes at cruising speed.d) 120 minutes at cruising speed.

21.4.6.0 (1101)A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.a) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.b) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case.c) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.d) Life rafts must be available for all occupants.

21.4.6.0 (1102)The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger

cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :a) seats in the cabin.b) seat rows in the cabin.c) passengers in the cabin.d) emergency exits in the cabin.

21.4.6.0 (1103)The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to :a) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation.b) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.c) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured topd) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.

21.4.6.0 (1104)In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with :a) 1 megaphone.b) 2 megaphones.c) 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.d) no megaphone.

21.4.6.0 (1105)In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when the airplane is :1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure.2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore.3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem.4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2, 3b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2d) 3, 4

21.4.6.0 (1106)The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:a) 2b) 1c) 3d) 0

21.4.6.0 (1107)The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :a) 2b) 1

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c) 3d) 4

21.4.6.0 (1108)A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire-extinguishers including:a) 2 halon fire-extinguishers.b) 1 halon fire-extinguisher.c) 3 halon fire-extinguishers.d) no halon fire-extinguisher.

21.4.6.0 (1109)In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated :a) when leaving the airplane.b) immediately on the opening of the exits.c) immediately on ditching.d) once the passengers are in the water.

21.4.6.0 (1110)An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats must be equipped with:a) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.b) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire- extinguishers in the passenger cabin.c) three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only.d) two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

21.4.6.0 (1111)There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with regulations is :a) 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boatsb) 60 life jacketsc) One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boatsd) 60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats

21.4.6.0 (1112)The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least:a) 10 minutesb) 90 secondsc) 5 minutesd) 30 minutes

21.4.6.0 (1113)An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with:a) 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.b) 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

c) 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.d) 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

21.4.6.0 (1114)The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to the emergency teams are a flare:a) which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.b) and a smoke device which are only used at night.c) which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night.d) and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.

21.4.6.0 (1115)The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of :a) 48 hb) 24 hc) 12 hd) 72 h

21.4.6.0 (1116)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:a) in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.b) plus 10 %.c) plus 30 %.d) in the case of a loss of two rafts.

22.1.1.0 (1117)In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :a) equal to the true airspeed (TAS).b) independent of the true airspeed (TAS).c) higher than the true airspeed (TAS).d) lower than the true airspeed (TAS).

22.1.1.1 (1118)The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :a) total pressure.b) static pressure.c) total pressure plus static pressure.d) dynamic pressure.

22.1.1.1 (1119)A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to :a) react like an altimeter.b) read a little high.c) read a little low.d) freeze at zero.

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22.1.1.1 (1120)A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :a) airspeed indicator only.b) altimeter only.c) vertical speed indicator only.d) airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

22.1.1.1 (1121)(For this question use annex 022-9771A)The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a ""standard + 10"" atmosphere is:a) 781.85 hPa.b) 942.13 hPa.c) 1 013.25 hPa.d) 644.41 hPa.

22.1.1.1 (1122)In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake :a) breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass windowb) slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabinc) descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possibled) calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the instruments

22.1.1.2 (1123)The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as:a) position pressure error.b) barometric error.c) instrument error.d) hysteresis effect.

22.1.1.2 (1124)If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:a) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occuredb) gradually indicate zeroc) under-readd) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

22.1.1.2 (1125)The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of:a) an induction pick-off deviceb) more effective temperature compensating leaf springsc) combination of counters/pointersd) a sub-scale logarithmic function

22.1.1.2 (1126)If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will:a) continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occuredb) under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blockedc) over-readd) gradually return to zero

22.1.1.2 (1127)The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:a) time passed at a given altitude.b) mach number of the aircraft.c) aircraft altitude.d) static temperature.

22.1.1.2 (1128)The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:a) reduce the effect of friction in the linkagesb) inform the crew of a failure of the instrumentc) allow damping of the measurement in the unitd) reduce the hysteresis effect

22.1.1.2 (1129)The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the:a) Mach number of the aircraftb) deformation of the aneroid capsulec) aircraft altituded) static temperature

22.1.1.2 (1130)The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is :a) lower than the real altitude.b) the same as the real altitude.c) higher than the real altitude.d) equal to the standard altitude.

22.1.1.2 (1131)The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:a) higher than the real altitude.b) the same as the real altitude.c) lower than the real altitude.d) equal to the standard altitude.

22.1.1.2 (1132)On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:a) pressure altitudeb) density altitude

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c) temperature altituded) standard altitude

22.1.1.2 (1133)The density altitude is :a) the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphereb) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperaturec) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this pointd) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

22.1.1.2 (1134)The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding :a) in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this pointb) in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Psc) in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Psd) in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point

22.1.1.2 (1135)When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :a) overread.b) underread.c) be just as correct as before.d) show the actual height above ground.

22.1.1.2 (1136)At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed :a) +/-60 feetb) +/-75 feetc) +/-30 feetd) +/-70 feet

22.1.1.2 (1137)The QNH is by definition the value of the:a) altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for which it is given.b) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.c) altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location for which it is provided.d) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.

22.1.1.2 (1138)The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :a) the replies from the transponders of other aircraftb) the echos from the ground air traffic control radar systemc) the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on boardd) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

22.1.1.2 (1139)If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another altimeter which is not , and all other factors being equal...a) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitudeb) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitudec) There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning normallyd) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR

22.1.1.2 (1140)The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing.The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively :a) (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressureb) (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - tc) (i) total pressure (ii) static pressured) (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure

22.1.1.2 (1141)The altimeter is fed by :a) static pressureb) dynamic pressurec) total pressured) differential pressure

22.1.1.2 (1142)In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter:a) overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.b) overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.c) keeps on providing reliable reading in all situationsd) underreads the altitude.

22.1.1.3 (1143)When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:a) decreaseb) increase at a linear ratec) remain constantd) increase at an exponential rate

22.1.1.3 (1144)For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a:a) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air densityb) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air densityc) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air densityd) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density

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22.1.1.3 (1145)When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:a) decreaseb) increase at a linear ratec) remain constantd) increase at an exponential rate

22.1.1.3 (1146)A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:a) under-read.b) over-read.c) over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.d) under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

22.1.1.3 (1147)The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies:a) the total pressureb) the static pressurec) the total pressure and the static pressured) the dynamic pressure

22.1.1.3 (1148)If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:a) over-readb) read zeroc) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockaged) under-read

22.1.1.3 (1149)The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS) :a) an instrument and position/pressure error correction.b) an antenna and compressibility correction.c) and instrument and density correction.d) a compressibility and density correction.

22.1.1.3 (1150)VNO is the maximum speed :a) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.b) which must never be exceeded.c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.d) with flaps extended in landing position.

22.1.1.3 (1151)VNE is the maximum speed :a) which must never be exceededb) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflectedd) with flaps extended in landing position

22.1.1.3 (1152)VLO is the maximum :a) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.b) flight speed with landing gear down.c) speed with flaps extended in a given position.d) cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

22.1.1.3 (1153)VLE is the maximum :a) flight speed with landing gear downb) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safetyc) speed with flaps extended in a given positiond) speed authorized in flight

22.1.1.3 (1154)With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :a) decreasing speed.b) constant speed.c) increasing speed.d) fluctuating speed.

22.1.1.3 (1155)The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are :a) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitb) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitc) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitd) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

22.1.1.3 (1156)The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are :a) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limitb) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limitc) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limitd) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit

22.1.1.3 (1157)The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are :a) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limitb) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limitc) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limitd) VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit

22.1.1.3 (1158)The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in :a) calibrated airspeed (CAS).b) equivalent airspeed (EAS).

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c) true airspeed (TAS).d) computed airspeed (COAS).

22.1.1.3 (1159)After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed :a) decreases steadilyb) increases abruptly towards VNEc) increases steadilyd) decreases abruptly towards zero

22.1.1.3 (1160)During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :a) increases steadilyb) increases abruptly towards VNEc) decreases stadilyd) decreases abruptly towards zero

22.1.1.3 (1161)With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same :a) calibrated airspeed.b) ground speed.c) true airspeed.d) equivalent airspeed.

22.1.1.3 (1162)All the anemometers are calibrated according to:a) St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air compressibility.b) Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air compressibility.c) St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid.d) Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid.

22.1.1.3 (1163)VFE is the maximum speed :a) with the flaps extended in a given position.b) with the flaps extended in landing position.c) at which the flaps can be operated.d) with the flaps extended in take-off position.

22.1.1.3 (1164)The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the:a) maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitudeb) maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperaturec) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus temperatured) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus altitude

22.1.1.3 (1165)The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue line corresponds to the :a) optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vyb) speed not to be exceeded, or VNEc) minimum control speed, or VMCd) maximum speed in operations, or VMO

22.1.1.3 (1166)Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and instrumental) error :a) The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all casesb) The true airspeedc) The airspeed, whatever the altituded) The equivalent airspeed, in all cases

22.1.1.3 (1167)Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight levelb) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight levelc) by the MMOd) by the VMO in still air

22.1.1.4 (1168)Machmeter readings are subject to:a) position pressure errorb) density error.c) temperature error.d) setting error.

22.1.1.4 (1169)If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is :a) 596 kt.b) 247 kt.c) 307 kt.d) 686 kt.

22.1.1.4 (1170)During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) :a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.d) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.

22.1.1.4 (1171)A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to :a) a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed

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sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure.b) a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.c) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure.d) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.

22.1.1.4 (1172)The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of :a) the outside temperatureb) the static pressurec) the total pressured) the differential pressure measurement

22.1.1.4 (1173)The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio :a) (Pt - Ps) to Psb) Pt to Psc) (Pt - Ps) to Ptd) (Pt + Ps) to Ps

22.1.1.4 (1174)The mach number is the:a) true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of soundb) corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of soundc) indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of soundd) equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound

22.1.1.4 (1175)Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :a) temperature.b) temperature and the pressure.c) pressure.d) density.

22.1.1.4 (1176)The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:a) 661 kt.b) 1059 kt.c) 644 kt.d) 332 kt.

22.1.1.4 (1177)At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number :a) increases when the altitude increasesb) decreases when the altitude increasesc) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increasesd) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases

22.1.1.4 (1178)At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :

a) decreases when the altitude increasesb) increases when the altitude increasesc) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increasesd) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases

22.1.1.4 (1179)The Mach number is :a) the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude consideredb) a direct function of temperature , it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute temperaturec) the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude consideredd) the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

22.1.1.4 (1180)Indication of Mach number is obtained from:a) Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroidb) An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knotsc) A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speedd) Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer

22.1.1.5 (1181)The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :a) - 500 ft/min.b) - 300 ft/minc) - 150 ft/mind) - 250 ft/min

22.1.1.5 (1182)The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:a) correction based on an accelerometer sensor.b) bimettalic stripc) return springd) second calibrated port

22.1.1.5 (1183)The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by :a) static pressureb) dynamic pressurec) total pressured) differential pressure

22.1.1.5 (1184)The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of:a) Static pressureb) Dynamic pressure

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c) Total pressured) Kinetic pressure

22.1.1.6 (1185)The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are :1. Position/pressure error correction2. Hysteresis error correction3. Remote data transmission capability4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of a failureThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3,4b) 1,2,3,4c) 2,3,4d) 1,2,3

22.1.1.6 (1186)Given :- Ts the static temperature (SAT)- Tt the total temperature (TAT)- Kr the recovery coefficient- M the Mach numberThe total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula :a) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)b) Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²)c) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²)d) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²)

22.1.1.6 (1187)In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:a) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselageb) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselagec) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)d) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back

22.1.1.6 (1188)An Air Data Computer (ADC) :a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instrumentsb) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is blockedc) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed informationd) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting

22.1.2.1 (1189)The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:a) 1B, 2C, 3Ab) 1C, 2B, 3Ac) 1B, 2A, 3Cd) 1A, 2B, 3C

22.1.2.1 (1190)The basis properties of a gyroscope are :1. The gyro's weight.2. The rigidity in space.3. The inertia.4. The high RPM.5. The precessionThe combination of correct statements is :a) 2,5b) 2,3,5c) 1,3,5d) 3,4

22.1.2.1 (1191)A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in1. An inertial attitude unit2. An automatic pilot3. A stabilizing servo system4. An inertial navigation system5. A rate-of-turn indicatorThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,4.b) 1,2,3,4,5.c) 2,3,5.d) 2,3,4.

22.1.2.1 (1192)Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro :a) has a longer life cycleb) is influenced by temperaturec) has a fairly long starting cycled) consumes a lot of power

22.1.2.1 (1193)A laser gyro consists of :a) a laser generating two light wavesb) 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes)c) a gyro with 2 degrees of freedomd) two moving cavities provided with mirrors

22.1.2.1 (1194)Among the systematic errors of the ""directional gyro"", the error due to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by...a) 10.5°/hour to the right.b) 15°/hour to the right.c) 7.5°/hour to the right.d) 7.5°/hour to the left.

22.1.2.1 (1195)In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass :a) on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.b) close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.c) on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.d) close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.

22.1.2.2 (1196)The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,

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due to:1- rotation of Earth.2- aeroplane motion on Earth.3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.4- north change.5- mechanical defects.Chose the combination with true statements only:a) 1,2,3,5.b) 3,4,5.c) 1,2,4,5.d) 2,3,5.

22.1.2.2 (1197)The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass system are :a) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.b) two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting system.c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.

22.1.2.2 (1198)The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when it is located :a) on the equatorb) in the latitude 30°c) in the latitude 45°d) on the North pole

22.1.2.2 (1199)The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour :a) on the North poleb) in the latitude 30°c) in the latitude 45°d) on the equator

22.1.2.2 (1200)The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds :a) a levelling erection torque motorb) a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ringc) a torque motor on the sensitive axisd) 2 torque motors arranged horizontally

22.1.2.2 (1201)The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of :a) a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraftb) an apparent weight and an apparent verticalc) too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ringd) the aircraft's track over the earth

22.1.2.2 (1202)The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are valid only for a

short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are :1. The earth's rotation2. The longitudinal acceleration3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth.4. The mechanical defects of the gyro5. The gyro's weight6. The gimbal mount of the gyro ringsThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3,4,6b) 1,3,4c) 1,2,3,4,5,6d) 2,5,6

22.1.2.2 (1203)An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is:a) a directional gyrob) an artificial horizonc) a turn indicatord) a fluxgate compass

22.1.2.2 (1204)An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is :a) a directional gyrob) an artificial horizonc) a turn indicatord) a flux gate compass

22.1.2.2 (1205)For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 005°S and 005°N parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:a) 0°/hourb) +5°/hourc) -5°/hourd) depends only on the aircraft's ground speed

22.1.2.2 (1206)A directional gyro is: 1- a gyroscope free around two axis 2- a gyroscope free around one axis 3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied direction 4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied directionThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:a) 04-Janb) 04-Fevc) 03-Fevd) 03-Jan

22.1.2.2 (1207)The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is:a) 15°/hourb) 90°/hourc) 180°/hourd) 5°/hour

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22.1.2.2 (1208)The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft.This error...a) is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average latitude of the flightb) is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglectedc) is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional trackd) shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere

22.1.2.3 (1209)A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. The relative bearing to the station is :a) 135°.b) Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.c) 315°.d) 225°.

22.1.2.3 (1210)A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from :a) the flux valve.b) the air-data-computer.c) a direct reading magnetic compass.d) the flight director.

22.1.2.3 (1211)The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device originates from the:a) error detector.b) flux valve.c) directional gyro unit.d) directional gyro erection device.

22.1.2.3 (1212)The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the:a) error detector.b) erector system.c) heading indicator.d) amplifier.

22.1.2.3 (1213)The gyromagnetic compass torque motor :a) causes the directional gyro unit to precessb) causes the heading indicator to precessc) feeds the error detector systemd) is fed by the flux valve

22.1.2.3 (1214)A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly which always consists of :1- a directional gyro2- a vertical axis gyro3- an earth's magnetic field

detector4- an azimuth control5- a synchronising controlThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3,5b) 2,3,5c) 1,4d) 2,5

22.1.2.3 (1215)Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the :a) error detector.b) erecting system.c) heading indicator.d) amplifier.

22.1.2.3 (1216)Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at :a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axisb) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axisc) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axisd) l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis

22.1.2.4 (1217)Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with :Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises.a) two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.b) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemc) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting systemd) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system

22.1.2.4 (1218)When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :a) too much nose-up and bank too high.b) too much nose-up and bank too low.c) attitude and bank correct.d) too much nose-up and bank correct.

22.1.2.4 (1219)When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :a) attitude and bank correctb) too much nose-up and bank too lowc) too much nose-up and bank correctd) too much nose-up and bank too high

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22.1.2.4 (1220)When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :a) too much nose-up and bank too lowb) attitude and bank correctc) too much nose-up and bank correctd) too much nose-up and bank too high

22.1.2.4 (1221)A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on :a) an artificial horizonb) a directional gyro unitc) a turn indicatord) a gyromagnetic indicator

22.1.2.4 (1222)Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates :a) too high pitch-up and too low bankingb) too high pitch-up and correct bankingc) attitude and banking correctd) too high pitch up and too high banking

22.1.2.4 (1223)During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a :a) nose-up attitudeb) nose-down attitudec) constant attituded) nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude

22.1.2.4 (1224)A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:a) Contains its own separate gyrob) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator failsc) Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situationd) Only works of there is a complete electrical failure

22.1.2.4 (1225)(Use the appendix to answer this question)The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude is n°a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4

22.1.2.4 (1226)A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on :a) an artificial horizon.b) a directional gyro.

c) a turn indicator.d) a gyromagnetic compass.

22.1.2.5 (1227)Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument , when it is associated with an attitude indicator it indicates :1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis2. The bank of the aircraft3. The direction of the aircraft turn4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real verticalThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3.b) 1,2.c) 3,4.d) 2,4.

22.1.2.5 (1228)A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:a) 2 degrees of freedom.b) 0 degree of freedom.c) 1 degree of freedom.d) 3 degrees of freedom.

22.1.2.5 (1229)When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is :a) turning right with too much bankb) turning right with not enough bankc) turning left with too much bankd) turning left with not enough bank

22.1.2.5 (1230)When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is :a) turning right with not enough bankb) turning right with too much bankc) turning left with not enough bankd) turning left with too much bank

22.1.2.5 (1231)When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is:a) turning left with not enough bankb) turning left with too much bankc) turning right with not enough bankd) turning right with too much bank

22.1.2.5 (1232)An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a :a) turn indicatorb) gyromagnetic compass

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c) fluxgate compassd) directional gyro

22.1.2.5 (1233)In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is:a) inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeedb) proportional to the aircraft true airspeedc) independent to the aircraft true airspeedd) proportional to the aircraft weight

22.1.2.5 (1234)In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists for :a) low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rateb) low bank angles , in measuring the roll ratec) high bank angles,in measuring the yaw rated) high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate

22.1.2.5 (1235)At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the :a) yaw rate of the aircraftb) pitch rate of the aircraftc) roll rate of the aircraftd) angular velocity of the aircraft

22.1.2.5 (1236)The rate-of-turn is the:a) change-of-heading rate of the aircraftb) yaw rate in a turnc) aircraft speed in a turnd) pitch rate in a turn

22.1.2.5 (1237)On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates :a) needle to the right, ball to leftb) needle to the right, ball to rightc) needle in the middle, ball to rightd) needle in the middle, ball to left

22.1.2.5 (1238)On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates :a) needle to the left, ball to the rightb) needle to the left, ball to the leftc) needle in the middle, ball to the rightd) needle in the middle, ball to the left

22.1.2.5 (1239)When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:a) turning left with too much bank

b) turning left with not enough bankc) turning right with too much bankd) turning right with not enough bank

22.1.2.5 (1240)A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn.Rate of turn depends upon :1 : bank angle2 : aeroplane speed3 : aeroplane weightThe combination regrouping the correct statements is :a) 1 and 2.b) 1 and 3.c) 2 and 3.d) 1, 2, and 3.

22.1.2.5 (1241)(For this question use appendix )The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is:a) 4b) 1c) 2d) 3

22.1.2.5 (1242)The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:1 - with one degree of freedom.2 - with two degrees of freedom3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs.4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis.5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis.6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 03-Janb) 2001-03-04c) 05-Fevd) 06-Jan

22.1.2.5 (1243)An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:a) 18°.b) 12°.c) 36°.d) 30°.

22.1.2.6 (1244)While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system:a) with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.b) without damping and a period of about 84 minutesc) without damping and a period of about 84 secondsd) with damping and a period of 84 seconds

22.1.2.6 (1245)The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro

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with:a) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axisb) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axisc) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axisd) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis

22.1.2.6 (1246)The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with :a) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axisb) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axisc) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axisd) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis

22.1.2.7 (1247)In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is necessary to:a) Position the computing trihedron with reference to earth.b) Check operation of laser gyros.c) Determine magnetic or true heading.d) Re-erect laser gyros.

22.1.3.0 (1248)The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of :a) the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic fieldb) the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron piecesc) the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic fieldd) the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces

22.1.3.0 (1249)A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :a) 210°b) 150°c) 170°d) 190°

22.1.3.0 (1250)A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :a) 160°b) 200°c) 170°d) 190°

22.1.3.0 (1251)A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of :

a) 030°b) 355°c) 330°d) 015°

22.1.3.0 (1252)A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of :a) 330°b) 350°c) 030°d) 010°

22.1.3.0 (1253)The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass :a) on any headingb) on a given headingc) at any latituded) at a given latitude

22.1.3.0 (1254)The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:a) compass swinging curveb) map showing the isoclinic linesc) deviation correction curved) map showing the isogonic lines

22.1.3.0 (1255)The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a :a) map showing the isogonal linesb) map showing the isoclinic linesc) deviation correction curved) compass swinging curve

22.1.3.0 (1256)The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:1. magnetic masses2. ferrous metal masses3. non ferrous metal masses4. electrical currentsThe combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 4b) 1, 2, 3c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 1, 3, 4

22.1.3.0 (1257)In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :a) an apparent turn to the South.b) an apparent turn to the North.

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c) a constant heading.d) a heading fluctuating about 090°.

22.1.3.0 (1258)During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :a) no apparent turn.b) an apparent turn to the East.c) an apparent turn to the West.d) a heading fluctuating about 360°.

22.1.3.0 (1259)During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :a) no apparent turn.b) an apparent turn to the East.c) an apparent turn to the West.d) a heading fluctuating about 180°.

22.1.3.0 (1260)In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :a) an apparent turn to the North.b) an apparent turn to the South.c) no apparent turn.d) a heading fluctuating about 270°.

22.1.3.0 (1261)In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :a) an apparent turn to the South.b) an apparent turn to the North.c) no apparent turn.d) a heading fluctuating about 270°.

22.1.3.0 (1262)In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :a) an apparent turn to the North.b) an apparent turn to the South.c) no apparent turn.d) a heading fluctuating about 090°.

22.1.3.0 (1263)The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using :a) soft iron piecesb) hard iron piecesc) pairs of permanent magnetsd) magnetized needles

22.1.3.0 (1264)An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation is O°.On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error:a) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045°.b) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045°.c) will be nul if the wings are kept level.d) will be nul

22.1.3.0 (1265)When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to ""undershoot,"" when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to ""overshoot"":1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass. 4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass.The correct statements are :a) 2 and 3.b) 1, 2, and 4.c) 2, 3, and 4.d) 1 and 3.

22.1.3.0 (1266)Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:a) in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic headingb) due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headingsc) due to Schüler type oscillationsd) of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose

22.1.3.0 (1267)The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of:a) compass north and magnetic north.b) compass north and true north.c) true north and magnetic north.d) compass north and the lubber line.

22.1.3.0 (1268)In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is:a) equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.b) none on a 270° heading in a left turn.c) none on a 090° heading in a right turn.d) equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn.

22.1.3.0 (1269)Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible :a) deviation.b) variation.c) regulation.d) acceleration.

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22.1.3.0 (1270)A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)3- the information can be used by a ""flux gate"" compass or a directional gyro4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5%Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 2002-03-05b) 1 - 3 - 4 - 5c) 05-Mard) 2001-04-05

22.1.4.0 (1271)In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to:a) account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the reading.b) place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.c) change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.d) compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length.

22.1.4.0 (1272)The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the :a) radio altimeter.b) high altitude radio altimeter.c) weather radar.d) primary radar.

22.1.4.0 (1273)The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.2 are of the pulsed type.3 are of the frequency modulation type.4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.The combination of the correct statements is :a) 3, 5b) 3, 4c) 2, 3, 4d) 1, 2, 5

22.1.4.0 (1274)The data supplied by a radio altimeter:a) indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.b) concerns only the decision height.c) is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.d) is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

22.1.4.0 (1275)In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon:a) a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the

transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured.d) a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.

22.1.4.0 (1276)Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:a) SHF (Super High Frequency).b) VLF (Very Low Frequency).c) HF (High Frequency).d) UHF (Ultra High Frequency).

22.1.4.0 (1277)The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:a) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.b) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.c) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.d) 5 GHz.

22.1.4.0 (1278)The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:a) descends below a pre-set radio altitude.b) passes over the outer marker.c) descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.d) passes over the ILS inner marker.

22.1.4.0 (1279)The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:a) frequency modulation of the carrier wave.b) amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.c) pulse modulation of the carrier wave.d) a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.

22.1.4.0 (1280)A radio altimeter can be defined as a :a) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraftb) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraftc) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraftd) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

22.1.4.0 (1281)For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the ..a) Height indication is removedb) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal soundsc) DH lamp flashes redd) Audio warning signal sounds

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22.1.4.0 (1282)During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:a) height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.b) height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.c) height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.d) altitude of the aircraft.

22.1.5.0 (1283)Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2, 3.b) 3, 4.c) 1, 4.d) 1, 2.

22.1.5.0 (1284)The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:a) piloting.b) weather situation.c) engines and alarms.d) systems.

22.1.6.0 (1285)All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system , it can be defined as a:a) global 3-D Flight Management Systemb) management system optimized in the vertical planec) management system optimized in the horizontal planed) global 2-D Flight Management System

22.2.0.0 (1286)When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the:a) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.b) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.c) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.d) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

22.2.1.0 (1287)Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:a) ADI Attitude Display Indicator.b) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.c) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.d) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.

22.2.1.0 (1288)The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking outside, to have:a) a synthetic view of the instrument procedure.b) a flying and flight path control aid.c) a monitoring of engine data.d) a monitoring only during Cat III precision approaches.

22.2.1.0 (1289)For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight director computer takes into account:1- track deviation2- rate of track closure3- rate of change of track closure4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unitThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,2,3b) 1,2,4c) 2,3,4d) 1,3,4

22.2.1.0 (1290)The essential components of a flight director are :1- a computer2- an automatic pilot3- an autothrottle4- command barsThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,4b) 1,2c) 2,4d) 2,3

22.2.1.0 (1291)The ""heading hold"" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD:a) is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180°b) is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°c) is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°d) cannot be centered

22.2.1.0 (1292)Mode ""Localizer ARM"" active on Flight Director means:a) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center lineb) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorizedc) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerlined) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

22.2.1.0 (1293)An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the vertical trend bar :a) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director.b) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading 360°.c) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

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d) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected heading.

22.2.1.0 (1294)The position of a Flight Director command bars:a) indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.b) repeats the ADI and HSI informationc) enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.d) only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

22.2.1.0 (1295)On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:a) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).b) upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).c) upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).d) control panel of the flight director only.

22.2.1.0 (1296)The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:a) allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.b) about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis.c) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° intercept angle.d) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle.

22.2.1.0 (1297)(For this question use annex 022-9768A)An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is :a) experiencing a leftside wind.b) located to the leftside of the selected radial.c) located to the rightside of the selected radial.d) experiencing rightside wind.

22.2.1.0 (1298)The flight director indicates the :a) optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.b) optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.c) path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.d) path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance.

22.2.1.0 (1299)For this question use annex (022-10179A)Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is number :a) 2b) 1c) 4d) 3

22.2.1.0 (1300)The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:a) ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)b) HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)c) RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)d) ILS (Instrument Landing System)

22.2.1.0 (1301)(For this question use annex 022-10217A)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :a) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.b) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.c) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.d) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

22.2.1.0 (1302)(For this question use annex 022-11232A)After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must :a) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.b) increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.c) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.d) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

22.2.2.0 (1303)The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system :1- enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement 2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach modesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 3, 4b) 2, 4c) 1, 4d) 2, 3

22.2.2.0 (1304)(For this question use annex 022-3880A)The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex.For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the:a) offset EPSILON at the computer input.b) pilot command E.c) aircraft response S.d) real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).

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22.2.2.0 (1305)Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew :a) during ground roll.b) during the flare.c) at the decision height.d) at the outer marker.

22.2.2.0 (1306)A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the:a) heading and to hold the altitudeb) headingc) altituded) heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function

22.2.2.0 (1307)An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot :a) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground rollb) ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the powerc) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-outd) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power

22.2.2.0 (1308)A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as :a) a servomechanism.b) an amplifier.c) a feedback control circuit.d) an autopilot.

22.2.2.0 (1309)The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place :a) at a constant headingb) at a constant magnetic coursec) according to an interception versus radio deviation lawd) according to an interception versus range and angular

22.2.2.0 (1310)The Altitude Select System:a) Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected altitudeb) Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attainedc) Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altituded) Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude

22.2.2.0 (1311)On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged:a) by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles.

b) by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panel.c) automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.d) if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a higher speed than the one selected.

22.2.2.0 (1312)When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables :a) aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trim.b) aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.c) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.d) all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course lines.

22.2.2.0 (1313)An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of:a) piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes.b) piloting only.c) navigation.d) piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the human pilot.

22.2.2.0 (1314)When the auto-pilot is engaged, the role of the automatic trim is to:a) relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnectb) relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnectc) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold moded) synchronize the longitudinal loop

22.2.2.0 (1315)The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of :1- vertical speed2- altitude3- attitude4- bank5- headingThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 2001-02-05b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5c) 05-Mard) 2002-03-04

22.2.2.0 (1316)In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronisation :a) can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.b) intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.c) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.d) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.

22.2.2.0 (1317)The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as the relationship between the :a) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.b) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.

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c) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control deflection signals.d) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane).

22.2.2.0 (1318)In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following fundamental elements :1- Airflow valve2- Sensors3- Comparators4- Computers5- Amplifiers6- Servo-actuatorsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6b) 2, 3, 4, 5c) 1, 3, 4, 6d) 1, 2, 6

22.2.2.0 (1319)The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the :1- difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.2- rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.3- temperature is low.4- pressure altitude is high.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,2.b) 1, 2, 3, 4.c) 1, 2, 3.d) 2, 3, 4.

22.2.2.0 (1320)The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the :1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high.4 - variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high.The combination regrouping the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.b) 1 and 2.c) 3 and 4.d) 1, 2 and 3.

22.2.2.0 (1321)When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered:a) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect.b) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.c) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.d) ""fail safe"" with failure effect without disconnection.

22.2.2.0 (1322)In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is

considered:a) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.b) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect.c) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.d) ""fail hard"" or with failure effect and disconnection.

22.2.2.0 (1323)In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two autopilots, the system is considered:a) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.b) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.c) ""fail hard"" or without failure effect and disconnection.d) ""fail soft"" with minimized failure effect.

22.2.2.0 (1324)During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:a) autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height.b) glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing.c) autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height.d) Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until landing.

22.2.2.0 (1325)In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input :a) proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current heading but not exceeding a given value.b) of a fixed value equal to 27°.c) of a fixed value equal to 20°.d) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.

22.2.2.0 (1326)An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:a) ""OPERATIONAL""b) ""PASSIVE""c) ""SAFE""d) ""REDUNDANT""

22.2.2.0 (1327)An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""a) ""PASSIVE""b) ""OPERATIONAL""c) ""SAFE""d) ""REDUNDANT""

22.2.2.0 (1328)A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:a) at approximately 100 ft.b) at the decision height.

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c) on ground.d) when going around.

22.2.2.0 (1329)A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the final approach :a) during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stop.b) until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected.c) until the flare.d) until reaching decision height.

22.2.2.0 (1330)When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the ""cone of confusion"" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot :a) temporarily switches over to the heading mode.b) is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.c) remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.d) is temporarily disconnected.

22.2.2.0 (1331)The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions :1- pitch attitude hold 2- pressure altitude hold3- horizontal wing hold4- heading hold The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2, 3d) 1, 4

22.2.2.0 (1332)During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the :a) radio altimeter.b) GPS (Global Positioning System).c) encoding altimeter.d) altimeter.

22.2.2.0 (1333)A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will :a) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.b) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.c) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.d) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.

22.2.2.0 (1334)The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of :a) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.b) monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

c) guiding the airplane path.d) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.

22.2.2.0 (1335)From a flight mechanics point of view, the ""guidance"" functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in:a) monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space (path).b) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.c) monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space (path).d) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.

22.2.2.0 (1336)An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:a) for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.b) on multipilot airplanes.c) for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.d) on airplanes over 5.7 t.

22.2.2.0 (1337)Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- displayed heading or inertial track holding4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding5- yaw damping6- VOR axis holdingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2 and 5.b) 1, 2, 3 and 6.c) 3, 4, 5 and 6.d) 2, 4, and 5.

22.2.2.0 (1338)Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding4- altitude holding5- VOR axis holding6- yaw dampingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 3, 4 and 5.b) 1, 2, and 6.c) 1, 2, 3 and 6.d) 1, 3, 4 and 5.

22.2.2.0 (1339)When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator 3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2 and 3.b) 3.c) 1 and 3.d) 1 and 2.

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22.2.2.0 (1340)A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 2.b) 3, 4 and 5.c) 1 and 4.d) 2, 3 and 5.

22.2.2.0 (1341)A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 3, 4 and 5.b) 1 and 2.c) 2, 3 and 5.d) 1 and 4.

22.2.2.0 (1342)When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around :1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the dragThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2 and 5.b) 1, 4 and 5.c) 1, 3 and 4.d) 1, 2 and 3.

22.2.2.0 (1343)The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding modeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 4.b) 2 and 4.

c) 1 and 3.d) 2 and 3.

22.2.2.0 (1344)The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unitThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4.b) 1, 2, 4.c) 2, 3, 4.d) 1, 3, 4.

22.2.2.0 (1345)An autopilot is selected ""ON"" in mode ""altitude hold,"" the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the:a) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the static sourceb) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPac) aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeterd) mode altitude hold will disengage

22.2.3.0 (1346)The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude control laws such as :1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3b) 2, 3c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 1, 3, 4

22.2.4.0 (1347)The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:a) controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal.b) controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.c) controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.d) controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal.

22.2.4.0 (1348)The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the:a) yaw damper action on the rudderb) rudder displacement by the rudder pedalsc) yaw damper action only on the groundd) rudder position

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22.2.5.0 (1349)The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to:a) transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.b) reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).c) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.d) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.

22.2.5.0 (1350)Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system :a) It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.b) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.c) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.d) It operates over the full aircraft speed range.

22.2.5.0 (1351)In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about the :a) pitch axis only.b) roll and yaw axes only.c) pitch roll and yaw axes.d) pitch and roll axes only.

22.2.5.0 (1352)Mach Trim is a device to compensate for :a) backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to nose-upb) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tailc) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Machd) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise

22.2.5.0 (1353)The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to :a) control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator loadb) help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influencec) tell the pilot when elevator trimming is requiredd) trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation

22.2.5.0 (1354)The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of the :a) elevator(s)b) rudder(s)c) elevator(s) and rudder(s)d) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.

22.2.5.0 (1355)The purpose of the automatic trim is to:1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator2- ensure

the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3.b) 1, 2.c) 1, 3.d) 2, 3.

22.2.6.0 (1356)A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions :1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)2- automatic starting sequence 3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments4- thrust management and protection of operation limits 5- monitoring of the thrust reversersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b) 2, 4, 5c) 1, 3, 5d) 1, 3, 4, 5

22.2.6.0 (1357)The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by :a) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.b) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.c) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.d) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.

22.2.6.0 (1358)An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :a) increases.b) decreases.c) remains constant.d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.

22.2.6.0 (1359)The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:a) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).b) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).c) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.d) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.

22.2.6.0 (1360)An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:a) remains constant.b) increases.c) decreases.d) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.

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22.2.6.0 (1361)An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed:a) remains constant.b) increases.c) decreases.d) decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.

22.2.6.0 (1362)An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:a) increases.b) decreases.c) remains constant.d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if above.

22.2.6.0 (1363)An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature increases, the Mach number :a) remains constant.b) increases.c) decreases.d) decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if lower.

22.2.6.0 (1364)An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature decreases, the Mach number :a) remains constant.b) increases.c) decreases.d) increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.

22.2.6.0 (1365)An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed :a) decreases.b) increases.c) remains constant.d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.

22.2.6.0 (1366)An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :

a) decreases.b) increases.c) remains constant.d) increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher.

22.2.7.0 (1367)The autothrottle :1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS)4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilotThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 3b) 2 and 3c) 1 and 4d) 1, 3 and 4

22.2.7.0 (1368)The purpose of Auto Throttle is:a) to maintain constant engine power or airplane speedb) automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperaturec) to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilotd) to synchronize engines to avoid ""yawing""

22.2.7.0 (1369)In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check the :a) PFD (Primary Flight Display)b) ND (Navigation Display).c) TCC (Thrust Control Computer).d) throttles position.

22.2.7.0 (1370)The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a transport airplane has the following mode(s) :1- capture and holding of speeds2- capture and holding of Mach number3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)5- capture and holding of flight pathsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 4b) 1, 2, 3, 5c) 2, 4d) 1, 4, 5

22.3.1.0 (1371)Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour:a) amberb) redc) greend) flashing red

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22.3.2.0 (1372)A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning device. This system will warn the crew about :1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both climb and descent.2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb only.3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.4 - a wrong landing configuration.5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude.The combination regrouping the correct statements is:a) 1,5b) 3,4c) 2d) 1,3,4

22.3.2.0 (1373)An ""altitude warning system"" must at least warn the crew :1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an aural warning)4- in case of excessive vertical speed5- when approaching the ground with the gear retractedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 4, 5d) 1, 3, 4

22.3.2.0 (1374)The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to the pilot when the:a) airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.b) airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.c) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.d) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.

22.3.3.0 (1375)The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :1 - vertical speed2 - radio altimeter height3 - pressure altitude4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position6 - angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,2,4,5b) 1,3,4,5,6c) 1,2,5,6d) 2,3,4,6

22.3.3.0 (1376)The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure3- excessive angle of attack4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration7- excessive glidepath deviationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,2,5,6,7b) 1,2,4,6,7c) 3,4,5,6d) 2,3,5,7

22.3.3.0 (1377)The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.b) 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.c) 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.d) 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

22.3.3.0 (1378)The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :a) DON'T SINK repetitive onlyb) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive onlyc) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UPd) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second level

22.3.3.0 (1379)A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate :a) at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be addedb) a sound alarm or a visual alarmc) a sound and visual alarmd) a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be

22.3.3.0 (1380)The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as :1- the descent rate2- the climb rate3- the aircraft configuration4- the selected engine rpmThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3b) 1,2,4c) 2,4d) 2,3

22.3.3.0 (1381)If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals :a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK""c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice)

22.3.3.0 (1382)If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning ""DON'T SINK"" (twice times), it is because :a) during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.b) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted.

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c) at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.d) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected.

22.3.3.0 (1383)A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.2 - dangerous ground proximity.3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.4 - wrong landing configuration.5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2,3,4,5b) 2c) 1,3,4d) 2,5

22.3.3.0 (1384)The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from :a) 50 ft to 2 500 ftb) the ground to 1 000 ftc) 30 ft to 5 000 ftd) the ground to 500 ft

22.3.3.0 (1385)The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases :1- excessive rate of descent2- excessive ground proximity rate3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration5- excessive deviation under the glidepath6- abnormal airbrakes configurationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b) 2, 4, 5, 6c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6d) 3, 4, 5, 6

22.3.3.0 (1386)The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity :1- turboprop-powered2- piston-powered3- jet-poweredThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3b) 1c) 1, 2, 3d) 3

22.3.3.0 (1387)A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain2- a dangerous proximity to the ground3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around4- an abnormal flight attitude5- an abnormal landing configuration6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.c) 1,2 and 4.d) 3, 4, 5 and 6.

22.3.3.0 (1388)The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)4- NAV/VOR5- Flap (position)6- Angle of Attack7- Landing Gear (position)The combination of correct statement is:a) 1,2,3,5,7b) 2,3,4,5,7c) 1,2,5,6,7d) 1,2,5,6,7

22.3.4.0 (1389)The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects a ""traffic"" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a :a) serviceable SSR transponderb) serviceable weather radarc) SELCAL systemd) DME system

22.3.4.0 (1390)A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:a) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.b) a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.c) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.d) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.

22.3.4.0 (1391)Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) :a) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponderb) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""TOO LOW TERRAIN"" is generatedc) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""PULL UP"" is generatedd) Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC

22.3.4.0 (1392)The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions :a) only in the vertical planeb) only in the horizontal planec) in horizontal and vertical planesd) based on speed control

22.3.4.0 (1393)In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give information such as :

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a) climb/descentb) turn left/turn rightc) too low terraind) glide slope

22.3.4.0 (1394)The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of :a) transponders fitted in the aircraftb) airborne weather radar systemc) F.M.S. (Flight Management System)d) air traffic control radar systems

22.3.4.0 (1395)The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1b) 1, 2c) 1, 2, 3d) 1, 2, 3, 4

22.3.4.0 (1396)The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3b) 1, 2c) 1, 2, 3d) 1, 2, 3, 4

22.3.4.0 (1397)The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information :1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder2- from the radio-altimeter3- specific to the airplane configuration4- from the inertial unitsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2, 4d) 1, 2

22.3.4.0 (1398)When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :a) ""traffic advisory"" only.b) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".c) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

22.3.4.0 (1399)When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a :a) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".b) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".c) ""traffic advisory"" only.d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

22.3.4.0 (1400)On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"":a) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.b) which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate.c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

22.3.4.0 (1401)On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"":a) that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate.b) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

22.3.4.0 (1402)An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :a) a yellow full circle.b) a blue or white empty lozenge.c) a blue or white full lozenge.d) a red full square.

22.3.4.0 (1403)A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a :a) red full square.b) blue or white full lozenge.c) blue or white empty lozenge.d) red full circle.

22.3.4.0 (1404)A ""close traffic advisory"" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by :a) a blue or white empty lozenge.b) an orange full circle.c) a blue or white full lozenge.d) a red full square.

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22.3.4.0 (1405)The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:1- a specific dedicated screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA)4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screenThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.b) 1, 2 and 3.c) 3 and 4.d) 1 and 3.

22.3.6.0 (1406)The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations :1- mass of the airplane2- angle of attack3- wing flap deflection4- position of the landing gear5- total air temperature6- pressure altitudeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2, 3b) 2, 3, 5c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

22.3.6.0 (1407)In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet.The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. The required margin related to the stall speed is:a) 7%b) 5%c) 10%d) 3%

22.3.6.0 (1408)The stall warning system receives information about the :1- airplane angle of attack2- airplane speed3- airplane bank angle4- airplane configuration5- load factor on the airplaneThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 4b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 3, 4, 5d) 1, 3, 5

22.3.6.0 (1409)A stall warning system is based on a measure of :a) aerodynamic incidence.b) airspeed.c) attitude.d) groundspeed.

22.3.6.0 (1410)The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are :1- Mach Meter indication2- Angle of Attack3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2,4

b) 2,3c) 1,4d) 1,2

22.3.6.0 (1411)The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane receives information about the: 1- angle of attack2- engine R.P.M.3- configuration4- pitch and bank attitude5- sideslipThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 3.b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.c) 1 and 5.d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

22.3.6.0 (1412)The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying with:1- the angular position of a wind vane2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and the path calculated by the inertial unit3- a probe differential pressure depending on the variation of the angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 3.b) 1, 2 and 3.c) 1.d) 2 and 3.

22.3.6.0 (1413)The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating:1- the angular position of a wind vane2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle of attack3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the speedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2.b) 1, 2, 3.c) 2, 3.d) 1, 3.

22.3.6.0 (1414)The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form of:a) control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting.b) an orange light on the warning display.c) a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated buffeting.d) a bell type warning.

22.3.6.0 (1415)The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:1- an angle of attack sensor 2- a computer3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer4- an independent pitot probe5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 5.b) 1, 2, 4.

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c) 1, 4.d) 1, 2, 4, 5.

22.3.7.0 (1416)Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be recorded during at least:a) 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.b) 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.c) 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.d) 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns

22.3.7.0 (1417)The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:a) before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.b) when taking-off.c) when the landing gear is retracted.d) when lining up.

22.3.7.0 (1418)The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the:a) airplane cannot any longer move by its own power.b) main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.c) landing gear is extended and locked.d) airplane clears the runway.

22.3.7.0 (1419)In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is to be located in the aircraft :a) as far to the rear as practicableb) as far forward as practicablec) as near to the landing gear as practicabled) at the right or left wing tip

22.3.7.0 (1420)Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last :a) 25 hours.b) 10 hours.c) 30 minutes.d) 60 minutes.

22.3.8.0 (1421)The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:1. a microphone2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards3. an independent battery4. a flight data recorderThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2b) 1, 4c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 2, 4

22.3.8.0 (1422)The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the last :a) 30 minutes of operationb) 25 hours of operationc) flightd) 48 hours of operation

22.3.8.0 (1423)According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998 will record:1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or received by the cockpit crew2- the audio environment of the cockpit3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via the interphone4- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the interphone5- the flight crew members communications in the cockpit via the public address system6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or approach aidsThe combination regrouping the correct statements is:a) 1,2,4,5,6b) 1,2,3,4,5,6c) 1d) 1,3,4,5

22.3.8.0 (1424)According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an airworthiness certificate after 1st April 1998, shall start recording :a) Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move under its own power.b) Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment when the wheels touch the ground again.c) From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio shutdown after the flight.d) When the pilot selects the ""CVR: ON"" during engine start until the pilot selects the ""CVR: OFF"" during the engine shut down.

22.3.8.0 (1425)A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew2. the conversations between the crew members and voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio3. the announcements made via the public address even if it has not been selected4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit5. the captain conversations onlyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2, 4b) 3, 4c) 1, 2d) 1, 5

22.3.8.0 (1426)The voice recorder records on four different channels the following information:1- aural warnings2- radio communications3- conversations between the crew members through the cockpit interphone4- announcements to the passengersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

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a) 1, 2, 3, 4.b) 1, 3.c) 1, 4.d) 1, 2, 3.

22.4.1.0 (1427)The ""Bourdon tube"" is used to measure :a) pressure.b) temperature.c) quantity.d) a flow rate.

22.4.1.0 (1428)If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably,a) leak in pressure gauge line.b) too high float level.c) fuel of too low volatility.d) ice in induction system.

22.4.1.0 (1429)A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures :a) absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.b) absolute airpressure entering the carburettor.c) fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.d) vacuum in the carburettor.

22.4.1.0 (1430)Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or high)Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable :1- bellows type2- Bourdon tube type3- aneroid capsule typea) 3,1,2b) 1,2,3c) 3,2,1d) 2,1,3

22.4.1.0 (1431)Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the :a) manifold pressure gauge.b) oil pressure gauge.c) fuel pressure gauge.d) oil thermometer.

22.4.1.0 (1432)The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is:a) an aneroid capsule.b) a bellows sensor.c) a Bourdon tube.d) a differential capsule.

22.4.1.0 (1433)The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined powerplant is:a) an aneroid capsule.b) a differential capsule.c) a Bourdon tube.d) a bellows sensor.

22.4.1.0 (1434)A ""Bourdon Tube"" is used in:a) pressure sensorsb) vibration detectorsc) smoke detectorsd) turbine temperature probes

22.4.2.0 (1435)The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to:a) an exceptional operating range.b) a normal operating range.c) a frequent operating range.d) a forbidden operating range.

22.4.2.0 (1436)The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to:a) a special operating range.b) a normal operating range.c) an exceptional operating range.d) a forbidden operating range.

22.4.2.0 (1437)The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are:a) thermocouples.b) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.c) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.d) capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with temperature.

22.4.2.0 (1438)The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the :a) high pressure turbine outlet.b) combustion chamber outlet.c) combustion chamber intake.d) high pressure chamber intake.

22.4.2.0 (1439)Given :M is the Mach numberTs is the static temperatureTt is the total temperaturea) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)b) Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)c) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)d) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)

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22.4.2.0 (1440)A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:a) two metal conductors of different type connected at one point.b) two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.c) a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.d) a single-wire metal winding.

22.4.2.0 (1441)The total air temperature (TAT) is always :a) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).b) higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).c) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.d) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.

22.4.2.0 (1442)The static air temperature (SAT) is :a) an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsiusb) a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvinc) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsiusd) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin

22.4.2.0 (1443)In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a :a) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.b) wheatstone bridge circuit.c) ratiometer circuit.d) bourdon tube.

22.4.2.0 (1444)To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle:a) thermocoupleb) bi-metallic stripc) liquid expansiond) gas pressure

22.4.2.0 (1445)The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the :a) temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine block.b) average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.c) temperature of the exhaust gases.d) temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the outside air temperature is between -5°C and 10°C.

22.4.2.0 (1446)A thermocouple can be made of:a) two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points.

b) two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.c) a three wire coil.d) a single wire coil.

22.4.2.0 (1447)The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static temperature.b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total temperature.c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static temperature.d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total temperature.

22.4.2.0 (1448)In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with :1- resistance thermometers2- thermocouple thermometers3- reactance thermometers4- capacitance thermometers5- mercury thermometersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2b) 1, 3, 4, 5c) 1, 2, 5d) 2, 3

22.4.2.0 (1449)The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it:a) carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage.b) is simple.c) can operate without an electrical power supply.d) is very accurate.

22.4.2.0 (1450)A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the ""hot junction"" and the ""cold junction"" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of the:a) cold junction is maintained constant.b) hot junction is maintained constant.c) cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.d) hot junction is maintained at 15 °C.

22.4.2.0 (1451)The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that:a) contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different metals.b) these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocouple.c) these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold source.d) these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source.

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22.4.3.0 (1452)A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:a) set several engines to the same speed.b) reduce the vibration of each engine.c) reduce the rpm of each engine.d) achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.

22.4.3.0 (1453)The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators:a) moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the maximum value that has been reached.b) shows the limit value not to be exceeded.c) allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-off.d) shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.

22.4.3.0 (1454)In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator :1- the transmitter is a direct current generator2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometerThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 3, 5b) 1, 2c) 2, 5d) 1, 4

22.4.3.0 (1455)The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the :a) necessity of providing a power supply source.b) generation of spurious signals at the commutator.c) influence of temperature on the indication.d) high influence of line resistance on the indication.

22.4.3.0 (1456)The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is :a) a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometerb) a DC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scalec) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then countedd) an AC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter

22.4.3.0 (1457)The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is :a) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted

b) a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM, the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometerc) a DC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scaled) an AC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter

22.4.3.0 (1458)The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc)In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the :a) propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbiddenb) rating is the maximum possible in continuous modec) rating is the minimum usable in cruised) propeller efficency is minimum at this rating

22.4.3.0 (1459)The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of :1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltageThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,2,3,4b) 2,3,4c) 1,4d) 1,2,3

22.4.3.0 (1460)On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator enables :a) control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM.b) control of power.c) selection of engine RPM.d) on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation.

22.4.3.0 (1461)The operating principle of an ""electronic"" tachometer is to measure the:a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

22.4.3.0 (1462)The operating principle of the ""induction"" type of tachometer is to measure the:a) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.c) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

22.4.3.0 (1463)The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power

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supply3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitterThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 4.b) 1, 3, 4.c) 1, 2, 3, 4.d) 2, 3, 4.

22.4.3.0 (1464)The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:a) a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.b) a circular magnet with four poles.c) the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.d) the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.

22.4.3.0 (1465)The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:1- easy transmission of the information.2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power supply.3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2.b) 1, 2, 3.c) 2, 3.d) 1, 3.

22.4.3.0 (1466)The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance of line resistance on the information value3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical power supply4- the ease of transmission of the informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3.b) 1, 2, 3, 4.c) 2, 3, 4.d) 2, 4.

22.4.3.0 (1467)The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance of line resistance on the information value3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2.b) 1, 2, 3.c) 1, 2.d) 1, 3.

22.4.4.0 (1468)The operating principle of Flowmeters, or ""unit flow meters,"" the most commonly used at the present time, is to measure across their system the :a) quantity of fuel movementb) pressure and temperature of the fuel

c) volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fueld) volume and viscosity of the fuel

22.4.4.0 (1469)A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially measures:a) volumetric flow by a tally of the impulsesb) mass flow by a tally of the impulsesc) volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speedd) mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed

22.4.4.0 (1470)When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel :a) density.b) temperature.c) pressure.d) dielectrical constant.

22.4.5.0 (1471)The float type fuel gauges provide information on:a) volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.b) volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.c) mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.d) mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.

22.4.5.0 (1472)The capacity fuel gauges provide information:a) on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.b) on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.c) which is independent of the temperature of the fuel.d) which varies with the temperature of the fuel.

22.4.5.0 (1473)The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:a) capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric.b) current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.c) capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor.d) flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.

22.4.5.0 (1474)The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle of these sensors is to measure the :a) charge of condensorsb) di-electric resistivity of the fuelc) height of the fueld) volume of the fuel

22.4.5.0 (1475)The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :1- aircraft attitude2-

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accelerations3- atmospheric pressure4- temperatureThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,2,4b) 1,2,3,4c) 4d) 1,2

22.4.5.0 (1476)The principle of capacitor gauges is based on:a) the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the dielectricb) the current variation in a Wheastone bridgec) the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement exercised on the sensord) the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line

22.4.5.0 (1477)The advantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- easy construction2- independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude3- independence of indications with regard to the accelerations 4- independence of indications with regard to temperature variations5- independence of indications with regard to vibrationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 3, 4, 5d) 2, 3, 4

22.4.5.0 (1478)The disavantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- the design is complex2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations 4- the indications are influenced by temperature variations5- that an alternative current supply is necessaryThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 2, 3, 4b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 2, 3, 4, 5d) 1

22.4.5.0 (1479)In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel quantity is measured by ""capacitor"" gauges because these give :1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature variations2- indications almost independent of the airplane's attitude and accelerations3- indications expressed in densityThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2b) 1, 2, 3c) 2d) 1, 3

22.4.5.0 (1480)The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a transport airplane equipped with ""capacitor"" gauges is that the:a) capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is

immersed.b) internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.c) capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its plates.d) electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.

22.4.5.0 (1481)If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate:a) a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.b) the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.c) a mass equal to zero.d) a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.

22.4.5.0 (1482)The advantages of an electric float gauge are:1- ease of manufacture2- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a ratiometer3- independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the measurement is made by a galvanometer4- independence of the indication relative to temperature variationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 4b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 3, 4d) 2, 3, 4

22.4.5.0 (1483)The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:a) twice that of air and varies directly with density.b) the same as that of air and varies directly with density.c) twice that of air and varies inversely with density.d) the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.

22.4.6.0 (1484)Torque can be determined by measuring the :a) oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearbox.b) phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft.c) frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.d) quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft.

22.4.8.0 (1485)The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of:a) 2 accelerometers.b) 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.c) 2 high and low frequency filters.d) a frequency converter.

22.4.8.0 (1486)In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by

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the engine is :a) amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator.b) inversely proportional to engine speed.c) directly proportional to engine speed.d) fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering.

22.4.8.0 (1487)A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the :a) vibration amplitude at a given frequencyb) acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in gc) vibration frequency expressed in Hzd) vibration period expressed in seconds

22.4.10.0 (1488)In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management system:1- releases an aural warning2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the overhead panel3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display4- processes the failure automaticallyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3.b) 1, 3, 4.c) 3, 4.d) 1, 2.

31.1.1.1 (1489)The centre of gravity of a body is that pointa) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.b) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero.c) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.d) which is always used as datum when computing moments.

31.1.1.1 (1490)The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a directiona) parallel to the gravity vector.b) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.c) at right angles to the flight path.d) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.

31.1.1.1 (1491)When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act verticallya) through its centre of gravity.b) through its centre of pressure.c) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.d) through a point defined as the datum point.

31.1.1.1 (1492)The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to acta) vertically through the centre of gravity.b) vertically through the centre of pressure.c) vertically through the datum point.d) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane.

31.1.1.1 (1493)The centre of gravity of an aeroplanea) can be allowed to move between defined limits.b) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's certificate of airworthiness.c) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.d) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.

31.1.1.1 (1494)The centre of gravity is thea) point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentratedb) centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum linec) focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum lined) neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line

31.1.1.2 (1495)What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?a) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.d) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.

31.1.1.2 (1496)When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be :a) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.b) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.c) extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.d) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

31.1.1.2 (1497)If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will :a) become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitchb) become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch.c) become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.d) become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.

31.1.1.2 (1498)An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in :a) an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane momentb) a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.c) an increase in longitudinal stability.d) a reduction in power required for a given speed.

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31.1.1.2 (1499)During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :a) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.b) the aeroplane is overloaded.c) the centre of gravity is too far forward.d) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.

31.1.1.2 (1500)If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:a) require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.b) benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.c) require less power for a given airspeed.d) tend to over rotate during take-off.

31.1.1.2 (1501)An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:a) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.b) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.c) be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.d) cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.

31.1.2.0 (1502)The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:a) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.b) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.c) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.d) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.

31.1.2.0 (1503)With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?a) A decrease in range.b) A decrease in the landing speed.c) A decrease of the stalling speed.d) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

31.1.2.1 (1504)(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:a) Forward limit 7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MACb) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 27.2% MACc) Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MACd) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC

31.1.2.1 (1505)At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum.a) 645.78 inches aft of datum

b) 20.18 inches aft of datumc) 605.43 inches aft of datumd) 228.34 inches aft of datum

31.1.2.1 (1506)(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:a) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.5% MACb) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 26.2% MACc) Forward limit 9.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MACd) Forward limit 8.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC

31.1.2.1 (1507)(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is :a) Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MACb) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MACc) Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MACd) Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC

31.1.2.1 (1508)(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:a) forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MACb) forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.c) forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.d) forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC

31.1.2.2 (1509)The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor?a) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m.b) A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.c) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m.d) A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.

31.1.2.2 (1510)(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is :a) 68 kg per square foot.b) 150 kg per square foot.c) 68 Lbs per square foot.d) 68 kg per square metre.

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31.1.2.2 (1511)(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a maximum total load of :a) 4187 kgb) 9232 kgc) 1568 kgd) 3062 kg

31.1.2.2 (1512)(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at :a) 835.5 inches is 3062 kg.b) 835.5 inches is 6752 kg.c) 421.5 inches is 4541 kg.d) 421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs.

31.1.2.2 (1513)(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:a) 13.12 kg per inch.b) 13.15 kg per inch.c) 14.65 kg per inch.d) 7.18 kg per inch.

31.1.2.2 (1514)(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is:a) 68 kg per square foot.b) 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment.c) 150 kg per square foot.d) 7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment.

31.1.2.2 (1515)The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that can be used ?a) 40 cm by 200 cmb) 30 cm by 300 cmc) 30 cm by 200 cmd) 40 cm by 300 cm

31.1.2.2 (1516)The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm?

a) 416.0 kgb) 1015.6 kgc) 41.6 kgd) 101.6 kg

31.1.2.2 (1517)(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm. Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo compartement.a) 285.5 kg may be added.b) 28.5 kg must be off loaded.c) 28.5 kg may be added.d) 158.3 kg must be off loaded.

31.1.2.2 (1518)The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2.It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side.It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s2)a) 80 kgb) 800 kgc) 32 kgd) 320 kg

31.1.2.2 (1519)The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2.It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m.Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:(assume g=10m/s2)a) 100 kgb) 1 000 kgc) 500 kgd) 5 000 kg

31.1.2.3 (1520)The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is :a) a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.b) a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude. Corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.c) a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.d) a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated from data given in the Flight Manual.

31.1.2.3 (1521)The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is :a) maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.b) maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.

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c) maximum certificated take - off mass.d) maximum regulated take - off mass.

31.1.2.3 (1522)The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by :a) structural considerations.b) tyre speed and temperature limitations.c) bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.d) taxi distance to take - off point.

31.1.2.4 (1523)Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by:a) Maximum zero fuel mass.b) Maximum landing mass.c) Maximum take-off mass.d) Actual landing mass.

31.1.2.4 (1524)Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:a) The maximum take-off mass.b) The maximum zero fuel mass.c) The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.d) The maximum landing mass.

31.1.2.4 (1525)The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:a) strength of the wing rootb) strength of the fuselagec) allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tankingd) total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing

31.1.2.4 (1526)Which of the following statements is correct?a) The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.b) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.c) The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.d) The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the crew.

31.1.2.4 (1527)The maximum certificated take - off mass is :a) a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.b) a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.c) a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .d) limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

31.1.2.4 (1528)For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than unusable quantities, is :a) a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual.b) a variable value which is governed by the payload carried.c) a variable value which may limit the payload carried.d) a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.

31.1.2.4 (1529)An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ?a) altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.b) maximum zero fuel mass.c) maximum certificated take - off mass.d) en route obstacle clearance requirements.

31.1.2.4 (1530)Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off mass limitations:Flaps : 0° 10° 15°Runway: 4100 4400 4600Climb: 4700 4500 4200Masses are in kgStructural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kgThe maximum take-off mass is :a) 4 300 kgb) 4 100 kgc) 4 200 kgd) 4 700 kg

31.1.2.5 (1531)Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will causea) increased cruise range.b) higher stall speed.c) lower optimum cruising speed.d) reduced maximum cruise range.

31.1.2.5 (1532)If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane?a) It will cause the cg to move aft.b) It will not affect the cg location.c) It will cause the cg to move forward.d) The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.

31.1.2.5 (1533)Which of the following statements is correct?a) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplaneb) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forcesc) If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the

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aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forcesd) The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity

31.1.2.5 (1534)Which of the following statements is correct?a) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplaneb) The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MACc) The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage and the wing tipd) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal stability increases.

31.1.2.5 (1535)Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane?a) Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions.b) Location of the undercarriage.c) The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.d) The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.

31.1.2.5 (1536)In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity:a) brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor headb) moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor headc) brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and decreases the stress in the rotor headd) moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and decreases the stresses in the head rotors

31.1.2.5 (1537)In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:a) decrease longitudinal static stabilityb) increase longitudinal static stabilityc) does not influence longitudinal static stabilityd) not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

31.1.2.5 (1538)The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension:a) creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the type of landing gearb) creates a pitch-up longitudinal momentc) does not create a longitudinal momentd) creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment

31.2.1.0 (1539)At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available

for determining the mass of the aircraft:1- Dry operating mass2- Operating massWhich statement is correct:a) The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.b) The operating mass is the mass of the aeroplane without take-off fuel.c) The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel.d) The operating mass includes the traffic load.

31.2.1.0 (1540)The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes :a) Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals.b) Unusable fuel and reserve fuel.c) Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo.d) Passengers baggage and cargo.

31.2.1.1 (1541)While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term 'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plusa) unusable fuel and full operating fluids.b) all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load.c) all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment installed by manufacturer.d) all the oil and fuel.

31.2.1.1 (1542)Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?a) It is a component of dry operating mass.b) It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.c) It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.d) It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.

31.2.1.1 (1543)In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aeroplane configuration. Its value isa) found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for modifications.b) inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered in the loading manifest.c) found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in closed systems.d) printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.

31.2.1.1 (1544)An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made:nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, isa) 30180 kg

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b) 28400 kgc) 31960 kgd) 32505 kg

31.2.1.1 (1545)The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded ina) the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the aeroplane.b) the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aeroplane must be re-weighed always.c) the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'.d) the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'.

31.2.1.1 (1546)When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:a) standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel massb) empty mass dry plus variable equipment massc) basic mass plus variable equipment massd) basic mass plus special equipment mass

31.2.1.1 (1547)The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without crew, :a) without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, with the unusable fuel and standard equipment.b) without payload, with specific equipment for the mission, without the unusable fuel.c) without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, wthout unusable fuel.d) without specific equipments for the mission, without payload, with fuel on board.

31.2.1.2 (1548)In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excludinga) usable fuel and traffic load.b) usable fuel and crew.c) potable water and lavatory chemicals.d) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

31.2.1.2 (1549)The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass isa) 42000 kgb) 56200 kgc) 41455 kgd) 42545 kg

31.2.1.2 (1550)For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as:a) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding

all usable fuel and traffic load.b) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.c) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load.d) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage.

31.2.1.2 (1551)Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane lessa) usable fuel and traffic load.b) usable fuel.c) traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.d) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

31.2.1.2 (1552)The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage, plus catering and removable passenger equipment, plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as:a) Dry Operating Mass.b) Zero Fuel Mass.c) Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass.d) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass

31.2.1.2 (1553)The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items are :- catering: 300 kg- safety and rescue material: nil- fly away kit: nil- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg- unusable fuel: 120 kg- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kgThe Dry Operating Mass is :a) 30 785 kgb) 30 300 kgc) 38 300 kgd) 30 665 kg

31.2.1.2 (1554)The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a helicopter :a) ready for a specific operation including the crew and traffic load, not including the usable fuelb) excluding the crew but including specific equipments for the mission and not including the usable fuelc) including the crew,the fuel and the specific equipments for the mission but excluding payloadd) including the crew, the usable fuel and the specific equipments for the mission and payload

31.2.1.2 (1555)By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:a) Dry operating massb) take-off massc) zero fuel massd) landing mass

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31.2.1.3 (1556)The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always:a) The take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.b) The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass.c) The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass.d) The maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.

31.2.1.3 (1557)The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of :a) The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.b) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.c) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational itemsd) The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load

31.2.1.3 (1558)The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:a) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.b) Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.c) Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.d) Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.

31.2.1.3 (1559)The maximum zero-fuel mass:1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first5- imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first6- can be increased by stiffening the wingThe combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 3, 5b) 2, 5, 6c) 4, 2, 6d) 1, 2, 3

31.2.1.3 (1560)Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass?a) The mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.b) Operating mass plus load of passengers and cargo.c) Operating mass plus passengers and cargo.d) Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate.

31.2.1.3 (1561)On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to:a) The bending moment at the wing root.b) Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass.c) Wing loaded trip fuel.d) Variable equipment for the flight.

31.2.1.3 (1562)The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on

board. It is a limitation which is:a) listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.b) governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of the aeroplane.c) tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature.d) governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive 'wing bending'.

31.2.1.3 (1563)The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Massa) differ by the value of the traffic load mass.b) are the same value.c) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.d) differ by the mass of usable fuel.

31.2.1.3 (1564)The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plusa) traffic load and unuseable fuel.b) traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.c) unuseable and crew standard mass.d) traffic load and crew standard mass.

31.2.1.3 (1565)The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:a) 79000 kgb) 78000 kgc) 93000 kgd) 65200 kg.

31.2.1.4 (1566)Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may be determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number ofa) passenger seats available is less than 6.b) passengers carried is less than 6.c) passenger seats available is less than 20.d) passengers carried is less than 20.

31.2.1.4 (1567)'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child asa) 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.b) 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.c) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.d) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.

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31.2.1.4 (1568)On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult isa) 84 kgb) 76 kgc) 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).d) 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).

31.2.1.4 (1569)The standard mass for a child isa) 35 kg for all flights.b) 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.c) 38 kg for all flights.d) 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.

31.2.1.4 (1570)On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage isa) 15 kg per passenger.b) 13 kg per passenger.c) 14 kg per passenger.d) 11 kg per passenger.

31.2.1.4 (1571)In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values area) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.b) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance.c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.d) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage.

31.2.1.4 (1572)The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is given as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded isa) 11364 kg.b) 14383 kg.c) 18206 kg.d) 13647 kg.

31.2.1.4 (1573)Conversion of fuel volume to massa) may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Manual, if the actual fuel density is not known.b) may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1.c) must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.

d) must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E.

31.2.1.4 (1574)Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplanea) has 20 or more seats.b) has 6 or more seats.c) has 30 or more seats.d) is carrying 30 or more passengers.

31.2.1.4 (1575)The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass.a) the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the standard masssb) the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without correctionc) the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the load calculationd) the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger

31.2.1.4 (1576)(For this question use annex 031-12272A)For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an allowance for hand baggage)Male 88 kgFemale 70 kgChild 35 kgInfant 6 kgThe standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per pieceThe loading manifest shows the following details :Passengers loaded Males 40Females 65Children 8 Infants 5Baggage in hold number 4: 120 piecesUsing the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which constitutes the remainder of the traffic loada) 260 kgb) 210 kgc) 280 kgd) no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1

31.2.1.5 (1577)The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:a) Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic loadb) Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic loadc) Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fueld) Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel

31.2.1.5 (1578)Traffic load is the:a) Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass.b) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load.

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c) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.d) Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.

31.2.1.5 (1579)The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includesa) traffic load plus useable fuel.b) traffic load only.c) the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.d) the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.

31.2.1.5 (1580)An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load isa) 29280 kg.b) 17080 kgc) 12200 kg.d) 10080 kg.

31.2.1.5 (1581)(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4)For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel density value 0.78)a) 11349 litresb) 8850 litresc) 11646 litresd) 5674 litres

31.2.1.5 (1582)An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane?a) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg.b) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg.c) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.d) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg.

31.2.1.5 (1583)The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load isa) 68400 kgb) 70700 kgc) 29600 kgd) 26900 kg.

31.2.1.5 (1584)The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg Crew baggage in hold 110 kgFuel on board 60700 kgFrom this data calculate the mass of the useful load.a) 78900 kgb) 78150 kgc) 18200 kgd) 17450 kg

31.2.1.5 (1585)The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg.The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is:a) 1 000 kgb) 950 kgc) 1 500 kgd) 1 450 kg

31.2.1.5 (1586)Allowed traffic load is the difference between :a) allowed take off mass and operating massb) allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuelc) allowed take off mass and basic massd) operating mass and basic mass

31.2.1.5 (1587)(For this question use annex 031 11634A)Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kgDry operating mass: 21 600 kgTake-off fuel: 8 500 kgPassengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5Baggages: 880 kgThe company uses the standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by regulations. The flight is not a holiday charter.In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded isa) 585 kgb) 901 kgc) 1 098 kgd) 1 105 kg

31.2.1.5 (1588)The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Block fuel: 40 000 kg- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kgThe maximum traffic load for this flight is:a) 32 100 kgb) 32 900 kgc) 18 900 kgd) 40 400 kg

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31.2.1.5 (1589)The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kgThe traffic load available for this flight is:a) 25 800 kgb) 25 000 kgc) 55 000 kgd) 55 800 kg

31.2.1.5 (1590)An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The payload available is :a) 1 600 kgb) 1 550 kgc) 2 200 kgd) 2 150 kg

31.2.2.0 (1591)The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?a) 53 000 kgb) 64 000 kgc) 71 000 kgd) 99 000 kg

31.2.2.1 (1592)When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aeroplane, which of the following is not required?a) drain all engine tank oil.b) drain all useable fuel.c) drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.d) removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.

31.2.2.1 (1593)An aeroplane may be weigheda) in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar.b) in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.c) in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.d) at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.

31.2.2.2 (1594)An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval isa) 9 years for each aeroplane.b) 4 years for each aeroplane.c) whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.d) whenever a major modification is carried out.

31.2.2.2 (1595)If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereaftera) at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.b) at regular annual intervals.c) only if major modifications have taken place.d) at intervals of 9 years.

31.2.3.1 (1596)An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ?a) The Operator.b) The appropriate Aviation Authority.c) The aeroplane manufacturer or supplier.d) The commander of the aeroplane.

31.2.3.1 (1597)The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies witha) the operator.b) the commander.c) the authority of the state of registration.d) the person compiling the weighing schedule.

31.2.3.3 (1598)(For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield limited. The following data applies:Dry Operating Mass 34930 kgPerformance limited landing mass 55000 kgFuel on board at ramp-Taxi fuel 350 kgTrip fuel 9730 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kgAlternate fuel 1600 kgPassengers on board 130Standard mass for each passenger 84 kgBaggage per passenger 14 kgTraffic load Maximum possibleUse the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass.a) 4530 kg.b) 5400 kgc) 6350 kg.d) 3185 kg.

31.2.3.3 (1599)The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:a) 18400 kgb) 20700 kgc) 23000 kgd) 19460 kg.

31.2.3.3 (1600)(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure

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4.14)The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -Dry Operational mass 60520 kgPerformance limited take-off mass 92750 kgPerformance limited landing mass 72250 kgMaximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kgFuel on board at take-off -Trip fuel 12500 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kgAlternate fuel 1700 kgUsing this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried.a) 7010 kgb) 7730 kgc) 11730 kgd) 15730 kg

31.2.3.3 (1601)(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kgPerformance limited take-off mass 127000 kgPerformance limited landing mass 98500 kgMaximum zero fuel mass 89800 kgFuel requirements for flight -Trip fuel 29300 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kgAlternate fuel 2800 kg.The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is:a) 4800 kgb) 7100 kgc) 6300 kgd) 12700 kg

31.2.3.4 (1602)For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plusa) Take-off Fuel Mass.b) Ramp Fuel Mass.c) Trip Fuel Mass.d) Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.

31.2.3.4 (1603)The following data applies to a planned flight.Dry Operating Mass 34900 kgPerformance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kgPerformance limited Landing Mass 55200 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kgFuel required at ramp:-Taxy fuel 400 kgtrip fuel 8600 kgcontingency fuel 430 kgalternate fuel 970 kgholding fuel 900 kgTraffic load 16600 kgFuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure is :a) 12700 kgb) 13230 kgc) 15200 kgd) 10730 kg

31.2.3.4 (1604)Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data - Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kgPerformance limited landing mass 54200 kgDry Operating Mass 34930 kgTaxi fuel 250 kgTrip fuel 9250 kgContingency and holding fuel 850 kgAlternate fuel 700 kgThe maximum permissible traffic load isa) 13090 kg.

b) 16470 kgc) 18040 kgd) 12840 kg

31.2.3.4 (1605)(For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 3.1)The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the maximum possible fuel load. Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at start of take off.Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kgLanding airfield -not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kgFuel required for flight - Taxi fuel: 715 kg Trip fuel: 8600 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg Alternate fuel 1500 kg Additional reserve 400 kgTraffic load for flight 11000 kga) 14 470 kgb) 15 815 kgc) 13 655 kgd) 16 080 kg

31.2.3.4 (1606)An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will bea) 141100 kgb) 19650 kgc) 121450 kgd) 39105 kg

31.2.3.5 (1607)Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kgMaximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kgMaximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kgThe maximum take-off mass is equal to:a) 120 900 kgb) 121 300 kgc) 113 900 kgd) 120 300 kg

31.2.3.5 (1608)Given:Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kgMaximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kgMaximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kgMaximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kgTrip fuel= 4 000 kgFuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kgThe maximum traffic load is:a) 12 900 kgb) 13 300 kgc) 9 300 kgd) 14 600 kg

31.2.3.5 (1609)Given the following :- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg-Taxi fuel: 600 kg-Contingency fuel: 900 kg-Alternate fuel: 800 kg-Final reserve fuel: 1 100

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kg-Trip fuel: 9 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:a) 47 800 kgb) 48 000 kgc) 48 400 kgd) 53 000 kg

31.2.3.5 (1610)Given that:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg- Trip fuel: 27 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:a) 120 300 kg.b) 146 000 kg.c) 120 900 kg.d) 121 300 kg.

31.2.3.5 (1611)Given are:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 900 kg- Alternate fuel: 700 kg- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:a) 69 600 kgb) 74 000 kgc) 72 000 kgd) 70 400 kg

31.2.3.5 (1612)(For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.Ina) 401 338b) 432 221c) 433 906d) 377 746

31.2.3.5 (1613)With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is always correct ?LM = Landing MassTOM = Take-off MassMTOM = Maximum Take-off MassZFM = Zero Fuel MassMZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel MassDOM = Dry Operating Massa) LM = TOM - Trip Fuelb) MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel massc) MZFM = Traffic load + DOMd) Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel

31.2.3.5 (1614)Given an aeroplane with:Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kgMaximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kgDry Operating Mass : 48000 kgScheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:a) 75000 kg and 17200 kgb) 75000 kg and 20000 kgc) 77200 kg and 19400 kgd) 77200 kg and 22200 kg

31.2.3.5 (1615)Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kgDry Operating Mass: 82000 kgScheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg.Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:a) 130500 kg and 26500 kgb) 130500 kg and 31500 kgc) 125500 kg and 21500 kgd) 125500 kg and 26500 kg

31.2.3.5 (1616)For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Massa) less the Operating Mass.b) plus the Operating Mass.c) plus the Trip Fuel Mass.d) less the Trip Fuel Mass.

31.2.3.5 (1617)A jet transport has the following structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kgThe aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements:-Taxi fuel: 400 kg-Trip fuel: 8400 kg-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg-Alternate fuel: 1100 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited.a) 16 370 kgb) 16 430 kgc) 17 070 kgd) 16 570 kg

31.2.3.5 (1618)A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l.The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgThe performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg.The landing mass at London is not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kgTaxi fuel: 250

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kgThe maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:a) 14 331 kgb) 13 240 kgc) 16 770 kgd) 9 830 kg

31.2.3.5 (1619)An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg. Certificated maximum masses are as follows:Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kgMaximum Take-off mass 89430 kgMaximumLanding mass 71520 kgActual Zero fuel mass 62050 kgFuel on board at ramp:Taxi fuel 600 kgTrip fuel 17830 kgContingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight isa) 21080 kgb) 21500 kgc) 21220 kgd) 20870 kg

31.2.3.5 (1620)A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgThe performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg.Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kgTrip Fuel: 6 200 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 100 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:a) 17 840 kgb) 18 170 kgc) 13 950 kgd) 25 800 kg

31.2.3.5 (1621)A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:a) 17 810 kgb) 21 170 kgc) 21 070 kgd) 20 420 kg

31.2.3.5 (1622)A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kgTrip Fuel: 11 800 kgTaxi Fuel: 500 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 900 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:a) 17 840 kgb) 19 100 kg

c) 19 200 kgd) 19 500 kg

31.2.3.5 (1623)(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows - Taxi fuel 350 kgTrip fuel 9250 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kgAlternate fuel 1000 kgTraffic load 18600 kgCheck the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate answer.a) The flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg.b) The flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.c) The flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load.d) The flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.

31.2.3.5 (1624)The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kgKnowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is:a) 54 000 kgb) 55 000 kgc) 55 500 kgd) 61 500 kg

31.2.3.5 (1625)To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:a) Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.b) Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take-off.c) Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.d) Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.

31.2.3.5 (1626)Given:Dry operating mass = 38 000 kgmaximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kgmaximum landing mass = 65 000 kgmaximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kgFuel burn = 8 000 kgTake-off Fuel = 10 300 kgThe maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are respectively :a) 71 300 kg and 23 000 kgb) 71 300 kg and 25 300 kgc) 73 000 kg and 24 700 kgd) 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg

31.2.3.5 (1627)(For this question use annex 031-12273A)From the data contained in the attached

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appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively :a) 61600 kg and 12150 kgb) 68038 kg and 18588 kgc) 66770 kg and 17320 kgd) 60425 kg and 10975 kg

31.2.3.5 (1628)(For this question use annex 031-12274A)An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kgComplete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic loada) 1830 kgb) 7000 kgc) 8268 kgd) 655 kg

31.2.4.1 (1629)Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane isa) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too highb) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too lowc) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too highd) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.

31.2.4.1 (1630)An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speedsa) will give reduced safety margins.b) will not be achieved.c) will be greater than required.d) are unaffected but V1 will be increased.

31.2.4.1 (1631)Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice thata) speed at un-stick will be higher than expectedb) V1 will be reached sooner than expectedc) V1 will be increased.d) the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected.

31.2.4.1 (1632)When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?a) Stalling speeds will be higher.b) Stalling speeds will be lower.c) Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.d) Flight endurance will be increased.

31.2.4.2 (1633)A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned anda) the landing distance required will be longer.b) the landing distance will be unaffected.c) the approach path will be steeper.d) the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.

31.2.4.4 (1634)If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack willa) be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.b) be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.c) remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.d) remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.

31.2.4.4 (1635)In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will bea) increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease.b) unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.c) increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.d) increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will remain the same.

31.2.4.6 (1636)The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest:Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kgExpected landing mass at destination 81700 kgMaximum certificated landing mass 86300 kgFuel on board 16500 kgDuring the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing massa) is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could resultb) is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in overrunning the runwayc) must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.d) is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal scheduled landing.

31.2.4.6 (1637)At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will bea) a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.b) a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.c) a landing further along the runway than normal.d) a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.

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31.2.4.6 (1638)During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8.Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe,a) a permanent deformation of the structureb) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortionc) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structured) rupture of one or more structural components

31.3.1.0 (1639)The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:a) longitudinal axis.b) lateral axis.c) vertical axis.d) horizontal axis.

31.3.1.1 (1640)In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?a) It is the point on the aeroplane designated by the manufacturers from which all centre of gravity measurements and calculations are made.b) It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity.c) It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity.d) It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the component acts.

31.3.1.1 (1641)A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as:a) Station.b) Moment.c) MAC.d) Index.

31.3.1.1 (1642)In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum isa) a reference plane which is chosen by the aeroplane manufacturer. Its position is given in the aeroplane Flight or Loading Manual.b) calculated from the loading manifest.c) an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aeroplane.d) calculated from the data derived from the weighing procedure carried out on the aeroplane after any major modification.

31.3.1.1 (1643)The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is locateda) at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane.b) at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.

c) at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system.d) at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane.

31.3.1.1 (1644)Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known asa) the datum.b) the focal point.c) the axis.d) the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.

31.3.1.1 (1645)(For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 page 20)For the medium range twin jet the datum point is locateda) 540 inches forward of the front spar.b) 540 cm forward of the front spar.c) on the nose of the aeroplane.d) at the leading edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC).

31.3.1.1 (1646)The datum used for balance calculations is:a) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between the nose and the tail of the aircraftb) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the nose and the tail of the aircraftc) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the leading edge and trailing edge of the wingd) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level

31.3.1.1 (1647)With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point is used. This datum point is :a) a fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It may be located anywhere on the aeroplane's longitudinal axis or on the extensions to that axis.b) the point through which the sum of the mass values (of the aeroplane and its contents) is assumed to act vertically.c) a point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves longitudinally as masses are added forward and aft of its location.d) a point from which all balance arms are measured. The location of this point varies with the distribution of loads on the aeroplane.

31.3.1.2 (1648)(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold centroid is:a) 367.9 inches.b) 257 inches.c) 314.5 inches.d) 421.5 inches.

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31.3.1.2 (1649)The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known asa) the moment arm or balance arm.b) the lever.c) the moment.d) the index.

31.3.1.3 (1650)An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is:a) 343 000 Nm.b) 1.43 Nm.c) 7000 Nm.d) 34 300 Nm.

31.3.1.3 (1651)Which one of the following is correct?a) Arm = Moment / Forceb) Arm = Force / Momentc) Moment = Force / Armd) Arm = Force X Moment

31.3.1.3 (1652)In mass and balance calculations the ""index"" is:a) the moment divided by a constant.b) a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.c) an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.d) the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.

31.3.1.3 (1653)A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/s^2)The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :a) 80000 Nmb) 50000 Nmc) 30000 Nmd) 130000 Nm

31.3.1.4 (1654)Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data:Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 mDistance datum - leading edge: 9.63 mLength of MAC: 8 ma) 36.3 % MACb) 63.4 % MACc) 47.0 % MACd) 23.1 % MAC

31.3.1.4 (1655)The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The

cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:a) 16%b) 41%c) 60%d) 10%

31.3.1.4 (1656)The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord.This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of:a) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edgeb) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edgec) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datumd) the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge

31.3.1.4 (1657)An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 inches. The leading edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650 inches aft of the datum.a) 18,14%b) 75,60%c) 85,50%d) 10,50%

31.3.1.4 (1658)The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic chord:a) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the leading edgeb) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the trailing edgec) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic convergence pointd) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the aerodynamic centre of pressure

31.3.2.0 (1659)If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg).Given : Gross mass 116.500 IbsPresent cg station 435.0Compartment A station 285.5Compartment B station 792.5a) 433.3b) 463.7c) 506.3d) 436.7

31.3.2.0 (1660)Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg).______________________________________________________________

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_____STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)___________________________________________________________________Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350Crew 145 -160 -23200Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000Freight 2 410 -40 -16400Fuel 6045 -8 -48360Oil 124 +40 +4960a) 56.53 cm aft datum.b) 56.35 cm aft datum.c) 60.16 cm aft datum.d) 53.35 cm aft datum.

31.3.2.1 (1661)(For this question use annex 031-1569A) Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram?a) 26.57 cm forward of datum.b) 32.29 cm forward of datum.c) 26.57 cm aft of datum.d) 32.29 cm aft of datum.

31.3.2.1 (1662)An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter.How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?a) 40 cm.b) 25 cm.c) 4 meter.d) 41.6 cm.

31.3.2.1 (1663)To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a minimum of:a) 3 points of supportb) 2 points of supportc) 1 point of supportd) 4 point of support

31.3.2.1 (1664)The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :- mass at front point: 300 kg- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg- mass at left rear point : 950 kgIt is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal axis and the rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this axis.The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis is:a) 4 cm rightb) 4 cm leftc) 11 cm rightd) 11 cm left

31.3.2.1 (1665)After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted:forward point: 350 kgaft right point: 995 kgaft left point: 1 205 kgWhat is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum situated 4 m in front of the rotor axis, knowing that the

forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor axis and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor axis?a) 4.52 mb) 4.09 mc) 4.21 md) 4.15 m

31.3.2.1 (1666)(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at 14% MAC ?a) 40.0b) 35.5c) 41.5d) 33..0

31.3.2.1 (1667)The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :- front point : 220 kg- right rear point : 500 kg- left rear point : 480 kgThe helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor axis. The front point is located 2.00 m forward of the rotor axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft of the rotor axis.The longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum is:a) 3,44 mb) 1,18 mc) 3,36 md) 0,04 m

31.3.2.2 (1668)Given:Total mass 2900 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0Aft cg limit station: 116.0The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is:a) 207 kg.b) 317 kg.c) 140 kg.d) 14 kg.

31.3.2.2 (1669)Given:Total mass: 7500 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station: 79.5How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit?a) 62.5 kg.b) 65.8 kg.c) 68.9 kg.d) 73.5 kg.

31.3.2.2 (1670)The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?

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a) 300 kgb) 900 kgc) 30.0 kgd) 196 kg

31.3.2.2 (1671)Given:Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kgCentre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 mWhat is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to station 23?a) It moves aft by 0.31 m.b) It moves forward by 0.157 m.c) It moves aft by 3.22 m.d) It moves aft by 0.157 m.

31.3.2.2 (1672)The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:a) 33 cm.b) 40 cm.c) 30 cm.d) 34 cm.

31.3.2.2 (1673)Given are the following information at take-off___________________________________________________________________STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm)___________________________________________________________________Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350Crew 145 -160 -23200Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000 Freight 2 410 -40 -16400Fuel 6045 -8 - 48360Oil 124 +40 +4960Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96.Calculate the landing centre of gravitya) 61.28 cm aft of datum.b) 61.26 cm aft of datum.c) 61.27 cm aft of datum.d) 61.29 cm aft of datum.

31.3.2.2 (1674)Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits:a) 29 344 kgb) 16 529 kgc) 8 680 kgd) 43 120 kg

31.3.2.2 (1675)(For this question use annex 031-2946A) The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum.

The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit:a) 7 500 kgb) 3 500 kgc) 35 000 kgd) 62 500 kg

31.3.2.2 (1676)(For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B)The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 31 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 1. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:a) 25%b) 28%c) 37%d) 34%

31.3.2.2 (1677)(For this question use annex 031-11247A and 031-11247B)A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data:Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kgBasic corrected index: 118.6Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg, cargo 2 = 2 000 kg, cargo 3 = 2 000 kg,The other cargo compartments are empty.Take-off mass: 200 000 kgCentre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord)To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of gravity location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load distribution between cargo 1 and cargo 4 is:a) 2 500 kg in cargo 1, 1 500 kg in cargo 4b) 3 000 kg in cargo 1, 1 000 kg in cargo 4c) 2 000 kg in cargo 1, 2 000 kg in cargo 4d) 1 000 kg in cargo 1, 3 000 kg in cargo 4

31.3.2.2 (1678)Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ?a) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.b) Lowering the landing gear.c) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.d) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.

31.3.2.2 (1679)(For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031-11205B)A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data:Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kgBasic corrected index: 118.6Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg , cargo 2: 2 000 kg , cargo 3: 2 000 kg, other cargo compartments are emptyTake-off mass: 200 000 kg, centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 %For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to redistribute part of the cargo loading between cargo compartments, in order to take off with a new C.G. location of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:a) 1 000 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 4b) 500 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 3

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c) 1 000 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1d) 1 500 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1

31.3.2.2 (1680)(For this question use appendix 031-11589A)Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG position of the helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the right. - the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kgWith the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-position of the helicopter are :a) beyond the limitb) 6 180 kg and 0.059m to the rightc) 6 180 kg and 0.075m to the rightd) 6 180 kg and 0.041m to the right

31.3.2.2 (1681)(For this question use annex 031-11606A)Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral CG-position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right. - the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kgWith the man on the winch , the lateral CG-position of the aircraft will be:a) 0,062m to the rightb) 0,016m to the leftc) beyond the limitsd) 0,0633m to the right

31.3.2.2 (1682)At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a winch has a lateral CG-position of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a distance of 60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position of the helicopter will be:a) 1.5 cm to the rightb) 1.5 cm to the leftc) 10.5 cm to the rightd) 10,5 cm to the right

31.3.2.2 (1683)(For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B)Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be seated in ""compartment OC"" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo compartment 5. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:a) 27.8 %b) 30.5 %c) 28.5 %d) 27.2 %

31.3.2.2 (1684)(For this question use annex 031-11632A )The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-position at 3.05m. The load is as follows:-total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg-total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kgIn order not to exeed the limitations the minimum remaining fuel on board should be:a) 125 kgb) 450 kg

c) 350 kgd) 250 kg

31.3.2.2 (1685)(For this question use annex 031-11219A)An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be transferred from the front to the rear cargo compartment is:a) 4 600 kgb) 5 600 kgc) 3 600 kgd) It is not possible to establish the required centre of gravity location.

31.3.2.2 (1686)(For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B )The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4. After loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:a) 33%b) 25%c) 27%d) 31%

31.3.2.2 (1687)(For this question use annex 031-11227A)An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg, rear cargo: 4 000 kg. For performance purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the reference point respectively. After the transfer operation, the new cargo load distribution is:a) front cargo: 3 740 kg, rear cargo: 6 760 kgb) front cargo: 6 760 kg, rear cargo: 3 740 kgc) front cargo: 4 550 kg, rear cargo: 5 950 kgd) front cargo: 9 260 kg, rear cargo: 1 240 kg

31.3.2.2 (1688)(For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B )The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:a) 25%b) 33%

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c) 27%d) 31%

31.3.2.2 (1689)(For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B)The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 26 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:a) 21.8 %b) 20.0 %c) 30.2 %d) 23.0 %

31.3.2.2 (1690)(For this question use annex 031-11273A and 031-11273B)A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following cargo loading, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer of:a) 3 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.b) 2 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.c) 1 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.d) It is not possible to obtain the required centre of gravity.

31.3.2.2 (1691)(For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031-11275B)A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg, the cargo load is distributed as follows: cargo 1: 3 000 kg, cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo loading is completed, the crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following the transfer operation, the new load distribution is:a) cargo 1: 6 000 kg, cargo 4: 4 000 kgb) cargo 1: 4 000 kg, cargo 4: 6 000 kgc) cargo 1: 5 000 kg, cargo 4: 4 000 kgd) cargo 1: 4 000 kg, cargo 4: 5 000 kg

31.3.2.2 (1692)The mass and balance information gives :Basic mass : 1 200 kg , Basic balance arm : 3.00 mUnder these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m.In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is given : Position Arm front seats : 2.5 m rear seats : 3.5 m rear hold : 4.5 m fuel tanks : 3.0 mThe pilot and one passenger embark, each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is negligable.The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is :a) 22%b) 29%

c) 34%d) 17%

31.3.2.3 (1693)(For this question use annex 031-1580A)A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point.At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point.The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to:a) 27.5 %.b) 16.9 %.c) 30.4 %.d) 35.5 %.

31.3.2.3 (1694)(For this question use annex 031-1581A)The loading for a flight is shown in the attached loadsheet, with the following data applying to the aeroplane:Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kgMaximum landing mass: 140 000 kgCentre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum aft: 13.0 m aft of datumEstimated trip fuel: 55 000 kga) Landing cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.b) Take-off cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.c) Take-off cg is out of limits at 12.34 m aft of datum.d) Landing cg is out of limits at 11.97 m aft of datum.

31.3.2.3 (1695)(For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbsBasic arm: 88.5 InchesOne pilot: 160 lbsFront seat passenger : 200 lbsCentre seat passengers: 290 lbsOne passenger rear seat: 110 lbsBaggage in zone 1: 100 lbsBaggage in zone 4: 50 lbsBlock fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.a) 4 720b) 4 120c) 4 390d) 4 372

31.3.2.3 (1696)(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.a) 56 160b) 433 906c) 30 888d) 9 360

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31.3.2.3 (1697)(For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location at take off in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.InBlock fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.a) 91.92 inches aft of datumb) 91.69 inches aft of datumc) 93.60 inches aft of datumd) 91.84 inches aft of datum

31.3.2.3 (1698)(For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4)With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In.Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)a) 2548,8b) 6675c) 2496,3d) 2311,8

31.3.2.3 (1699)Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given :Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.a) 2449 lbsb) 2589 lbsc) 2659 lbsd) 2414 lbs

31.3.2.3 (1700)Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given:Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbsPilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.a) 2589 lbsb) 2799 lbsc) 2659 lbsd) 2449 lbs

31.3.2.3 (1701)Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given :Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbsOptional Equipment : 35 lbsPilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.a) 2799 lbsb) 2764 lbs

c) 2809 lbsd) 2659 lbs

31.3.2.3 (1702)(For this question use appendix 031-11590A )Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg - the mass of the copilot is 100 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kgWith the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are :a) 6 270 kg and 4.594 mb) 6 270 kg and 4.796 mc) 6 270 kg and 5.012 md) 6 270 kg and 4.61 m

31.3.2.3 (1703)(For this question use appendix 031-11605A)Without the crew, the weight and the CG-position of the aircraft are 7 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg - the mass of the copilot is 75 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kgWith this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be:a) 4,615 mb) 0,217 mc) 4,783 md) 4,455 m

31.3.2.3 (1704)(For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B)Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:a) 31%b) 32.5 %c) 36%d) 25%

31.3.2.3 (1705)(For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B)Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have :Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in compartment OA: 20Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment OB: 20Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC: 30Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kgCargo compartment 5: 1 000 kgThe take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at:a) 31.5 %b) 24.5 %c) 32.5 %d) 35.5 %

31.3.2.3 (1706)(For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B)The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary to the forecast, cargo compartment 1 is empty.The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) is located at:a) 35.5 %b) 32%

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c) 31.5 %d) 26%

31.3.2.3 (1707)(For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 031-11248C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:a) 31.5 %b) 30.5 %c) 32.5 %d) 28.0 %

31.3.2.3 (1708)(For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 031-11249C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 40 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at:a) 29.3 %b) 27.4 %c) 30.5 %d) 28.0 %

31.3.2.3 (1709)(For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 031-11250C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 40 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:a) 28.0 %b) 30.5 %c) 27.4 %d) 29.3 %

31.3.2.3 (1710)(For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 031-11251C)Knowing that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:a) 30.5 %b) 32.3 %c) 29.3 %d) 28.3 %

31.3.2.3 (1711)(For this question use annex 031-12267A )Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of gravity (% MAC) at that mass.a) 46130 Kg and 17,8%b) 41300 Kg and 17,8%c) 51300 Kg and 20,8%d) 46130 Kg and 20,8%

31.3.2.3 (1712)(For this question use annex 031-12268A)Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9a) 17.5 %b) 20.1 %c) 20.3 %d) 22.6 %

31.3.2.3 (1713)(For this question use annex 031-12269A)Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections (from ZFM index) are as follows9500 kg - 0.96500 kg - 6.13500 kg - 4.73000 kg - 4.3Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ?a) 49130 kg and 19 %b) 52900kg and 19 %c) 52900 kg and 21.6 %d) 49130 kg and 21.8 %

31.3.2.3 (1714)(For this question use annex 031-12270A)Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at ZFMa) 48600 kg and 57.0b) 51300 kg and 57.0c) 46300 kg and 20.5d) 35100 kg and 20.5

31.3.2.3 (1715)(For this question use annex 031-12271A)From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value (percentage MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass.a) 18%b) 19%c) 15%d) 14%

31.3.2.3 (1716)(For this question use annex 031-11619A )A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg

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and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following conditions :- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg- rear passengers : 150 kg- fuel : 500 kga) 2.91 mb) 2.85 mc) 2.97 md) 2.82 m

31.3.2.4 (1717)Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?a) 110 kgb) 183 kgc) 165 kgd) 104 kg

31.3.3.1 (1718)Loads must be adequately secured in order to:a) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.b) avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.d) allow steep turns.

31.3.3.2 (1719)Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120?a) Station 117.69b) Station 118.33c) Station 120.22d) Station 118.25

32.1.1.0 (1720)Density altitude is thea) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperatureb) altitude reference to the standard datum planec) altitude read directly from the altimeterd) height above the surface

32.1.1.0 (1721)The Density Altitudea) is used to determine the aeroplane performance.b) is equal to the pressure altitude.c) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.d) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

32.1.1.0 (1722)Given that:VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speedV1= Take-

off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedThe correct formula is:a) VMCG<=VEF < V1b) 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1c) 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VRd) V2min<= VEF<= VMU

32.1.1.0 (1723)Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is:a) VS< VMCA< V2 minb) VR< VMCA< VLOFc) VMU<= VMCA< V1d) V2min< VMCA> VMU

32.1.1.0 (1724)Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:a) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.b) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .d) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

32.1.1.0 (1725)The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum isa) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.b) the lowest point of the drag curve.c) at stalling speed (VS).d) on the ""back side"" of the drag curve.

32.1.1.0 (1726)Which of the following statements is correct?a) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.b) Induced drag increases with increasing speed.c) Induced drag is independant of the speed.d) Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

32.1.1.0 (1727)The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curvea) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.b) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.c) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.d) is the maximum drag speed.

32.1.1.0 (1728)On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross massa) the airspeed and the drag will be increased.

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b) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.c) the lift/drag ratio must be increased.d) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.

32.1.1.0 (1729)On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross massa) an increase in airspeed and power is required.b) a higher coefficient of drag is required.c) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.d) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.

32.1.1.0 (1730)On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the draga) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.b) remains unchanged but the the CAS increases.c) increases at constant TAS.d) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.

32.1.1.0 (1731)On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power requireda) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.b) increases but TAS remains constant.c) decreases slightly because of the lower air density.d) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

32.1.1.0 (1732)A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requiresa) a higher coefficient of lift.b) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.c) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.d) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.

32.1.1.0 (1733)The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or bya) increasing the angle of attack.b) increasing the TAS.c) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.d) increasing the CAS.

32.1.1.0 (1734)The speed VS is defined asa) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable.b) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.c) design stress speed.d) speed for best specific range.

32.1.1.0 (1735)The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated asa) VSO.b) VS1.c) VS.d) VMC.

32.1.1.0 (1736)In unaccelerated climba) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.b) lift is greater than the gross weight.c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.d) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

32.1.1.0 (1737)Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100d) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

32.1.1.0 (1738)The rate of climba) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.c) is angle of climb times true airspeed.d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

32.1.1.0 (1739)Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,a) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.d) decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.

32.1.1.0 (1740)Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?a) the liftb) the thrustc) the dragd) the resultant from lift and drag

32.1.1.0 (1741)In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?a) In level flight with constant IASb) In accelerated level flight

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c) In a climb with constant IASd) In a descent with constant TAS

32.1.1.0 (1742)The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends ona) the bank angle only.b) the radius of the turn and the bank angle.c) the true airspeed and the bank angle.d) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

32.1.1.0 (1743)The induced drag of an aeroplanea) decreases with increasing airspeed.b) decreases with increasing gross weight.c) is independent of the airspeed.d) increases with increasing airspeed.

32.1.1.0 (1744)The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest ata) VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)b) VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed)d) VA (design manoeuvring speed)

32.1.1.0 (1745)What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?a) The speed is unstable.b) The aeroplane will not stall.c) The altitude cannot be maintained.d) The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

32.1.2.0 (1746)Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5 270 kg- obstacle limit: 4 630 kgEstimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.Considering a take-off with flaps at:a) 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreasesb) 5°, both limitations are increasedc) 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreasesd) 20°, both limitations are increased

32.1.2.1 (1747)An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance:a) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performanceb) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performancec) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performanced) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

32.1.2.1 (1748)How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrusta) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.b) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.c) varies with mass changes only.d) has no change during take-off and climb.

32.1.2.1 (1749)A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:a) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performanceb) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performancec) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performanced) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

32.1.2.1 (1750)An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:a) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performanceb) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performancec) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performanced) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

32.1.2.2 (1751)(For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?Given:Runway length: 1300 ftRunway elevation: MSLWeather: assume ISA conditionsMass: 3200 lbsObstacle height: 50 fta) 10 kt.b) No wind.c) 5 kt.d) 15 kt.

32.1.2.2 (1752)(For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ftO.A.T.: 5°CAeroplane mass: 3530 lbsHeadwind component: 15 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: tarred and dryLanding gear: downa) 1400 ftb) 880 ftc) 1550 ftd) 1020 ft

32.1.2.2 (1753)(For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 27 °CPressure Altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position

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(down) Runway: Tarred and Drya) approximately : 1850 feetb) approximately : 1120 feetc) approximately : 1700 feetd) approximately : 1370 feet

32.1.2.2 (1754)(For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsTailwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Drya) approximately : 1300 feetb) approximately : 950 feetc) approximately : 1400 feetd) approximately : 750 feet

32.1.2.2 (1755)(For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Drya) approximately : 1700 feetb) approximately :1150 feetc) approximately : 1500 feetd) approximately : 920 feet

32.1.2.2 (1756)(For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 0°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Drya) approximately : 1650 feetb) approximately : 1150 feetc) approximately : 1480 feetd) approximately : 940 feet

32.1.2.2 (1757)(For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsHeadwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soilCorrection factor (wet grass): 1.38a) approximately :1794 feetb) approximately : 1300 feetc) approximately : 2000 feetd) approximately : 1450 feet

32.1.2.2 (1758)(For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3450 lbsTailwind component: 2.5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Drya) approximately : 2470 feetb) approximately : 1440 feetc) approximately : 2800 feetd) approximately : 2200 feet

32.1.2.2 (1759)(For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 4000 ftHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and DryFactored runway length: 2000 ftObstacle height: 50 fta) 3240 lbsb) 3000 lbsc) 2900 lbsd) > 3650 lbs

32.1.2.2 (1760)(For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : -7°CPressure Altitude: 7000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Tarred and Drya) approximately : 2050 ftb) approximately : 1150 ftc) approximately : 2450 ftd) approximately : 1260 ft

32.1.2.2 (1761)(For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : ISA+10°CPressure Altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3400 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Drya) 71 and 82 KIASb) 73 and 84 KIASc) 68 and 78 KIASd) 65 and 75 KIAS

32.1.2.2 (1762)(For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : 38°CPressure Altitude: 4000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Dry GrassCorrection factor: 1.2a) approximately : 3960 ftb) approximately : 3680 ft

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c) approximately : 4200 ftd) approximately : 5040 ft

32.1.2.2 (1763)(For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoilCorrection factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)a) 2375 ftb) 1900 ftc) 1600 ftd) 2000 ft

32.1.3.0 (1764)Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?a) Weight, drag and thrust.b) Weight and drag only.c) Thrust and drag only.d) Weight and thrust only.

32.1.3.0 (1765)How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude?a) Both decrease.b) Both increase.c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.d) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

32.1.3.0 (1766)The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio ofa) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.c) true airspeed to rate of climb.d) rate of climb to true airspeed.

32.1.3.0 (1767)A higher outside air temperaturea) reduces the angle and the rate of climb.b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

32.1.3.0 (1768)A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant)a) has no effect on rate of climb.b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.

c) improves angle and rate of climb.d) decreases angle and rate of climb.

32.1.3.0 (1769)A constant headwinda) increases the angle of the descent flight path.b) increases the angle of descent.c) increases the rate of descent.d) increases the descent distance over ground.

32.1.3.0 (1770)A constant headwind componenta) increases the angle of flight path during climb.b) increases the best rate of climb.c) decreases the angle of climb.d) increases the maximum endurance.

32.1.3.1 (1771)(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual conditions are:pressure altitude: 1 500 ftoutside tempereature: +18°Cwind component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be:a) 525 mb) 415 mc) 440 md) 615 m

32.1.3.1 (1772)(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given :O.A.T.: ISA +16°CPressure altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPMa) 865 NMb) 739 NMc) 851 NMd) 911 NM

32.1.3.1 (1773)(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given :O.A.T.: ISA -15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPMa) 902 NMb) 875 NMc) 860 NMd) 908 NM

32.1.3.1 (1774)(For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure

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2.3)With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed (ft/min).Given :O.A.T : ISA + 15°CPressure Altitude: 0 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsFlaps: upSpeed: 100 KIASa) 1290 ft/minb) 1370 ft/minc) 1210 ft/mind) 1150 ft/min

32.1.3.1 (1775)(For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:Given :O.A.T. at take-off: 25°CAirport pressure altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane mass: 3600 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 15 kts Headwinda) 18 347 ftb) 21 505 ftc) 24 637 ftd) 18 832 ft

32.1.3.1 (1776)(For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3300 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 5 kts Tailwinda) 16 665 ftb) 18 909 ftc) 18 073 ftd) 20 109 ft

32.1.3.1 (1777)(For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASa) 1120 ft/min and 9,3%b) 1030 ft/min and 8,4%c) 1170 ft/min and 9,9%d) 1310 ft/min and 11,3%

32.1.3.1 (1778)(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM: 2300a) 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hrb) 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hrc) 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hrd) 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr

32.1.3.1 (1779)(For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM: 2300a) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hrb) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hrc) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hrd) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr

32.1.3.1 (1780)(For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions:Given :OAT: 3°CPressure altitude: 6000 ftPower: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPMa) 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hrb) 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hrc) 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hrd) 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr

32.1.3.2 (1781)With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement is correct?a) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.b) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.c) The minimum drag is is a function of the density altitude.d) The minimum drag is independant of the aircraft mass.

32.1.3.2 (1782)Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreasesa) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.b) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

32.1.3.2 (1783)(For this question use annex 032-2211A)Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2)a) Figure db) Figure bc) Figure cd) Figure a

32.1.3.2 (1784)The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is reached:a) at the lowest possible altitude.

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b) at the optimum cruise altitude.c) at the service ceiling.d) at the practical ceiling.

32.1.3.2 (1785)The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:a) Degradedb) Improvedc) Unchangedd) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted

32.1.3.3 (1786)What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?a) No affectb) Tailwind only effects holding speed.c) The IAS will be increased.d) The IAS will be decreased.

32.2.1.0 (1787)At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:a) 130 ktb) 115 ktc) 125 ktd) 120 kt

32.2.1.1 (1788)The critical engine inoperativea) increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect.b) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.c) decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.d) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

32.2.1.1 (1789)A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?a) Straight flightb) Straight flight and altitudec) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/mind) Altitude

32.2.1.1 (1790)The speed V1 is defined asa) take-off decision speed.b) take-off climb speed.c) speed for best angle of climb.d) engine failure speed.

32.2.1.1 (1791)The speed VLO is defined asa) landing gear operating speed.b) design low operating speed.c) long distance operating speed.d) lift off speed.

32.2.1.1 (1792)VX isa) the speed for best angle of climb.b) the speed for best rate of climb.c) the speed for best specific range.d) the speed for best angle of flight path.

32.2.1.1 (1793)The speed for best rate of climb is calleda) VY.b) VX.c) V2.d) VO.

32.2.2.1 (1794)Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?a) Lift-off groundspeed.b) Lift-off IAS.c) Lift-off TAS.d) Lift-off EAS.

32.2.2.1 (1795)Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in :a) a longer take-off distance and a better climb.b) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.c) a better climb and an equal take-off distance.d) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

32.2.2.1 (1796)If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) isa) lower with a forward centre of gravity position.b) independent from the centre of gravity position.c) lower with an aft centre of gravity position.d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position.

32.2.2.1 (1797)The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off isa) a shorter ground roll.b) an increased acceleration.c) a higher V1.d) a longer take-off run.

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32.2.2.2 (1798)Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?a) High temperature and high relative humidityb) Low temperature and high relative humidityc) High temperature and low relative humidityd) Low temperature and low relative humidity

32.2.2.2 (1799)What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slopea) decreases the take-off speed V1.b) decreases the TAS for take-off.c) increases the IAS for take-off.d) has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

32.2.2.2 (1800)The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.b) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass.c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.d) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.

32.2.2.2 (1801)When the outside air temperature increases, thena) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.b) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.c) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.d) the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

32.2.2.2 (1802)Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will bea) lower.b) higher.c) unaffected.d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

32.2.2.2 (1803)On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increaseda) by uphill slope.b) by headwind.c) by low outside air temperature.d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.

32.2.2.2 (1804)Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ?a) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.b) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.d) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.

32.2.2.2 (1805)What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?a) The speed for best angle of descent increases.b) There is no effect.c) The gliding angle decreases.d) The lift/drag ratio decreases.

32.2.2.2 (1806)A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperaturea) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.b) decreases the take-off distance.c) increases the climb limited take-off mass.d) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

32.2.2.2 (1807)The take-off distance required increasesa) due to slush on the runway.b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.

32.2.2.2 (1808)A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:a) increasedb) unchangedc) decreasedd) very significantly decreased

32.2.2.2 (1809)A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:a) increasedb) unchangedc) reducedd) substantially decreased

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32.2.3.0 (1810)What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?a) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.b) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.c) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.d) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

32.2.3.1 (1811)The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :a) the accelerate-stop distance available.b) the take-off run available.c) the take-off distance available.d) the landing distance available.

32.2.3.1 (1812)For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should not exceed:a) 1339 m.b) 1771 m.c) 1540 m.d) 1147 m.

32.2.3.1 (1813)Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the take-off?a) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.b) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.c) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.

32.2.3.1 (1814)Field length is balanced whena) take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.b) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.c) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.d) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.

32.2.3.1 (1815)What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.c) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available

runway length.d) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between ""net"" and ""gross"" take-off flight paths.

32.2.3.1 (1816)The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / % runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:a) 755 mb) 715 mc) 555 md) 685 m

32.2.3.1 (1817)An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performanceb) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performancec) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performanced) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

32.2.3.1 (1818)Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of:a) 105 mb) 90 mc) 75 md) it will not clear the obstacle

32.2.3.1 (1819)If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance must be increased by:a) 15%b) 5%c) 10%d) 20%

32.2.3.1 (1820)Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:a) 115 mb) 100 mc) 85 md) It will not clear the obstacle

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32.2.3.1 (1821)An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performanceb) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performancec) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performanced) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

32.2.3.1 (1822)The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections : ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation "" ""- 5 m / kt headwind "" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind "" ""± 15 m / % runway slope "" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature ""The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :a) 970 mb) 890 mc) 870 md) 810 m

32.2.3.2 (1823)During climb to the cruising level, a headwind componenta) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.b) increases the amount of fuel for the climb.c) increases the climb time.d) decreases the climb time.

32.2.3.2 (1824)The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be:a) Smaller.b) Larger.c) Not change.d) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

32.2.3.2 (1825)Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)a) Configuration and angle of attack.b) Mass and altitude.c) Altitude and configuration.d) Configuration and mass.

32.2.3.2 (1826)Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.

d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.

32.2.3.2 (1827)When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" meansa) a lower airspeed requires more thrust.b) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

32.2.3.2 (1828)In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)a) T + W sin GAMMA = Db) T - W sin GAMMA = Dc) T - D = W sin GAMMAd) T + D = - W sin GAMMA

32.2.3.2 (1829)An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratioa) increases / increases / decreasesb) decreases / constant / decreasesc) increases / increases / constantd) increases / constant / increases

32.2.3.2 (1830)An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance:a) decreases.b) increases.c) remains the same.d) may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.

32.2.3.2 (1831)Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?a) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.b) 1.2Vs.c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.d) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.

32.2.3.2 (1832)Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?a) Tailwind.b) Increase of aircraft mass.c) Decrease of aircraft mass.d) Headwind.

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32.2.3.2 (1833)Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?a) Low mass.b) High mass.c) Headwind.d) Tailwind.

32.2.3.2 (1834)What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ?a) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.b) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.c) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.d) The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass.

32.2.3.2 (1835)(For this question use annex 032-4744A)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for ""flaps down"" compared to ""clean"" configuration?a) ab) bc) cd) d

32.2.3.2 (1836)With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about :a) 3°b) 3%c) 5°d) 8%

32.2.3.2 (1837)On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:a) equal to 95 ktb) inferior to 95 ktsc) is between 95 and 125 ktd) equal to 125 kt

32.2.3.2 (1838)A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:a) 330 ft/minb) 3 300 ft/minc) 3,30 m/sd) 33,0 m/s

32.2.3.2 (1839)The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"" ""± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"" "" - 1 % with wing anti-ice"" "" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice""The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is :a) 3,90%b) 4,30%c) 4,70%d) 4,90%

32.2.3.3 (1840)During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:a) Service ceilingb) Absolute ceilingc) Thrust ceilingd) Maximum transfer ceiling

32.2.3.3 (1841)The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:a) 0 ft/minb) 125 ft/minc) 500 ft/mind) 100 ft/min

32.2.3.3 (1842)Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant,a) both will increase with increasing altitude.b) both will decrease with increasing altitude.c) both will stay constant regardless of altitude.d) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.

32.2.3.3 (1843)A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose:a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.b) the long range speed.c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.d) the speed at the maximum lift.

32.2.3.3 (1844)The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag.d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

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32.2.3.3 (1845)With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ?a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight.b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.c) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude.d) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result.

32.2.3.3 (1846)How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No compressibility effects.)a) The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.b) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.d) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

32.2.3.3 (1847)The optimum altitudea) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.b) decreases as mass decreases.c) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

32.2.3.3 (1848)To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should bea) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.b) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.c) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.d) reduced to the gust penetration speed.

32.2.3.3 (1849)The absolute ceilinga) is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.b) can be reached only with minimim steady flight speedc) is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.

32.2.3.3 (1850)The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:a) higher than 4 000 m.b) less than 4 000 m.c) unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.d) only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.

32.2.3.4 (1851)Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct?a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.c) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.d) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.

32.2.3.5 (1852)The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :a) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.b) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.c) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.d) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

32.2.3.5 (1853)Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient.c) The speed for minimum drag.d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.

32.2.3.5 (1854)(For this question use annex 032-2929A)Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of:a) maximum specific range.b) maximum endurance.c) maximum thrust.d) critical angle of attack.

32.2.3.5 (1855)For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is :a) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.b) that which givesthe minimum value of drag.c) that which givesthe maximun value of liftd) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.

32.2.3.5 (1856)The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:a) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.b) same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.c) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.d) same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.

32.2.4.1 (1857)(For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-

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off power is set?a) No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.b) Performance will be better than in the chart.c) Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.d) It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.

32.3.1.0 (1858)Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives will decrease the take-off ground run?a) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.b) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass.c) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.d) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.

32.3.1.1 (1859)An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than:a) 4500 metres.b) 6000 metres.c) 4000 metres.d) 5000 metres.

32.3.1.1 (1860)During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:a) 1779 m.b) 1978 m.c) 1547 m.d) 1720 m.

32.3.1.1 (1861)The take-off decision speed V1 is:a) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.d) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

32.3.1.1 (1862)Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by:a) primary aerodynamic control only.b) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.c) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.d) nosewheel steering only.

32.3.1.1 (1863)The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon:a) failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest take off distance.b) all engines operating.c) only one engine operating.d) failure of critical engine.

32.3.1.1 (1864)Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?a) Accelerate Stop Distanceb) Take-off distancec) All Engine Take-off distanced) Take-off run

32.3.1.1 (1865)The length of a clearway may be included in:a) the take-off distance available.b) the accelerate-stop distance available.c) the take-off run available.d) the distance to reach V1.

32.3.1.1 (1866)The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and:a) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.b) the lift-off point.c) the point where V2 is reached.d) the point half way between V1 and V2.

32.3.1.1 (1867)What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?a) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.b) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.c) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.d) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

32.3.1.1 (1868)Which statement is correct?a) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperatureb) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass.c) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.d) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.

32.3.1.1 (1869)Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :a) VR and VMCG

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b) V2 and VMCAc) VR and VMCAd) V2 and VMCG

32.3.1.1 (1870)Take-off run is defined as thea) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.b) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.c) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.d) Distance from brake release to V2.

32.3.1.1 (1871)The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by:a) 10%b) 15%c) 20%d) 30%

32.3.1.1 (1872)Which of the following statements is correct ?a) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.

32.3.1.1 (1873)The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:a) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued.b) at which the take-off must be rejected.c) below which the take-off must be continued.d) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.

32.3.1.1 (1874)Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?a) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.b) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.c) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.d) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.

32.3.1.1 (1875)During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.

c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.d) It may lead to over-rotation.

32.3.1.1 (1876)Which of the following statements is correct?a) The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.b) The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.c) The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition.d) The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind component.

32.3.1.1 (1877)Which of the following statements is correct?a) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.b) VR should not be higher than V1.c) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.d) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

32.3.1.1 (1878)Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........a) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.b) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.c) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.d) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

32.3.1.1 (1879)With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?a) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.b) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length.c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.d) Screen height cannot be reduced.

32.3.1.1 (1880)The take-off run isa) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.b) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.d) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

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32.3.1.1 (1881)Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ?a) No.b) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway.c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.d) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.

32.3.1.1 (1882)Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2.b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2.c) V1, VR, VMCG, V2.d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

32.3.1.1 (1883)Which statement regarding V1 is correct?a) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.b) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.c) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.d) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.

32.3.1.1 (1884)When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:a) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.b) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.c) the ""balanced take-off distance"" equals 115% of the ""all engine take-off distance"".d) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.

32.3.1.1 (1885)VR cannot be lower than:a) V1 and 105% of VMCA.b) 105% of V1 and VMCA.c) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.d) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

32.3.1.1 (1886)V2 has to be equal to or higher thana) 1.1 VMCA.b) 1.15 VMCG.c) 1.1 VSO.d) 1.15 VR.

32.3.1.1 (1887)V1 has to bea) equal to or higher than VMCG.b) equal to or higher than VMCA.c) higher than than VR.d) equal to or higher than V2.

32.3.1.1 (1888)The speed VRa) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.b) must be higher than V2.c) must be higher than VLOF.d) must be equal to or lower than V1.

32.3.1.1 (1889)The speed V2 isa) the take-off safety speed.b) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.c) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.d) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

32.3.1.1 (1890)Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ?a) V1b) V2c) VMCGd) VMCA

32.3.1.1 (1891)The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane asa) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.b) lift off speed.c) take-off decision speed.d) critical engine failure speed.

32.3.1.1 (1892)The take-off mass could be limited bya) the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative.b) the maximum brake energy only.c) the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.d) the take-off distance available (TODA) only.

32.3.1.1 (1893)Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?a) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.b) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCAc) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradientd) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

32.3.1.1 (1894)Which of the following will decrease V1?a) Inoperative anti-skid.b) Increased take-off mass.

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c) Inoperative flight management system.d) Increased outside air temperature.

32.3.1.1 (1895)In case of an engine failure recognized below V1a) the take-off must be rejected.b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

32.3.1.1 (1896)In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1a) the take-off must be continued.b) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.d) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.

32.3.1.1 (1897)The take-off distance available isa) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.b) the runway length minus stopway.c) the runway length plus half of the clearway.d) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

32.3.1.1 (1898)The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than:a) 1.15 Vsb) 1.3 Vsc) 1.2 Vsd) 1.2 Vs1

32.3.1.1 (1899)The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than:a) 1.2 Vsb) 1.3 Vsc) 1.15 Vsd) 1.15 Vs1

32.3.1.1 (1900)Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?a) VR may not be lower than V1b) V1 may not be higher than Vmcgc) When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric enginesd) The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative

32.3.1.2 (1901)How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors

remain constant and not limiting?a) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.b) An uphill slope increases take-off mass.c) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.d) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

32.3.1.2 (1902)Uphill slopea) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.c) decreases the take-off distance only.d) increases the allowed take-off mass.

32.3.1.2 (1903)If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope woulda) increase the maximum mass for take-off.b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.d) decrease the required take-off distance.

32.3.1.2 (1904)Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?a) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penaltiesb) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry runwayc) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be usedd) Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

32.3.1.2 (1905)Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope...a) reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).b) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).c) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).d) increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

32.3.1.3 (1906)The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?a) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.c) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

32.3.1.3 (1907)The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values, with wind:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 5002nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800Wind correction: Head

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wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / ktGiven that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be:a) 67 700 kg / 15 degb) 69 000 kg / 15 degc) 72 200 kg / 5 degd) 69 700 kg / 25 deg

32.3.1.3 (1908)Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:a) windshear is reported on the take-off path.b) it is dark.c) the runway is dry.d) the runway is wet.

32.3.1.3 (1909)Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:a) anti skid is not usable.b) it is dark.c) the runway is wet.d) the OAT is ISA +10°C

32.3.1.3 (1910)Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:a) the runway is contaminated.b) it is dark.c) the runway is wet.d) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.

32.3.1.3 (1911)The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:a) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.b) The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1.c) The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM.d) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.

32.3.1.3 (1912)Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?a) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.b) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.c) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.d) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.

32.3.1.3 (1913)If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope woulda) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

c) increase the maximum mass for take-off.d) increase the required take-off distance.

32.3.1.3 (1914)Reduced take-off thrusta) has the benefit of improving engine life.b) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.c) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).d) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.

32.3.1.4 (1915)What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?a) It will decrease the take-off distance required.b) It will increase the take-off distance required.c) It will increase the take-off ground run.d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

32.3.1.4 (1916)What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?a) It will increase the take-off distance.b) It will decrease the take-off distance.c) It will increase the take-off distance available.d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

32.3.1.4 (1917)How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?a) VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.b) VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.c) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.d) VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

32.3.1.4 (1918)Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?a) the climb limited take-off mass.b) the field limited take-off mass.c) the obstacle limited take-off mass.d) the take-off run.

32.3.1.4 (1919)Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass?a) Allowable take-off mass decreases.b) Allowable take-off mass increases.c) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.d) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.

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32.3.1.4 (1920)For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct?a) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.b) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.c) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.d) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.

32.3.1.4 (1921)How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?a) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.b) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.c) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.d) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.

32.3.1.5 (1922)The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:a) 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes.b) 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.c) 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.d) 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.

32.3.1.5 (1923)Which of the following answers is true?a) V1 <= VRb) V1 > Vlofc) V1 > VRd) V1 < VMCG

32.3.1.5 (1924)Which statement is correct?a) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.b) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.c) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.

32.3.1.5 (1925)Which statement is correct?a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.b) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.c) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.

32.3.1.5 (1926)Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?a) VMCG

b) VLOFc) VMUd) VR

32.3.1.5 (1927)Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?a) VRb) VMCAc) V2d) VREF

32.3.1.5 (1928)How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?a) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.b) V2 has the same value in both cases.c) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.d) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

32.3.1.5 (1929)The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:a) 1.2Vs.b) 1.2VMCG.c) 1.05VLOF.d) 1.3V1.

32.3.1.5 (1930)If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ?a) The take-off is not permitted.b) The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.c) The VMCG will be lowered to V1.d) The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.

32.3.1.6 (1931)During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?a) 2009 m.b) 2243 m.c) 2096 m.d) 1950 m.

32.3.1.6 (1932)During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances measured are:- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equalThe take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

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a) 3050 mb) 3513 mc) 2555 md) 2938 m

32.3.1.6 (1933)During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.a) By selecting a higher flap setting.b) By selecting a higher V2.c) By selecting a lower V2.d) By selecting a lower flap setting.

32.3.2.0 (1934)In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:a) reduce the engine thrust.b) reverse engine thrust.c) apply wheel brakes.d) deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

32.3.2.0 (1935)If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?a) The accelerate stop distance increases.b) The accelerate stop distance decreases.c) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.d) Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.

32.3.2.0 (1936)In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?a) In the accelerate stop distance available.b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.c) In the all-engine take-off distance.d) In the take-off run available.

32.3.2.1 (1937)Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct?a) The field length limited take-off mass will increase.b) The usable length of the clearway is not limited.c) V1 is increased.d) V1 remains constant.

32.3.2.1 (1938)Balanced V1 is selecteda) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.b) for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.c) for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.d) if it is equal to V2.

32.3.2.1 (1939)A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.b) The clearway does not equal the stopway.c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

32.3.2.1 (1940)If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allowa) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1b) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1c) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1d) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1

32.3.2.2 (1941)Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?a) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.b) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

32.3.2.2 (1942)Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the take-off mass?a) Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy.b) Tyre pressure and brake temperature.c) Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.d) Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature.

32.3.2.2 (1943)Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?a) A high runway elevation and tail wind.b) A low runway elevation and a cross wind.c) A high runway elevation and a head wind.d) A low runway elevation and a head wind.

32.3.2.2 (1944)The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:a) VLOF in terms of ground speed.b) V1 in kt TAS.c) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.d) V1 in kt ground speed.

32.3.2.2 (1945)May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?a) Yes.

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b) No.c) Only for take-off.d) Only for landing.

32.3.2.2 (1946)A higher outside air temperature (OAT)a) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.b) increases the field length limited take-off mass.c) increases the climb limited take-off mass.d) decreases the take-off distance.

32.3.3.0 (1947)If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:a) not be affected.b) increase.c) decrease.d) increase in the flaps extended case.

32.3.3.0 (1948)Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?a) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.b) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.c) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.d) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.

32.3.3.1 (1949)(For this question use annex 032-1562A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 )For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) are certified.Given:Field length avalaible= 2400 mOutside air temperature= -10°CAirport pressure altitude= 7000 ftThe maximum allowed take-off mass is:a) 56 000 kgb) 55 000 kgc) 70 000 kgd) 52 000 kg

32.3.3.1 (1950)In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles isa) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor.b) based on pressure altitudes.c) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.d) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

32.3.3.1 (1951)The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:

a) 1, 4, 6, 9b) 2, 3, 6, 9c) 1, 4, 5, 10d) 1, 5, 8, 10

32.3.3.1 (1952)The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for:a) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.b) the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.c) 2 engined aeroplane.d) the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.

32.3.3.1 (1953)At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?a) 400 ft above field elevation.b) 35 ft above ground.c) When gear retraction is completed.d) 1500 ft above field elevation.

32.3.3.1 (1954)A head wind will:a) increase the climb flight path angle.b) increase the angle of climb.c) increase the rate of climb.d) shorten the time of climb.

32.3.3.1 (1955)The second segment beginsa) when landing gear is fully retracted.b) when flap retraction begins.c) when flaps are selected up.d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

32.3.3.1 (1956)For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoideda) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.c) only by using standard turns.d) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

32.3.3.1 (1957)Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?a) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.b) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.

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d) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.

32.3.3.1 (1958)The first segment of the take-off flight path endsa) at completion of gear retraction.b) at completion of flap retraction.c) at reaching V2.d) at 35 ft above the runway.

32.3.3.1 (1959)The climb limited take-off mass can be increased bya) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.b) selecting a lower V1.c) selecting a lower V2.d) selecting a lower VR.

32.3.3.1 (1960)During take-off the third segment begins:a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.b) when landing gear is fully retracted.c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.d) when flap retraction is completed.

32.3.3.1 (1961)The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?a) None.b) The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path.c) The climb limited take-off mass would increase.d) The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.

32.3.3.1 (1962)Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?a) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.b) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.c) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.d) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.

32.3.3.1 (1963)On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?a) 118455 kgb) 102150 kg

c) 121310 kgd) 106425 kg

32.3.3.2 (1964)A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The gradient of climb is:(given: g= 10 m/s²)a) 12.86%.b) 1.286%.c) 27%.d) 7.86%.

32.3.3.2 (1965)Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?a) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.b) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.c) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height.d) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.

32.3.3.3 (1966)Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engineg = 10 m/s²Drag = 72 569 NMinimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:a) 101 596 kgb) 286 781 kgc) 74 064 kgd) 209 064 kg

32.3.3.4 (1967)The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb gradient is:a) smaller.b) larger.c) equal.d) depends on type of aircraft.

32.3.3.4 (1968)An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least:a) 90m + 0.125Db) 0.125Dc) -90m + 1.125Dd) 90m + D/0.125

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32.3.3.4 (1969)When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance:a) decreases / remains constant.b) increases / increases.c) remains constant / remains constant.d) decreases / decreases.

32.3.3.4 (1970)Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?a) It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the ""net take-off flight path"".b) It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.c) It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the ""net take off flight path"".d) It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.

32.3.3.4 (1971)Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct?a) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.c) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.d) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.

32.3.3.4 (1972)In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceeda) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.b) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.c) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.d) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

32.3.3.4 (1973)Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.b) V2 + 10 kt.c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.d) V2.

32.3.4.0 (1974)(For this question use annex 032-915A)What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of 75 000 kg?Using the following: g = 10 m/s² 1 kt = 100 ft/min SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weighta) +1267 ft / min.b) -1267 ft / min.c) 0 ft / min.d) +3293 ft / min.

32.3.4.1 (1975)What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?a) The time to climb does not change.b) The time to climb increases.c) The time to climb decreases.d) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.

32.3.4.1 (1976)You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?a) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.b) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.c) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.d) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)

32.3.4.1 (1977)If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude isa) lower.b) higher.c) unchanged.d) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

32.3.4.1 (1978)(For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0?a) At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.b) At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.c) At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.d) The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited.

32.3.4.1 (1979)(For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5)Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?a) The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.b) The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.c) There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.d) There is a built-in safety measure.

32.3.4.2 (1980)Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:a) lower than that for clean configuration.b) higher than that for clean configuration.c) same as that for clean configuration.d) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.

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32.3.4.2 (1981)Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy:a) Both will increase.b) Both will remain the same.c) Both will decrease.d) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.

32.3.4.2 (1982)How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?a) TAS decreases.b) TAS increases.c) TAS is constant.d) TAS is not related to Mach Number.

32.3.4.2 (1983)A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?a) Reduce / decrease.b) Reduce / remain constant.c) Remain constant / decrease.d) Remain constant / become larger.

32.3.4.2 (1984)With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:a) The highest CL/CD ratio.b) The highest CL/CD² ratio.c) 1.2 Vsd) 1.1 Vs

32.3.4.2 (1985)What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.)a) The drag remains almost constant.b) The drag increases considerably.c) The drag decreases.d) The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

32.3.4.2 (1986)Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)a) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.b) Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.c) Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.d) Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

32.3.4.2 (1987)A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?a) IAS decreases and TAS decreases.b) IAS increases and TAS increases.

c) IAS decreases and TAS increases.d) IAS increases and TAS decreases.

32.3.4.2 (1988)Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The speeds for:a) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.b) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.c) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.d) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.

32.3.4.2 (1989)What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?a) The lift coefficient increases.b) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.c) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.d) The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

32.3.4.2 (1990)A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?a) The Maximum operating Mach number.b) The Stalling speed.c) The Minimum control speed air.d) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

32.3.4.2 (1991)Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereasa) VY and VX are increased.b) VX is increased and VY is decreased.c) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.d) VY and VX are decreased.

32.3.4.2 (1992)As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climba) VX is always below VY.b) VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.c) VX is always above VY.d) VY is always above VMO.

32.3.4.2 (1993)The best rate of climb at a constant gross massa) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.d) is independent of altitude.

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32.3.4.2 (1994)Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?a) Vs, Vx, Maximum range speedb) Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speedc) Vs, Maximum range speed, Vxd) Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx

32.3.5.0 (1995)The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:a) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.b) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.c) is independent of the aeroplane mass.d) is only dependent on the outside air temperature.

32.3.5.1 (1996)Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?a) Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads larger than 1.b) A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude.c) A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.d) A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached.

32.3.5.1 (1997)Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the ""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?a) Aerodynamics.b) Theoretical ceiling.c) Service ceiling.d) Economy.

32.3.5.1 (1998)Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?a) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.b) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.c) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.d) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes.

32.3.5.1 (1999)The aerodynamic ceilinga) is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same.b) depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.c) is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.

32.3.5.1 (2000)The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabina) is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.b) is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.c) is dependent on the OAT.d) is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.

32.3.5.1 (2001)Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?a) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.b) Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected.c) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only.d) To respect ATC flight level constraints.

32.3.5.1 (2002)Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?a) Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude.b) In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.c) A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.d) A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.

32.3.5.2 (2003)With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero headwind,is as follows:a) proportional to Tb) proportional to 1/T²c) proportional to 1/Td) independent from T

32.3.5.2 (2004)Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:a) 3259 kg/hb) 3602 kg/hc) 3787 kg/hd) 3426 kg/h

32.3.5.2 (2005)A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:a) 8.17 kg/NM.

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b) 14 kg/NM.c) 11.7 kg/NM.d) 10.7 kg/NM.

32.3.5.2 (2006)At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by:a) 5%b) 7.5%c) 10%d) 2.5%

32.3.5.2 (2007)For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific range?a) Increases.b) Decreases.c) Does not change.d) Increases only if there is no wind.

32.3.5.2 (2008)(For this question use annex 032-1014A)Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the ""Thrust Required Curve .(M1>M2).a) cb) ac) bd) d

32.3.5.2 (2009)Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:a) a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher cruise speed.b) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.c) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.d) a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.

32.3.5.2 (2010)With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:a) equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio.b) equal to that maximum endurance.c) equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag.d) lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio.

32.3.5.2 (2011)Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:

a) 3804 kg/h.b) 4044 kg/h.c) 3365 kg/h.d) 3578 kg/h.

32.3.5.2 (2012)A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?a) Increase / decrease.b) Increase / increase.c) Decrease / increase.d) Decrease / decrease.

32.3.5.2 (2013)During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:a) decrease / decrease.b) increase / decrease.c) increase / increase.d) decrease / increase.

32.3.5.2 (2014)The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point fora) minimum drag.b) maximum specific range.c) maximum endurance.d) minimum specific range.

32.3.5.2 (2015)For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ?a) Minimum specific fuel consumption.b) Minimum fuel flow.c) Longest flight duration.d) Minimum drag.

32.3.5.2 (2016)Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed of:a) maximum endurance.b) minimum power.c) maximum specific range.d) critical angle of attack.

32.3.5.2 (2017)A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight.The speed corresponds to:a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.b) the minimum drag.c) the minimum required power.

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d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr) versus TAS curve.

32.3.5.2 (2018)In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range corresponds with:a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.b) the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.c) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.

32.3.5.2 (2019)The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?a) Maximum range.b) Maximum endurance.c) Holding.d) Long range.

32.3.5.2 (2020)Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?a) It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.b) In order to achieve speed stability.c) The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.d) In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

32.3.5.2 (2021)""Maximum endurance""a) is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption.b) is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.c) can be flown in a steady climb only.d) can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.

32.3.5.2 (2022)The speed for maximum endurancea) is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.b) is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.c) can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.d) is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

32.3.5.2 (2023)Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?a) SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flowb) SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flowc) SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flowd) SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow

32.3.5.2 (2024)Long range cruise is selected asa) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

b) the speed for best economy.c) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.d) specific range with tailwind.

32.3.5.2 (2025)The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimuma) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.c) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.d) is the same as the minimum drag speed.

32.3.5.2 (2026)Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged)a) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.b) increases the power required.c) affects neither drag nor power required.d) increases the induced drag.

32.3.5.2 (2027)The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limita) improves the maximum range.b) increases the stalling speed.c) improves the longitudinal stabiity.d) decreases the maximum range.

32.3.5.2 (2028)The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffeta) narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.b) decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.c) is only limiting at low altitudes.d) increases with increasing mass.

32.3.5.2 (2029)The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffeta) limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.b) can be reduced by increasing the load factor.c) exists only above MMO.d) has to be considered at take-off and landing.

32.3.5.2 (2030)Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?a) Maximum Cruise Thrustb) Maximum Continuous Thrustc) Go-Around Thrustd) Maximum Take-off Thrust

32.3.5.2 (2031)At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine

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a) increases slightly with increasing airspeed.b) is independent of the airspeed.c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.d) increases with decreasing OAT.

32.3.5.2 (2032)At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet enginea) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.b) increase with increasing altitude.c) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).d) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

32.3.5.2 (2033)The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPMa) increases in proportion to the airspeed.b) does not change with changing altitude.c) is independent of the airspeed.d) is inversely proportional to the airspeed.

32.3.5.2 (2034)The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplanea) in unaccelerated level flight.b) in descent with constant IAS.c) in accelerated level flight.d) in unaccelerated climb.

32.3.5.2 (2035)At speeds below minimum draga) a lower speed requires a higher thrust.b) a higher speed requires a higher thrust.c) the aeroplane can not be controlled manually.d) the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

32.3.5.2 (2036)A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requiresa) a higher angle of attack.b) a lower coefficient of lift.c) a lower coefficient of drag.d) a lower angle of attack.

32.3.5.2 (2037)The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.a) Higherb) Lowerc) Depending on the OAT and net mass.d) Depending on density altitude and mass.

32.3.5.2 (2038)The optimum cruise altitude is

a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.b) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.c) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.d) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

32.3.5.2 (2039)The optimum cruise altitude increasesa) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.b) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.c) if the tailwind component is decreased.d) if the aeroplane mass is increased.

32.3.5.2 (2040)Below the optimum cruise altitudea) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.b) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.c) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.d) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

32.3.5.2 (2041)Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?a) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.b) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.c) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).d) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

32.3.5.2 (2042)On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:a) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.b) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.c) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.d) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

32.3.5.2 (2043)If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flighta) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.b) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.c) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.d) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

32.3.5.2 (2044)In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends on:a) altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.b) altitude, speed and mass.c) speed and mass.d) speed, mass and fuel on board.

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32.3.5.2 (2045)Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.c) An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view.d) An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.

32.3.5.3 (2046)An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :a) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative.b) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speedd) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

32.3.5.3 (2047)ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area ofa) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.c) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.d) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

32.3.5.3 (2048)(For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370?a) Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.b) Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes.c) Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved.d) All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.

32.3.5.3 (2049)A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeeda) of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.b) giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.c) giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.d) for long-range cruise.

32.3.5.3 (2050)The drift down requirements are based on:a) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.b) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.c) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.d) the landing mass limit at the alternate.

32.3.5.3 (2051)Which of the following statements is correct?a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.b) The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.c) The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines operating.

32.3.5.3 (2052)With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:a) the minimum drag.b) the critical Mach number.c) the minimum angle of descent.d) the maximum lift.

32.3.5.3 (2053)After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?a) Drift Down Procedure.b) Emergency Descent Procedure.c) ETOPS.d) Long Range Cruise Descent.

32.3.5.3 (2054)'Drift down' is the procedure to be applieda) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.b) after cabin depressurization.c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.d) to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.

32.3.5.3 (2055)If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedurea) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.b) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.c) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.d) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.

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32.3.5.3 (2056)With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes isa) reduced.b) improved.c) not affected.d) first improved and later reduced.

32.3.5.3 (2057)(For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by ""equivalent gross weight at engine failure"" ?a) The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C.b) The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.c) This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.d) The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.

32.3.5.4 (2058)The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:a) obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitudeb) engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occursc) climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altituded) weight during landing at the alternate

32.3.5.4 (2059)Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.c) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.

32.3.6.1 (2060)During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:a) increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.b) remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.c) increase, because the lift coefficient increases.d) decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.

32.3.6.1 (2061)During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:a) decrease.b) increase.c) increase at first and decrease later on.d) remain constant.

32.3.6.1 (2062)An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of

descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.a) Increases in the first part, is constant in the second.b) Increases in the first part, decreases in the second.c) Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second.d) Decreases in the first part, increases in the second.

32.3.6.1 (2063)The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the :a) IAS increases.b) aircraft mass decreases.c) TAS decreases.d) glide angle increases.

32.3.6.1 (2064)A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?a) Maximum Operating Speedb) Never Exceed Speedc) High Speed Buffet Limitd) Maximum Operational Mach Number

32.3.6.1 (2065)Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?a) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.b) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.c) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.

32.3.6.1 (2066)Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?a) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.b) A headwind component increases the ground distance.c) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.d) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.

32.3.6.1 (2067)Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)a) Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.b) No difference.c) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.d) Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

32.3.6.3 (2068)A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing

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distance for a dry runway?a) 1 440 m.b) 1 250 m.c) 1 090 m.d) 1 655 m.

32.3.6.3 (2069)For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?a) 1565 m.b) 1800 m.c) 2609 m.d) 2 070 m.

32.3.6.3 (2070)The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve:a) minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.c) manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.d) manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

32.3.6.3 (2071)For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.b) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.d) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.

32.3.6.3 (2072)Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?a) Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).b) Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).c) Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.d) Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.

32.3.6.3 (2073)To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:a) make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.b) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.c) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.d) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

32.3.6.3 (2074)Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing

reference speed (VREF):a) Increasing VREFb) Lowering VREFc) Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.d) Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

32.3.6.3 (2075)What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?a) 1,30 VSOb) 1,05 VSOc) 1,10 VSOd) VMCA x 1,2

32.3.6.3 (2076)Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanesa) is the same as at an alternate airport.b) is less then at an alternate airport.c) is more than at an alternate airport.d) is 60% longer than at an alternate airport.

32.3.6.3 (2077)The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration:a) 30%b) 15%c) 20%d) 10%

32.3.6.3 (2078)The maximum mass for landing could be limited bya) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.c) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.d) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.

32.3.6.3 (2079)The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plusa) 92%b) 67%c) 70%d) 43%

32.3.6.3 (2080)The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plusa) 92%b) 43%

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c) 70%d) 67%

32.3.6.3 (2081)(For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28)What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH: 1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing distanceRunway condition: dryWind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 ktMaximum allowable headwind: 50 kta) 3100 m.b) 2600 m.c) 2700 m.d) 2900 m.

32.3.6.3 (2082)The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:a) minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.c) manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

32.3.6.3 (2083)By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning phase for destination).a) 0.60b) 115/100c) 1.67d) 60/115

32.3.6.3 (2084)According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account.b) Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required.c) Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.d) The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop.

32.3.7.2 (2085)If a flight is performed with a higher ""Cost Index"" at a given mass which of the following will occur?a) A higher cruise mach number.b) A lower cruise mach number.c) A better maximum range.d) A better long range.

33.1.1.1 (2086)An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be:a) 0.80b) 0.78c) 0.76d) 0.72

33.1.1.1 (2087)According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa.What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA?a) 8800 ft.b) 8500 ft.c) 12800 ft.d) 8200 ft.

33.1.1.1 (2088)VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less thana) 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.b) 2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.c) 500 ft above the heighest obstacle.d) the heighest obstacle.

33.1.1.1 (2089)How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?Given: FL 75, departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft, QNH = 1023 hPa, temperature = ISA, 1 hPa = 30 fta) 6300 ft.b) 6000 ft.c) 6600 ft.d) 7800 ft.

33.1.1.1 (2090)(For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055 and magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO 20 NM.Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.a) 112.50 MHzb) 118.60 MHzc) 422 kHzd) 118.80 MHz

33.1.1.1 (2091)(For this question use annex 033-9736A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,

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008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles.a) 3900 ftb) 2900 ftc) 4200 ftd) 1500 ft

33.1.1.1 (2092)(For this question use annex 033-9739A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles.a) 6900 ftb) 5500 ftc) 6600 ftd) 5300 ft

33.1.1.1 (2093)(For this question use annex 033-11717A)The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NMBased on the wind charts at altitude the following components are found,FL50: -30kt, FL100: -50kt, FL180: -70ktThe Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's performancesWhich of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best range performance:a) FL 180b) FL 100c) FL 050d) Either FL 050 or FL 100

33.1.1.2 (2094)(For this question use annex 033-9734A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the magnetic course.a) 356°b) 176°c) 004°d) 185°

33.1.1.2 (2095)(For this question use annex 033-9735A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the distance.a) 24 NMb) 46 NMc) 28 NMd) 24 km

33.1.1.2 (2096)(For this question use annex 033-9737A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000

STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the magnetic course.a) 243°b) 063°c) 257°d) 077°

33.1.1.2 (2097)(For this question use annex 033-9738A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the distance.a) 32 NMb) 46 NMc) 58 NMd) 36 NM

33.1.1.2 (2098)(For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) isa) 119°b) 109°c) 099°d) 118°

33.1.1.2 (2099)(For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) isa) 109°b) 119°c) 099°d) 120°

33.1.1.2 (2100)(For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) isa) 116°b) 080°c) 098°d) 113°

33.1.1.2 (2101)(For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) isa) 098°b) 116°c) 080°d) 278°

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33.1.1.2 (2102)(For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route Manual chart NAP)The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) isa) 720b) 690c) 1590d) 1440

33.1.1.2 (2103)(For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) isa) 271°b) 259°c) 247°d) 279°

33.1.1.2 (2104)(For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) isa) 259°b) 247°c) 271°d) 079°

33.1.1.2 (2105)(For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) isa) 275°b) 267°c) 271°d) 262°

33.1.1.2 (2106)(For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) isa) 271°b) 275°c) 267°d) 246°

33.1.1.2 (2107)(For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route Manual chart NAP)The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) isa) 760b) 725c) 700d) 775

33.1.1.4 (2108)On a given path, it is possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static

air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:a) FL270b) FL290c) FL330d) FL370

33.1.1.4 (2109)A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON-PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35°N - 048°W) a non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight conditions are: - from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind component=18 kt) - from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind component=120 kt)- from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind component=0).With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field selected will be that more rapidly reached:a) BERMUDAS or GANDER, or SANTA MARIAb) SANTA MARIAc) BERMUDASd) Either GANDER or BERMUDAS

33.1.1.4 (2110)An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.The duration of the flight will be:a) 2h 35minb) 3h 00minc) 2h 10mind) 2h 32min

33.1.1.4 (2111)You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ?a) 280°b) 224°c) 242°d) 262°

33.1.1.4 (2112)Given : true track 017, W/V 340/30, TAS 420 ktFind : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)a) WCA -2° , GS 396 ktb) WCA +2° , GS 396 ktc) WCA -2° , GS 426 ktd) WCA +2° , GS 416 kt

33.1.1.4 (2113)Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind

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component of 60kt ?a) 193 NMb) 128 NMc) 157 NMd) 228 NM

33.1.1.4 (2114)(For this question use annex 033 11702 A)The measured course 042° T.The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm.The deviation card is reproduced in the annex.In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:a) 052°b) 058°c) 040°d) 044°

33.1.1.4 (2115)Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 ktFind: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)a) WCA -2°, GS 396 ktb) WCA +2°, GS 396 ktc) WCA -2°, GS 426 ktd) WCA +2°, GS 416 kt

33.1.2.0 (2116)You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions :- dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- payload : 400 kg- maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kga) 800 kgb) 1000 kgc) 700 kgd) 500 kg

33.1.2.0 (2117)The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:a) 200 kg/hb) 213 kg/hc) 188 kg/hd) 267 kg/h

33.1.2.1 (2118)(For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1)A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) to another in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL 110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with mixture rich.a) 6 US gallonb) 9 US gallonc) 12 US gallond) 3 US gallon

33.1.2.1 (2119)(For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6)A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude 3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising level will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C.Calculate the still air descent distance for:145 KIASRate of descent 1000 ft/minGears and flaps upa) 20 NMb) 29 NMc) 36 NMd) 25 NM

33.1.2.1 (2120)(For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3)Given:FL 75OAT +10°CLean mixture2300 RPMFind:Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS.a) 11.6 GPHTAS: 160 ktb) 11.6 GPHTAS: 143 ktc) 71.1 GPHTAS: 143 ktd) 68.5 GPHTAS: 160 kt

33.1.2.1 (2121)(For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)Given:FL 75OAT: +5°CDuring climb: average head wind component 20 ktTake-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.Find:Time and fuel to climb.a) 9 min.3,3 USGb) 10 min.3,6 USGc) 7 min.2,6 USGd) 9 min.2,7 USG

33.1.2.1 (2122)(For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)Given:FL 75OAT: +5°CDuring climb: average head wind component 20 ktTake-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.Find:Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using the graph ""time, fuel, distance to climb"".a) 18 NAM.15 NM.b) 16 NAM.18 NM.c) 18 NAM.13 NM.d) 14 NAM.18 NM.

33.1.2.1 (2123)(For this question use annex 033-11704A)True Air speed: 170 ktWind in the area: 270°/40 ktAccording to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via TGJ.The given wind conditions remaining constant.The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres.The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD will be:a) 1 545 litresb) 1 182 litresc) 1 326 litresd) 1 600 litres

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33.1.2.1 (2124)In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of:a) 120 NMb) 140 NMc) 110 NMd) 130 NM

33.1.2.1 (2125)An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent?a) 48 NMb) 42 NMc) 40 NMd) 45 NM

33.1.2.1 (2126)(For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft, OAT +10°C, First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°CFind the time, fuel and still air distance to climb.a) 22 min, 6.7 GAL, 45 NAMb) 24 min, 7.7 GAL, 47 NAMc) 16.5 min, 4.9 GAL, 34.5 NAMd) 23 min, 7.7 GAL, 50 NAM

33.1.2.1 (2127)(For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000 ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak EGTCalculate the range.a) 633 NMb) 844 NMc) 730 NMd) 547.5 NM

33.1.2.1 (2128)(For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033-12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1)Given : Distance C - D : 3200 NM Long Range Cruise at FL 340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +12°C Tailwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at C : 55 000 kgThe fuel required from C - D is :a) 14 500 kgb) 14 200 kgc) 17 800 kgd) 17 500 kg

33.1.2.1 (2129)(For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033-12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1))Given : Distance C - D : 680NM Long Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0° C Headwind component : 60 kt Gross mass at C : 44 700 kgThe fuel required from C - D is :a) 3700 kgb) 3400 kgc) 3100 kgd) 4000 kg

33.1.2.1 (2130)(For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is :a) 1250 kgb) 1400 kgc) 1450 kgd) 1350 kg

33.1.2.1 (2131)(For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind component 15 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CCruise altitude 35000 ftLanding mass 50000 kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :a) (a) 17600 kg (b) 6 hr 50 minb) (a) 16200 kg (b) 6 hr 20 minc) (a) 17000 kg (b) 6 hr 10 mind) (a) 20000 kg (b) 7hr 00 min

33.1.2.1 (2132)(For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind component 20 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CBrake release mass 64700 kgThe (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are :a) (a) 17000 kg(b) 6hr 45 minb) (a) 15800 kg(b) 6hr 15 minc) (a) 16200 kg(b) 6hr 20 mind) (a) 18400 kg(b) 7hr 00 min

33.1.2.1 (2133)(For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind component 10 ktTemperature ISA -5°CTrip fuel available 15000 kgLanding mass 50000kgWhat is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be planned ?a) 17000 ftb) 22000 ftc) 14000 ftd) 10000 ft

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33.1.2.1 (2134)(For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Given the following :Head wind component 50 ktTemperature ISA + 10°CBrake release mass 65000kgTrip fuel available 18000kgWhat is the maximum possible trip distance ?a) 2740 NMb) 3100 NMc) 3480 NMd) 2540 NM

33.1.2.1 (2135)(For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately :a) -5%b) 5%c) 8%d) -7%

33.1.2.1 (2136)(For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15°CThe fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is :a) 1700 kgb) 1650 kgc) 1750 kgd) 1800 kg

33.1.2.1 (2137)(For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033-12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)Given : Distance B - C : Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature : - 52°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B : 64 500 kgThe fuel required from B - C is :a) 20 500 kgb) 20 800 kgc) 17 100 kgd) 16 800 kg

33.1.2.1 (2138)(For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033-12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature Deviation from ISA : -14°C Tailwind component : 40 kt Gross mass at B : 50 200 kgThe fuel required from B - C is :a) 6150 kgb) 5850 kgc) 7300 kgd) 7050 kg

33.1.2.1 (2139)(For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033-12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM Cruise 300

KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +20°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at C : 60 000 kgThe fuel required from C to D is :a) 4620 kgb) 4200 kgc) 3350 kgd) 3680 kg

33.1.2.1 (2140)(For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature : - 40°C Tailwind component : 70 kt Gross mass at B : 53 200 kgThe fuel required from B - C is :a) 1810 kgb) 1940 kgc) 2800 kgd) 2670 kg

33.1.2.1 (2141)(For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately :a) +7.6%b) +5.3%c) +2.3%d) -3.6%

33.1.2.1 (2142)(For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately :a) 7%b) 3%c) -4%d) -10%

33.1.2.1 (2143)(For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind component 45ktTemperature ISA - 10°CCruise altitude 29000ftLanding mass 55000kgThe (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are :a) (a) 17100kg(b) 6hr 07 minb) (a) 18000kg(b)5hr 50 minc) (a) 20000kg(b) 6hr 40 mind) (a) 16000kg(b) 6hr 25 min

33.1.2.1 (2144)(For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following apply :Tail wind component 50 ktTemperature ISA +10°CBrake release mass 65000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

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a) (a) 18100 kg(b) 7hr 20 minb) (a) 15800 kg(b) 6hr 00 minc) (a) 21800 kg(b) 9hr 25 mind) (a) 19000 kg(b) 7hr 45min

33.1.2.1 (2145)(For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply:Temperature ISA +15°CBrake release mass 62000kgTrip time 5hr 20 minWhat is the trip fuel ?a) 13500kgb) 13000kgc) 13200kgd) 13800kg

33.1.2.1 (2146)(For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Temperature ISA -10°CCruise altitude 29000ftLanding mass 45000kgTrip fuel available 16000kgWhat is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted ?a) 35 ktb) 15ktc) 70ktd) 0

33.1.2.1 (2147)(For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply :Tail wind component 10ktTemperature ISA +10°CBrake release mass 63000kgTrip fuel available 20000kgWhat is the maximum possible trip distance ?a) 3740 NMb) 3640 NMc) 3500 NMd) 3250 NM

33.1.2.1 (2148)(For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind 25ktTemperature ISA - 10°CBrake release mass 66000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :a) (a) 14000kg(b) 5hr 35 minb) (a) 15800kg(b)6hr 20 minc) (a) 14600kg(b) 5hr 45 mind) (a) 15000kg(b) 6hr 00 min

33.1.2.1 (2149)(For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind component 25 ktTemperature ISA -10°CCruise altitude 31000ftLanding mass 52000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :a) (a) 14200kg(b) 5 hr 30 minb) (a) 16200kg(b) 5 hr 45 min

c) (a) 13600kg(b) 6 hr 30 mind) (a) 12000kg(b) 5 hr 15 min

33.1.2.2 (2150)Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be :a) 42195 kg.b) 42093 kg.c) 42210 kg.d) 42312 kg.

33.1.2.2 (2151)Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kgLoad= 8110 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at alternate should be :a) 42195 kg.b) 41110 kg.c) 42210 kg.d) 42312 kg.

33.1.2.2 (2152)Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgTrip fuel (TF)= 2040 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel= 5% of trip fuelWhich of the listed estimated masses is correct?a) Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg.b) Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.c) Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.d) Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.

33.1.2.2 (2153)(For this question use annex 033-12310A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)- HOLDING PLANNING The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is :a) 1090 kgb) 1010 kgc) 1310 kgd) 2180 kg

33.1.2.2 (2154)(For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)- HOLDING PLANNING)The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern,at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is :a) 1635 kgb) 1090 kgc) 1690 kgd) 1125 kg

33.1.2.2 (2155)(For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg

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Tailwind component : 50 ktThe Alternate fuel required is :a) 2500 kgb) 2750 kgc) 3050 kgd) 2900 kg

33.1.2.2 (2156)(For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 50 000kg Headwind component : 25 ktThe alternate fuel required is :a) 2800 kgb) 2550 kgc) 2900 kgd) 2650 kg

33.1.2.3 (2157)A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve corresponds to:a) 45 minutes at holding speedb) 2 hours at cruise consumptionc) 1 hour at holding speedd) 30 minutes at holding speed

33.1.2.3 (2158)In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:a) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome Bb) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome Bc) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome Ad) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A

33.1.2.3 (2159)Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be:a) at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying timeb) at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so requirec) laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in the operating manuald) at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time

33.1.2.4 (2160)The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway.What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?a) 13 000 kgb) 13 050 kgc) 12 700 kgd) 10 000 kg

33.1.2.4 (2161)For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given:Taxi fuel 600 kgFuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/hFuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/hAlternate fuel 10 200 kgPlanned flight time to destination 6 hForecast visibility at destination 2000 mThe minimum ramp fuel required is:a) 77 800 kgb) 76 100 kgc) 80 500 kgd) 79 200 kg

33.1.2.4 (2162)(For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min. Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find the minimum block fuel.a) 47 US gallons.b) 37 US gallons.c) 60 US gallons.d) 470 US gallons.

33.1.2.4 (2163)(For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min. Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find the minimum block fuel.a) 91 US gallons.b) 86 US gallons.c) 76 US gallons.d) 118 US gallons.

33.1.2.4 (2164)(For this question use annex 033-11272A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:. Take-off mass: 168 500 kg. Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM. Flight level FL 370, ""Long Range"" flight regime . Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt. Total anti-ice set on ""ON"". Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg, final reserve: 2 000 kg. Ignore alternate fuel.The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption.The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is:a) 20 500 kgb) 23 000 kgc) 22 500 kgd) 23 300 kg

33.1.2.5 (2165)Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200 kg maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900kg minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kgFind the maximum allowable take-off fuel:

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a) 11 100 kgb) 11 400 kgc) 14 400 kgd) 8 600 kg

33.1.3.0 (2166)The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:a) 235 l/hb) 206 l/hc) 220 l/hd) 176 l/h

33.1.3.1 (2167)During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel?a) 12 minutes.b) 63 minutes.c) 44 minutes.d) 4 minutes.

33.1.3.1 (2168)For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 3h06minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel.Taxi fuel: 8 kgBlock fuel: 118 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?a) 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel.b) 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.c) 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.d) 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.

33.1.3.1 (2169)For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 2h42minThe reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel.Taxi fuel: 9 kgBlock fuel: 136 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time?a) 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel.b) 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel.c) 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel.d) 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.

33.1.3.2 (2170)A VFR flight planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip.a) 30.3 US gallons/hour

b) 33.0 US gallons/hourc) 37.9 US gallons/hourd) 21.3 US gallons/hour

33.1.3.2 (2171)A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?a) The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intactb) At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanksc) At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallonsd) At destination the required reserves remain intact.

33.1.3.4 (2172)Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary?a) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.b) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely.c) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel.d) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsability.

33.1.3.4 (2173)After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:a) 24 minb) 20 minc) 10 min 40 secd) 16 min

33.1.4.1 (2174)During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is:a) 5649 kHz.b) 11336 kHz.c) 17286 kHz.d) 123.9 MHz.

33.1.4.1 (2175)(For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N,

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010°14'E).a) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHzb) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHzc) FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHzd) MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz

33.1.4.1 (2176)(For this question use annex 033-9726A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS.a) 126.125 MHzb) 135.775 MHzc) 112.250 MHZd) 126.125 kHz

33.1.4.1 (2177)((For this question use annex 033-9727A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET.a) 127.20 MHzb) 127.20 kHzc) 128.525 MHzd) 118.10 MHz

33.1.4.2 (2178)(For this question use annex 033-9728A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ?a) VOR/DMEb) NDBc) TACANd) VOR

33.1.4.2 (2179)(For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E?a) VORb) NDBc) VOR/DMEd) VORTAC

33.1.4.2 (2180)(For this question use annex 033-9730A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E?a) VOR/DMEb) NDBc) VORd) TACAN

33.2.1.1 (2181)A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of thatflight to Limoges.a) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed.b) The airline's ""Operations "" Department has to tansmit a change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure.c) It is not possible to plan another destination and the fIight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered).d) The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival.

33.2.1.1 (2182)A ""current flight plan"" is a :a) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.b) filed flight plan.c) flight plan with the correct time of departure.d) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC.

33.2.1.1 (2183)Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct?a) In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the time of departure.b) Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.c) A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed.d) A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.

33.2.1.1 (2184)In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as :a) F320b) FL320c) S3200d) 32000

33.2.1.1 (2185)When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than :a) 30 minutes flying time or 370 kmb) 20 minutes flying time or 150 kmc) 15 minutes flying time or 100 kmd) 1 hour flying time or 500 km

33.2.1.1 (2186)In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as :a) N0470b) KN470

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c) 0470Kd) N470

33.2.1.1 (2187)In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the :a) estimated off-block timeb) estimated time over the first point en routec) estimated take-off timed) allocated slot time

33.2.1.1 (2188)In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as :a) TASb) IASc) CASd) Groundspeed

33.2.1.1 (2189)For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least :a) 10 occasionsb) 20 occasionsc) 30 occasionsd) 50 occasions

33.2.1.1 (2190)In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is :a) Cb) Bc) Ad) P

33.2.1.1 (2191)(For this question use annex 033-11261A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 13: ""Time"" is:a) estimated off-block time.b) planned take-off time.c) planned engine start time.d) the time of flight plan filing.

33.2.1.1 (2192)(For this question use annex 033-11262A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: ""Total estimated time"" is the time elapsed from:a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.b) taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.

c) take-off until landing.d) taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.

33.2.1.1 (2193)(For this question use annex 033-12275A)In the ATS flight plan Item 10, ""standard equipment"" is considered to be :a) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILSb) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponderc) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponderd) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder

33.2.1.1 (2194)(For this question use annex 033-12276A)In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route :a) the letters ""DCT"" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS routeb) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that routec) the words ""as cleared"" should be enteredd) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit.

33.2.1.1 (2195)(For this question use annex 033-12277A)In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered ?a) OTHER INFORMATIONb) EQUIPMENTc) ROUTEd) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION

33.2.1.1 (2196)An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence category is :a) heavy ""H""b) heavy/medium ""H/M""c) medium ""M""d) medium plus ""M+""

33.2.1.1 (2197)For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :a) medium ""M""b) heavy ""H""c) light ""L""d) unclassified ""U""

33.2.1.1 (2198)(For this question use annex 033-12280A)When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be

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entered :a) ""ZZZZ"" followed by an entry in Item 18b) ""XXXX"" followed by an entry in Item 18c) the most descriptive abbreviationd) ""NONE""

33.2.1.1 (2199)(For this question use annex 033-12281A)Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes ""NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT"". In this case ""NUMBER"" means :a) the number of aircraft flying in a groupb) the registration number of the aircraftc) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL)d) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643

33.2.1.1 (2200)When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as :a) 155b) 1H55c) 115Md) 115

33.2.1.1 (2201)When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in :a) UTCb) Local mean timec) local standard timed) Central European Time

33.2.1.1 (2202)In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) :a) Nb) N/Sc) Gd) X

33.2.1.1 (2203)(For this question use annex 033-12285A)In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always :a) be the RTF callsign to be usedb) include the aircraft registration markingc) include the operating agency designatord) include an indication of the aircraft type

33.2.1.1 (2204)In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a ""change of speed"" is defined as :a) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or moreb) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more

c) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or mored) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more

33.2.1.1 (2205)In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :a) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriateb) SIDs should be entered but not STARsc) STARS should be entered but not SIDsd) neither SID nor STAR should be entered

33.2.1.1 (2206)(For this question use annex 033-12289A)In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by :a) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carriedb) circling the relevant boxc) placing a tick in the relevant boxd) listing the items carried on the ""REMARKS"" line

33.2.1.1 (2207)When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :a) Yb) N/Sc) Gd) X

33.2.1.1 (2208)In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing :a) ""TBN"" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant boxb) the plan should be filed with the relevant box blankc) an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceededd) the plan may not be filed until the information is available

33.2.1.1 (2209)In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of :a) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical milesb) VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometresc) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometresd) full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres

33.2.1.1 (2210)An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with :a) EDDM 0215b) EDDM 1415c) EDDM 1215d) EDDM 2H15

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33.2.1.1 (2211)In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as :a) 4135N00415Eb) 41°35' N 04° 15'Ec) N04135E0415d) N4135 E00415

33.2.2.0 (2212)An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another.In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed 180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows:a) N0180b) K0210c) K0180d) K0150

33.2.2.0 (2213)On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked ""speed"" the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise.This speed is:a) The true airspeedb) The equivalent airspeedc) The indicated airspeedd) The estimated ground speed

33.2.2.0 (2214)In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is :a) Cb) Pc) Sd) A

33.2.2.0 (2215)In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to :a) go off blocksb) take-offc) start-upd) pass the departure beacon

33.2.2.0 (2216)When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass?a) maximum certified take-off massb) estimated take-off massc) maximum certified landing massd) actual take-off mass

33.2.2.0 (2217)If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your flight plan, you write:a) ZZZZb) AAAAc) XXXXd) ////

33.2.2.0 (2218)The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is:a) true air speedb) indicated air speedc) ground speedd) calibrated air speed

33.2.2.0 (2219)In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to:a) the total usable fuel on boardb) the required fuel for the flightc) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutesd) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel

33.2.2.0 (2220)The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is:a) 7 000 kgb) 2 700 kgc) 5 700 kgd) 10 000 kg

33.2.2.1 (2221)Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg, maximum landing mass 56200 kg, maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg, dry operating mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 14 500 kg, estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg, minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.Find: maximum additional loada) 3 000 kgb) 4 000 kgc) 7 000 kgd) 5 600 kg

33.2.2.1 (2222)The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3 kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:a) 2h 49minb) 1h 35minc) 2h 04mind) 2h 52min

33.2.2.1 (2223)The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 136 kgFlight time: 2h45minCalculated reserve

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fuel: 30% of trip fuelFuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)Taxi fuel: 3 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:a) 3h34minb) 2h45minc) 2h49mind) 3h38min

33.2.3.1 (2224)How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?a) 3:00 hours.b) 1:00 hour.c) 0:30 hours.d) 0:10 hours.

33.2.3.1 (2225)You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned route.Which of the following statements is correct?a) The route according to the flight plan is accepted.b) The filed deviation is not accepted.c) You will get a separate clearance for the deviation.d) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan.

33.2.3.1 (2226)The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTCThe estimated take-off time is 1825 UTCThe IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:a) 1715 UTCb) 1725 UTCc) 1745 UTCd) 1755 UTC

33.2.3.1 (2227)It is possible, in flight, to:1 - file an IFR flight plan2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan4 - close an active VFR flight planWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4b) 2001-02-04c) 1 - 2 - 3d) 2 - 3 - 4

33.2.3.1 (2228)For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:a) the estimated off-block timeb) the time at which the flight plan is filed.c) the time of take-off.d) the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.

33.2.3.3 (2229)From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan

notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying watera) 2+4b) 1+5c) 1+2+3d) 3+4+5

33.2.4.0 (2230)If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of minutes is:a) 30b) 15c) 10d) 45

33.2.5.1 (2231)When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by :a) 30 minutes or moreb) 45 minutes or morec) 60 minutes or mored) 90 minutes or more

33.2.5.2 (2232)During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are:a) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes.b) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes.c) TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes.d) TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.

33.2.5.2 (2233)An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible?a) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase ""cancelling my IFR flight"".b) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan.c) No, only ATC can order you to do this.d) Yes, but only with permission from ATC.

33.3.0.0 (2234)An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French aerodrome, spend the night there and return the next day. Where will he find the information concerning parking and landing fees ?a) in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

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b) in the AGA chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)c) in the GEN chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)d) by telephoning the aerodrome's local chamber of commerce, this type of information not being published

33.3.1.1 (2235)(For this question use annex 033-9722A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.a) Magnetic course 102°, distance 56 NMb) Magnetic course 282°, distance 56 NMc) Magnetic course 102°, distance 82 NMd) Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM

33.3.1.1 (2236)(For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.a) Magnetic course 287°, distance 41 NMb) Magnetic course 252°, distance 41 NMc) Magnetic course 108°, distance 60 NMd) Magnetic course 287°, distance 60 NM

33.3.1.1 (2237)(For this question use annex 033-9724A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). Find magnetic course and the distance.a) Magnetic course 086°, distance 22 NMb) Magnetic course 093°, distance 41 NMc) Magnetic course 267°, distance 22 NMd) Magnetic course 086°, distance 32 NM

33.3.1.1 (2238)(For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the initial great circle grid course is :a) 344b) 353c) 347d) 350

33.3.1.1 (2239)(For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route Manual chart NAP)On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N054°32'W), the (a) average true course, and(b) distance, are :a) (a) 262°(b) 1720 NMb) a) 281°(b) 2730 NMc) a) 244°(b) 1520 NMd) a) 281°(b) 1877 NM

33.3.1.1 (2240)(For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be :a) 106°b) 080°c) 096°d) 066°

33.3.1.1 (2241)(For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be :a) 177° (G)b) 194° (G)c) 172° (G)d) 353° (G)

33.3.2.1 (2242)A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC.With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is :a) 27,1 NMb) 15,0 NMc) 11,7 NMd) 30,2 NM

33.3.2.1 (2243)A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance?a) 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)b) 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)c) 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)d) 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)

33.3.2.1 (2244)The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?a) 174 NMb) 203 NMc) 188 NMd) 193 NM

33.3.3.1 (2245)(For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2)A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is 123 US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power.a) 752 NM

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b) 852 NMc) 610 NMd) 602 NM

33.3.3.1 (2246)(For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5)Given:FL 75Lean mixtureFull throttle2300 RPMTake-off fuel: 444 lbsTake-off from MSLFind:Endurance in hours.a) 5:12b) 5:20c) 4:42d) 5:23

33.3.3.1 (2247)(For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2)A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent.Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours and 12 minutes.Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM, 20°C lean.Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C.The minimum block fuel is:a) 283 lbsb) 268 lbsc) 252 lbsd) 215 lbs

33.3.3.1 (2248)(For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent.Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 minutes.Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM, 20°C lean.Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C.The minimum block fuel is:a) 265 lbsb) 208 lbsc) 270 lbsd) 250 lbs

33.3.6.1 (2249)(For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).a) 76 NMb) 87 NMc) 97 NMd) 65 NM

33.3.6.1 (2250)(For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).a) 19 minb) 10 minc) 17 mind) 8 min

33.3.6.1 (2251)(For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).a) 273 kgb) 263 kgc) 210 kgd) 320 kg

33.4.1.1 (2252)(For this question use annex 033-12320A )Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ?a) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180b) 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180c) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL180d) 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL160

33.4.1.1 (2253)(For this question use annex.033-12321A )Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ?a) moderateb) severec) lightd) nil

33.4.1.1 (2254)(For this question use annex 033-12322A )Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ?a) moderate or severeb) moderatec) lightd) nil

33.4.1.1 (2255)(For this question use annex 033-12323A )The surface system over VIENNA (48°N016°E) is aa) cold front moving eastb) warm front moving north

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c) stationary occlued frontd) cold front moving west

33.4.1.1 (2256)(For this question use annex 033-12324A )In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N009°W) the tropopause is at about FLa) 360b) 350c) 300d) 270

33.4.1.1 (2257)(For this question use annex 033-12325A )Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?a) broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL270b) well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270c) isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270d) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270

33.4.1.1 (2258)(For this question use annex 033-12326A )Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?a) severeb) moderatec) lightd) nil

33.4.1.1 (2259)(For this question use annex 033-12327A )The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) immediately north of TUNIS (36°N010°E) isa) 190/95b) 280/110c) 250/85d) 180/105

33.4.1.1 (2260)(For this question use annex 033-12328A )Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is:a) 230b) 270c) 310d) 360

33.4.1.1 (2261)(For this question use annex 033-11193A)What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the ISA over 50°N 010°W ?a) -2b) 2c) 9d) 13

33.4.1.1 (2262)(For this question use annex 033-11202A)Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN (53°N 13°E) ?a) FL250b) FL 210c) FL290d) None

33.4.1.1 (2263)(For this question use annex 033-11181A)Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ?a) Engine flame out and windscreen damageb) Severe attenuation in the HF R/T bandc) Reduced visibilityd) There is no hazard

33.4.1.1 (2264)(For this question use annex 033-11182A)The surface weather system over England (53°N 002°W) isa) an occluded front moving eastb) a depression moving northc) a warm front moving southeastd) a cold front moving east

33.4.1.1 (2265)(For this question use annex 033-11183A)In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is at abouta) FL400b) FL340c) FL350d) FL380

33.4.1.1 (2266)(For this question use annex 033-11184A)Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N 008°W) ?a) Severeb) Moderatec) Lightd) Nil

33.4.1.1 (2267)(For this question use annex 033-11185A)Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E)a) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180b) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180c) 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180d) Nil

33.4.1.1 (2268)(For this question use annex 033-11186A)Which best describes be maximum

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intensity of icing, if any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E) ?a) Moderateb) Lightc) Severed) Nil

33.4.1.1 (2269)(For this question use annex 033-11187A)Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ?a) Nilb) Lightc) Moderated) Severe

33.4.1.2 (2270)(For this question use annex 033-12314A )The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is:a) 290/75b) 310/85c) 310/75d) 100/75

33.4.1.2 (2271)(For this question use annex 033-12315A)What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a true course of 270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ?a) -50b) -48c) -52d) -54

33.4.1.2 (2272)(For this question use annex 033-12316A )The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W isa) 310/40b) 334/40c) 135/40d) 155/40

33.4.1.2 (2273)(For this question use annex 033-12317A )What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ?a) -10b) -55c) 2d) 10

33.4.1.2 (2274)(For this question use annex 033-12318A)The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W isa) 300/60b) 300/70c) 320/60d) 115/60

33.4.1.2 (2275)(For this question use annex 033-12319A)The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W isa) tail wind 55 ktb) tail wind 40 ktc) tail wind 70 ktd) headwind 55 kt

33.4.1.2 (2276)(For this question use annex 033-11191A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 60°N 015°W isa) 290/155b) 320/155c) 110/155d) 290/185

33.4.1.2 (2277)(For this question use annex 033-11192A)The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach 0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to 010°W isa) 40 kt headwind componentb) 55 kt headwind componentc) 35 kt tailwind componentd) 25 kt tailwind component

33.4.1.2 (2278)(For this question use annex 033-11194A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 40°N 040°E isa) 330/75b) 330/85c) 150/75d) 300/75

33.4.1.2 (2279)(For this question use annex 033-11201A)What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?a) -47b) -46c) -49d) -50

33.4.1.2 (2280)(For this question use annex 033-11188A)The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is :a) 300/140b) 300/100c) 300/160d) 290/110

33.4.1.2 (2281)(For this question use annex 033-11189A)The wind velocity over ITALY isa) a maximum of 110 kt at FL380

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b) 130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chartc) a maximum of 160 kt at FL 380d) 110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart

33.4.1.2 (2282)(For this question use annex 033-11190A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 50°N 040°E is:a) 020/70b) 350/70c) 200/70d) 020/80

33.4.1.3 (2283)(For this question use annex 033-12329A )What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC?a) 5 to 7 at 400b) 3 to 4 at 800c) 5 to 7 at 800d) 3 to 4 at 400

33.4.1.3 (2284)(For this question use annex 033-12330A )The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE TAFs totals (hours)a) 27b) 9c) 18d) 20

33.4.1.3 (2285)(For this question use annex 033-12331A )The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC werea) 1 to 2 at 3000b) 1 to 4 at 3000c) 3 to 4 at 2000d) 3 to 4 at 800

33.4.1.3 (2286)(For this question use annex 033-12332A)The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 1330 UTC wasa) 270/04b) 300/05c) 270/08d) 180/12

33.4.1.3 (2287)(For this question use annex 033-12333A )Which best describes the weather, if any, at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ?a) light rain associated with thunderstormsb) frequent rain showersc) fogd) nil

33.4.1.3 (2288)(For this question use annex 033-11195A)What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ?a) 5 to 7 at 500b) 3 to 4 at 500c) 5 to 7 at 1200d) 5 to 7 at 2000

33.4.1.3 (2289)(For this question use annex 033-11196A)What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR (EGLL) ?a) 1500b) 2200c) 5000d) 10

33.4.1.3 (2290)(For this question use annex 033-11197A)Which affects the visibility forecast for 0000 UTC at LAHORE (OPLA) ?a) Smokeb) Dustc) Hazed) Mist

33.4.1.3 (2291)(For this question use annex 033-11198A)What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ?a) 1000b) 800c) 600d) Nil forecast

33.4.1.3 (2292)A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following information is contained in this METAR ?a) temperature/dewpointb) runway in usec) day/monthd) period of validity

33.4.1.3 (2293)(For this question use annex 033-12334A )What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ?a) 1800b) 1300c) 800d) nil

33.4.1.3 (2294)(For this question use annex 033-12335A )Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ?

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a) light rainb) rain showersc) heavy rain associated with thunderstormsd) nil

33.4.1.3 (2295)(For this question use annex 033-12336A )What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ?a) 30b) 25c) 10d) 5

33.4.1.3 (2296)(For this question use annex 033-12337A )What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ?a) 6000mb) 10kmc) 8000md) 2000m

33.4.1.3 (2297)(For this question use annex 033-12338A )Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC?a) patches of fogb) rain associated with thunderstormsc) CAVOKd) mist and/or fog

33.4.2.1 (2298)(For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ?a) The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg.b) The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north.c) The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200.d) The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends.

33.4.2.1 (2299)(For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is :a) UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATSb) UG1c) UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATSd) UG108 SPI UG1

33.4.2.1 (2300)(For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG

117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is :a) UB282 DGN UB46b) UB284 VILAR UB28c) UB28d) UA6 LSA UG52

33.4.2.1 (2301)(For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is:a) UA34b) UB19 POI UB195c) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34d) UB19 CGC UA25

33.4.2.1 (2302)(For this question use annex 033- 10992A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is:a) UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14b) UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111c) UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115d) UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9

33.4.2.2 (2303)(For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg ?a) 100 NMb) 38 NMc) 64NMd) 62NM

33.4.2.2 (2304)(For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find : 141°. This is :a) The magnetic great circle course from Biggin to Abbeville.b) The magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin.c) The average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville.d) The radial, referenced to true north, of Biggin to fly inbound.

33.4.2.2 (2305)(For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Carles-de-Gaulle)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London. Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A.a) 74.5 NMb) 72.5 NMc) 56 NMd) 83 NM

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33.4.2.2 (2306)(For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NMDetermine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6.a) 24.5 NMb) 33 NMc) 36.5 NMd) 31 NM

33.4.2.2 (2307)(For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow(N51 29.2 W000 27.9).Find the average true course from Paris to London.a) 322°.b) 142°.c) 330°.d) 343°.

33.4.2.2 (2308)(For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9).Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the direct distance plus 10%.The preplanning distance is:a) 207 NM.b) 188 NM.c) 308 NM.d) 218 NM.

33.4.2.2 (2309)(For this question use annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR . Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is 76 NMDetermine the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD.a) 49 NMb) 60 NMc) 100 NMd) 55 NM

33.4.2.2 (2310)(For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London. SID is ABB 8A. Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and distance to top of climb 50NMDetermine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6.a) MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA -5°b) MC 169°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5°c) MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5°d) MC 169°, GS 450 kt, WCA +4°

33.4.2.2 (2311)(For this question use annexes 033-9710A, 033-9710B and 033-9710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS 430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM. Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent.a) MC 321°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°b) MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA +3°c) MC 319°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°d) MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°

33.4.2.2 (2312)(For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is,a) 050°/47 NMb) 230°/97NMc) 133°/85 NMd) 052°/97 NM

33.4.2.2 (2313)(For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6 )The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is:a) 337°/46 NMb) 157°/58 NMc) 337°/31 NMd) 337°/58 NM

33.4.2.2 (2314)(For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1 (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is:a) 352°/72 NMb) 352°/96 NMc) 339°/80 NMd) 339°/125 NM

33.4.2.2 (2315)(For this question use annex 033- 10996A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL 112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E) on airway A7 is:a) 024°/ 73 NMb) 023°/ 73 NMc) 024°/ 20 NMd) 024°/ 47 NM

33.4.2.2 (2316)(For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)The

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magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is:a) 169°/42 NMb) 349°/26 NMc) 169°/68 NMd) 349°/42 NM

33.4.2.2 (2317)(For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is:a) 279°/85 NMb) 279°/114 NMc) 311°/114 NMd) 311°/85 NM

33.4.2.2 (2318)(For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway VR3 is:a) 297°/57 NMb) 117°/57 NMc) 297°/70 NMd) 117°/71 NM

33.4.2.2 (2319)(For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is:a) 052°/50 NMb) 007°/60 NMc) 105°/105 NMd) 132°/43 NM

33.4.2.2 (2320)(For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:a) 061°/37 NMb) 048°/46 NMc) 061°/28 NMd) 041°/78 NM

33.4.2.2 (2321)(For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is:a) 346°/45 NMb) 346°/64 NMc) 166°/64 NMd) 346°/43 NM

33.4.2.2 (2322)(For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is:a) 332°/76 NMb) 152°/42 NMc) 322°/60 NMd) 332°/118 NM

33.4.2.2 (2323)(For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is:a) 094°/ 90 NMb) 067°/ 122 NMc) 113°/ 142 NMd) 046°/ 70 NM

33.4.2.3 (2324)(For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That means :a) VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used.b) Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned, VOR is not available.c) VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation.d) ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation.

33.4.2.3 (2325)(For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1 )The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a:a) TACAN only, channel 84, (frequency 113.7 MHz)b) TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz onlyc) TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz onlyd) VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz

33.4.2.3 (2326)(For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are:a) NOT frequency paired, and have different identifiersb) frequency paired, and have different identifiersc) NOT frequency paired, and have the same identifierd) frequency paired, and have the same identifier

33.4.2.3 (2327)(For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on:a) Frequency 440 kHz, BFO onb) Channel 440, BFO on

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c) Channel 440, BFO offd) Frequency 440 kHz, BFO off

33.4.2.3 (2328)(For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by:a) an NDB callisign Nb) a TACAN callsign RONc) a fan marker callsign LPd) an NDB callsign LF

33.4.2.3 (2329)(For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a:a) VOR/TACAN, frequency 115.6 MHzb) VOR only, frequency 115.6 MHzc) DME only, channel 115.6d) TACAN only, frequency 115.6 MHz

33.4.2.3 (2330)(For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 004°53'E) is a:a) TACAN, channel 87, frequency 114.0 MHzb) VOR, frequency 114.0 MHz, and TACAN channel 87c) TACAN, channel 114.0d) TACAN, channel 87, and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz

33.4.2.3 (2331)(For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) is :a) a VOR only, frequency 115.0 MHzb) a VOR/DME, frequency 115.0MHzc) an NDB only, frequency 115.0 kHzd) a TACAN, frequency 115.0 MHz

33.4.2.3 (2332)(For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is:a) an NDB, frequency 386 kHzb) a VOR, frequency 386 MHzc) a VOR/DME, on channel 386d) a TACAN, on channel 386

33.4.2.3 (2333)(For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a:a) VOR/DME, frequency 114.1 MHz, and NDB frequency 408 kHzb) VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN channel 408c) VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN frequency 408 MHzd) VOR/DME only, frequency 114.1 MHz

33.4.2.3 (2334)(For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is a:a) VOR only, identifier LULb) VOR, identifier LUL, frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXIc) VOR/DME and NDB, identifier LXId) VOR/DME only, identifier LUL

33.4.2.3 (2335)(For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 005°53'W) is :a) an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, NOT continuous operationb) a TACAN, channel 420c) a fan marker, frequency 420 kHzd) an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, continuous operation

33.4.2.3 (2336)(For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N 008°53'W) is :a) a VOR/DME, frequency 113.3 MHzb) an NDB, frequency 352 kHzc) a TACAN, frequency 113.3 kHzd) a VOR only, frequency 113.3 MHz

33.4.2.4 (2337)(For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ?a) The minimum grid safe altitude on this route is 13400 ft above MSL.b) The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft.c) The minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft.d) The minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10800 ft above MSL.

33.4.2.4 (2338)(For this question use annex 033- 11021A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection (50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above:a) FL250b) FL140c) FL160d) FL200

33.4.2.4 (2339)An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that:a) the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ftb) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ftc) the airway base is 3500 ft MSLd) the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL

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33.4.2.4 (2340)(For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)The minimum enroute altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:a) FL250b) FL200c) FL210d) FL260

33.4.2.4 (2341)((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is :a) FL290b) FL245c) FL250d) FL330

33.4.2.4 (2342)(For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1 (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N 003°16'W) is :a) FL110b) FL80c) 4100ft MSLd) 2900 ft MSL

33.4.2.4 (2343)An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that:a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80.b) the airway base is 1500 ft MSL.c) the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80.d) 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).

33.4.2.4 (2344)(For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is :a) FL140b) FL60c) 2800 ft MSLd) 1000 ft MSL

33.4.2.4 (2345)An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the :a) minimum enroute altitude (MEA)b) maximum authorised altitude (MAA)c) minimum holding altitude (MHA)d) base of the airway (AGL)

33.4.2.4 (2346)(For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55°27'N 018°10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is :a) FL100b) FL60c) 1000ftd) 2500 ft

33.4.2.5 (2347)Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with:a) magnetic courseb) magnetic headingsc) true coursed) true headings

33.4.2.5 (2348)(For this question use annex 033-3906A or Route Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-De-Gaulle (20-3))Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow).Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.a) 387 ft.b) 268 ft.c) 217 ft.d) 2 ft.

33.4.2.5 (2349)(For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route Manual chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2))Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow).Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome.a) 80 ft.b) 77 ft.c) 177 ft.d) 100 ft.

33.4.2.5 (2350)(For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow))Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.a) BIG 115.1 MHzb) EPM 316 kHzc) OCK 115.3 MHzd) BIG 115.1 kHz

33.4.2.5 (2351)(For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10-2B))Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow the following route to EKRON int:a) BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON intb) TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int

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c) WIL R018 outbound to EKRON intd) HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int

33.4.2.5 (2352)(For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route Manual SID chart for MUNICH(10-3C,10-3D))Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L ?a) KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRAb) KEMPTEN THREE ECHOc) KEMPTEN THREE QUEBECd) KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER

33.4.2.5 (2353)(For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D))The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:a) 7000 ft and 220ktb) 9000ft and 220ktc) 7000ft and 250ktd) 9000ft and 250kt

33.4.2.5 (2354)(For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (20-2))The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is :a) 96 NMb) 83 NMc) 88 NMd) 73 NM

33.4.2.5 (2355)(For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-3))Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport?a) West sector 2100 ft within 25 NMb) West sector 2300 ft within 25 NMc) East sector 2100 ft within 50 NMd) East sector 2300 ft within 50 NM

33.4.2.5 (2356)(For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-2A,B))For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is :a) VTBb) CJNc) CENTAd) MOTIL

33.4.2.5 (2357)(For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route Manual SID charts for ZURICH (10-3))Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16?

a) ALBIX 7Sb) ALBIX 7Ac) ALBIX 6Hd) ALBIX 6E

33.4.2.5 (2358)(For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3B))The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:a) 67 NMb) 35 NMc) 59 NMd) 52 NM

33.4.2.5 (2359)(For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3))Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L?a) Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitudeb) Cross ANDIK below FL60c) The distance to ANDIK is 25 NMd) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME

33.4.2.5 (2360)(For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (10-2A,B))The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08 L/R is:a) AALEN 1T, IAF ROKILb) AALEN 1T, IAF MBGc) NDG 1T, IAF ROKILd) DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL

33.4.3.1 (2361)From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?a) NOTAMb) AIP (Air Information Publication)c) SIGMETd) ATCC broadcasts

33.4.3.1 (2362)From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are activea) NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication)b) Only AIP (Air Information Publication)c) SIGMETd) RAD/NAV charts

33.4.3.1 (2363)From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ?a) AIP (Air Information Publication)

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b) ATCC broadcastsc) NOTAMd) SIGMET

33.4.3.1 (2364)From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and health formalities ?a) AIP (Air Information Publication)b) NAV/RAD chartsc) ATCCd) NOTAM

33.4.3.2 (2365)(For this question use annex 033-3312A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR flightplan ?a) FL 310b) FL 330c) FL 320d) FL 300

33.4.3.2 (2366)You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is:a) 90b) 80c) 75d) 70

33.4.3.2 (2367)An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be:a) 140b) 120c) 130d) 150

33.4.3.2 (2368)(For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1)Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACHa) 35500 ftb) 36200 ftc) 36700 ftd) maximum operating altitude

33.4.3.2 (2369)(For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1 and Figure 4.2.1)Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL . Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310a) 4%b) 1%c) 10%d) 0%

33.4.3.2 (2370)(For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1)Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74 MACHa) 34500 ftb) 33800 ftc) 35300 ftd) maximum operating altitude

33.4.3.2 (2371)On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant:a) the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ftb) the minimum flight level is FL 80c) the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ftd) the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft

33.4.3.2 (2372)(For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is:a) FL250b) FL260c) FL240d) FL230

33.4.3.2 (2373)(For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is :a) FL310b) FL290c) FL300d) FL320

33.4.3.2 (2374)(For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE 114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is:a) FL70b) FL50

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c) FL60d) FL80

33.4.3.2 (2375)(For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is :a) FL290b) FL280c) FL300d) FL310

33.4.3.2 (2376)(For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is:a) FL310b) FL290c) FL300d) FL270

33.4.3.2 (2377)(For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is :a) FL170b) FL80c) FL60d) FL50

33.4.3.2 (2378)(For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N 012°24'E) to RODING RDG 114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is :a) FL80b) FL40c) FL50d) FL70

33.4.3.2 (2379)(For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49°24'N 005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is :a) FL60b) FL70c) FL50d) FL40

33.4.3.2 (2380)An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height

rules on a course of 180° (M) is:a) FL100b) FL90c) FL95d) FL105

33.4.3.2 (2381)An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is:a) FL310b) FL320c) FL290d) FL300

33.4.3.2 (2382)On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:a) 25 NMb) 20 NMc) 15 NMd) 10 NM

33.4.3.2 (2383)An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level you must fly is:a) 100b) 90c) 85d) 80

33.4.3.5 (2384)An aeroplane has the following masses:ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300 kgContingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kgTaxi= 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg.The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:a) 4 300 kg.b) 6 185 kg.c) 9 000 kg.d) 6 400 kg.

33.4.3.6 (2385)(For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2))The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is :a) 280 ftb) 200 ftc) 400 ftd) 480 ft

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33.4.3.6 (2386)(For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6))The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an alitude of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ----------a) (i) 2000 ft (ii) 160°b) (i) 200 ft (ii) 223°c) (i) 3000 ft (ii) 160°d) (i) 3000 ft (ii) 223°

33.4.3.6 (2387)(For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1))The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is:a) 4000 ftb) 3500 ftc) 2067 ftd) 1567 ft

33.4.3.6 (2388)(For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X)The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is :a) 100 ftb) 88 ftc) 300 ftd) 188 ft

33.4.3.6 (2389)(For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1))The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out, is:a) 480 ftb) 405 ftc) 275 ftd) 200 ft

33.4.3.6 (2390)(For this question use annex 033- 11063A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 (21-2))The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are :a) Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ftb) Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ftc) Cross at FL80 descend to FL70d) Cross at FL60 and maintain

33.4.3.6 (2391)(For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4))The ILS frequency and identifier are:a) 108.7 IMNWb) 108.7 IMSW

c) 108.3 IMNWd) 108.3 IMSW

33.4.3.6 (2392)(For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 (21-8))The ILS localizer course is :a) 088°b) 100°c) 118°d) 268°

33.4.3.6 (2393)(For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2))The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, aeroplane category A is:a) 720mb) 600mc) 800md) 1500m

33.4.3.6 (2394)(For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach (16-3))The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approachs are:a) 400 MSWb) 338 MNWc) 108.6 DMSd) 112.3 MUN

33.5.1.1 (2395)The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:a) 30 min.b) 45 min.c) 60 min.d) Variable with wind velocity.

33.5.1.1 (2396)The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?a) To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load.b) To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.c) To increase the safety of the flight.d) To increase the amount of extra fuel.

33.5.1.1 (2397)When using decision point procedure, you reduce thea) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination.b) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.

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c) reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.d) holding fuel by 30%.

33.5.1.1 (2398)The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?a) 13000 kg.b) 14500 kg.c) 13370 kg.d) 13220 kg.

33.5.1.1 (2399)Mark the correct statement:If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning,a) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point.b) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate.c) a destination alternate is not required.d) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point.

33.5.1.1 (2400)An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that calculation up of usable fuel for a flight for which no destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for:a) 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard conditionsb) 2 hours at normal cruise consumptionc) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours whichever is lessd) 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions

33.5.1.1 (2401)The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg.The minimum ramp fuel load is:a) 77 800 kgb) 74 800 kgc) 79 800 kgd) 77 200 kg

33.5.1.1 (2402)A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :

a) 8120 kg.b) 7380 kg.c) 1845 kg.d) 3500 kg.

33.5.1.1 (2403)A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for :a) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required.b) 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.c) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.d) 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

33.5.1.1 (2404)(For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B)Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t, estimated landing mass at alternate 52 t, final reserve fuel 2 t, alternate fuel 1 t, flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30, cruise: long range FL 330, outside air temperature -30 ° C.Find : estimated trip fuel and timea) 4 800 kg, 01 : 45b) 4 400 kg, 02 : 05c) 4 750 kg, 02 : 00d) 4 600 kg, 02 : 05

33.5.1.1 (2405)(For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 14 500 kg, final reserve fuel 1200 kg, distance to alternate 95 NM, average true track 219°, head wind component 10 ktFind : fuel and time to alternate.a) 1 100 kg, 25 minb) 1 100 kg, 44 minc) 800 kg, 24 mind) 800 kg, 40 min

33.5.1.1 (2406)(For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C)Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600 NM, headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, cruise 0.78 Mach, ISA + 20 ° C, estimated landing weight 55000 kg .Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time.a) 12 400 kg. 03h 55 minb) 11 400 kg. 04h 12 minc) 12 400 kg. 04h 12 mind) 11 400 kg. 03h 55 min

33.5.1.1 (2407)(For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 12 000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg, elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft, elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft.Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane

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(holding) and give the elevation which is relevant.a) 1 180 kg, alternate elevationb) 2 360 kg, alternate elevationc) 1 180 kg,destination elevationd) 2 360 kg,destination elevation

33.5.1.1 (2408)Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kgMaximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kgAssume the following preplanning results:Trip fuel: 1 800 kgAlternate fuel: 1 400 kgHolding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kgDry Operating Mass: 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13 000 kgCatering: 750 kgBaggage: 3 500 kgFind the Take-off Mass (TOM):a) 51 515 kg.b) 55 765 kg.c) 51 425 kg.d) 52 265 kg.

33.5.1.1 (2409)(For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B, 033-11073C and 033-11073D)Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg, the ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt, ISA conditions.Fuel consumption will be:a) 26 950 kgb) 22 860 kgc) 24 900 kgd) 30 117 kg

33.5.1.1 (2410)(For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 033-11074C and 033-11074D)Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg.The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions.Fuel consumption will be:a) 32 657 kgb) 30 117 kgc) 27 577 kgd) 30 371 kg

33.5.1.1 (2411)(For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and using the following data. Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditionsa) 176 NAM/1000 kgb) 187 NAM/1000 kgc) 2994 NAM/1000 kgd) 2807 NAM/1000 kg

33.5.1.1 (2412)(For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following

data. Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditionsa) 2300 kg/hb) 1150 kg/hc) 2994 kg/hd) 1497 kg/h

33.5.1.1 (2413)(For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Find: Final fuel consumption for this legGiven: Long range cruise, Temperature -63°C, FL 330, Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29 mina) 1093 kgb) 1107 kgc) 1100 kgd) 1000 kg

33.5.1.1 (2414)(For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumptionGiven: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.a) 345 NAM, 1994 kgb) 349 NAM, 2000 kgc) 345 NAM, 2000 kgd) 345 NAM, 2006 kg

33.5.1.1 (2415)(For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280, average temperature during climb ISA -10°C, average head wind component 18 ktFind: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74a) 13 minb) 11 minc) 15 mind) 14 min

33.5.1.1 (2416)(For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the enroute climb 280/.74a) 62 NAM, 59 NMb) 59 NAM, 62 NMc) 62 NAM, 71 NMd) 71 NAM, 67 NM

33.5.1.1 (2417)(For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Average

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headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74a) 1138 kgb) 1238 kgc) 1387 kgd) 1040 kg

33.5.1.1 (2418)(For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass at the end of the leg 39000 kgFind: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM) for a twin jet aeroplanea) TAS 433 kt, 227 NAMb) TAS 423 kt, 227 NAMc) TAS 433 kt, 1163 NAMd) TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM

33.5.1.1 (2419)(For this question use annex 033-11238A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight level FL 370 at ""Long Range"" (LR) cruise regime- (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg- Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM- Temperatures: ISA- Headwind component: 70 kt- ""Total anti-ice"" set on ""ON"" for the entire flight- no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumptionThe fuel required from take-off to landing is:a) 29 440 kgb) 27 770 kgc) 20 900 kgd) 22 160 kg

33.5.1.1 (2420)(For this question use annex 033-11241A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight level FL 370 at ""Long Range"" (LR) cruise regime- Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg- Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM- Temperatures: ISA- CG: 37%- Headwind component: 30 kt- ""Total anti-ice"" set on ""ON"" for the entire flight- No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumptionThe fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is:a) 34 430 kgb) 32 480 kgc) 28 720 kgd) 30 440 kg

33.5.1.1 (2421)(For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2)Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74 MachFind: Cruise altitude and expected true air speeda) 25000 ft, 435 ktb) 24000 ft, 445 ktc) 33500 ft, 430 ktd) 33900 ft, 420 kt

33.5.1.1 (2422)(For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters:a) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with minimum drag airspeedb) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with maximum range speedc) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with maximum range speedd) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with minimum drag airspeed

33.5.1.1 (2423)(For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL shall be entered with:a) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternateb) distance in nautical air miles (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternatec) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, zero fuel massd) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel

33.5.1.1 (2424)The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines isa) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.b) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.c) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

33.5.1.1 (2425)Which of the following statements is relevant for forming route portions in integrated range flight planning?a) The distance from take-off up to the top of climb has to be known.b) No segment shall be more than 30 minutes of flight time.c) Each reporting point requires a new segment.d) A small change of temperature (2 °C) can divide a segment.

33.5.1.1 (2426)(For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise, Outside air temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500 kgFind: True air speed (TAS)a) 420 ktb) 433 ktc) 431 ktd) 418 kt

33.5.1.1 (2427)(For this question use annex 033-11208A)A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%, Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass

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at start of descent is:a) 192 500 kgb) 193 000 kgc) 193 400 kgd) 193 800 kg

33.5.1.1 (2428)(For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033-11209B)Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data:. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM. Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg). Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kgThe additional fuel quantity will be:a) 0 kgb) 3 000 kgc) 2 000 kgd) 4 000 kg

33.5.1.1 (2429)(For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033-11210B)Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data:. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM. Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg). Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kgThe additional fuel quantity will be:a) 10 000 kgb) 20 000 kgc) 12 000 kgd) 15 000 kg

33.5.1.1 (2430)(For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033-11211B )Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 330. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Head wind component: 30 kt. Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%. Total anti-ice: ON. Pack flow: HITime needed to carry out such a flight is:a) 4 h 43 minb) 4 h 26 minc) 5 h 02 mind) 4 h 10 min

33.5.1.1 (2431)(For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033-11212B)Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 310. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Head wind component: 40 kt. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg. Temperature: ISA + 15° C. CG: 37 %. Total anti-ice: ON. Pack flow: HIFuel consumption for such a flight is:a) 23 500 kgb) 21 500 kg

c) 21 700 kgd) 19 900 kg

33.5.1.1 (2432)(For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033-11213B)Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Tailwind component: 40 kt. Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg. Temperature: ISA . CG: 37%. Total anti-ice: OFF. Air conditioning: normalFuel consumption for such a flight is:a) 27 800 kgb) 27 000 kgc) 28 300 kgd) 29 200 kg

33.5.1.1 (2433)(For this question use annex 033-11214A)Assuming the following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 370. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Wind: zero wind during flight. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg. Temperature: ISA + 15° C. CG: 37 %. Total anti-ice: ON. Air conditioning: normalFuel consumption for such a flight is:a) 31 500 kgb) 29 100 kgc) 29 400kgd) 27 400 kg

33.5.1.1 (2434)(For this question use annex 033-11215A)A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: . optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg . temperature: ISA . tailwind component: 100 ktThe fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are:a) 105 NM/1000 kg, 5330 kg/hb) 105 NM/1000 kg, 6515 kg/hc) 86 NM/1000 kg, 6515 kg/hd) 71 NM/1000 kg, 5330 kg/h

33.5.1.1 (2435)(For this question use annex 033-11216A)A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: . flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of 150 000 kg . temperature: ISA . head wind component: 100 kt . remaining flight time: 1 h 40 minThe ground distance that can be covered during the cruise flight is:a) 445 NMb) 612 NMc) 841 NMd) 2031 NM

33.5.1.1 (2436)(For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033-11223B and 033-11223C)Given:. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg. Planned cruise at FL 350. Long range MACH. Standard Atmosphere (ISA). CG: 37 %Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from take-off to landing will be:a) 22 360 kg

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b) 19 660 kgc) 21 760 kgd) 20 260 kg

33.5.1.1 (2437)(For this question use annex 033-11228A)For a long distance flight at FL 390, ""Long Range"" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following characteristics:- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind component: 50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 30 kt - segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind component: 100 kt - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 70 kt The air distance of the entire flight is approximately:a) 4 900 NMb) 5 120 NMc) 4 630 NMd) 5 040 NM

33.5.1.1 (2438)(For this question use annex 031-11231A)For a long distance flight at FL 370, ""Long Range"" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following specifications:- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind component: 50 kt- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 30 kt- segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind component: 70 kt- segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 20 ktThe total air distance is approximately:a) 4 800 NMb) 4 940 NMc) 4 580 NMd) 4 820 NM

33.5.1.1 (2439)(For this question use annex 033-12358A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)Given:Diversion fuel available 8500kgDiversion cruise altitude 10000ftMass at point of diversion 62500kgHead wind component 50ktTemperature ISA -5°CThe (a) maximum diversion distance, and (b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately :a) (a) 860 NM (b) 3h 20 minb) (a) 1000 NM (b) 3h 40 minc) (a) 760 NM (b) 4h 30 mind) (a) 1130 NM (b) 3h 30 min

33.5.1.1 (2440)(For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)Given:Diversion distance 720NMTail wind component 25ktMass at point of diversion 55000kgTemperature ISADiversion fuel available 4250kgWhat is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ?a) 20000ftb) 26000ftc) 16000ftd) 14500ft

33.5.1.1 (2441)(For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)Given:Diversion distance 650 NMDiversion pressure altitude 16 000 ftMass at point of diversion 57 000 kgHead wind component 20 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CThe diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are approximately :a) (a) 4800kg(b) 2h 03minb) (a) 3900kg(b) 1h 45minc) (a) 6200kg(b) 2h 10mind) (a) 4400kg(b) 1h 35min

33.5.1.1 (2442)(For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given:Distance to alternate 950 NMHead wind component 20 ktMass at point of diversion 50000kgDiversion fuel available 5800kgThe minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is :a) 22000ftb) 20000ftc) 26000ftd) 18000ft

33.5.1.1 (2443)(For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of diversion mass of 55000kg a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is :a) M/KIAS .74/330b) M/KIAS .74/290c) M/KIAS .70/280d) LRC

33.5.1.1 (2444)(For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of :a) 584 NMb) 563 NMc) 603 NMd) 608 NM

33.5.1.1 (2445)(For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2)An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is :a) 735 NMb) 794 NMc) 810 NMd) 875 NM

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33.5.1.1 (2446)(For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4)A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent?a) 150kgb) 290kgc) 278kgd) 140kg

33.5.1.2 (2447)If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at :a) 1213 UTCb) 1221 UTCc) 1233 UTCd) 1203 UTC

33.5.1.2 (2448)If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is :a) 203 NMb) 147 NMc) 183 NMd) 167 NM

33.5.1.2 (2449)Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point. Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kta) 342 NMb) 375 NMc) 408 NMd) 403 NM

33.5.1.2 (2450)Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/ha) 2 h 51 minb) 3 h 43 minc) 2 h 59 mind) 2 h 43 min

33.5.1.2 (2451)Given :X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and BE = EnduranceD = Distance A to BO = Groundspeed 'on'H = Groundspeed 'back'The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is:

a) D x HX = _____ O + Hb) D x OX = _____ O + Hc) E x O x HX = ________ O + Hd) D x O x HX = ________ O + H

33.5.1.2 (2452)Given :Course A to B 088° (T)distance 1250 NMMean TAS 330 ktMean W/V 340°/60 ktThe time from A to the PET between A and B is :a) 1 hour 42 minutesb) 1 hour 54 minutesc) 1 hour 39 minutesd) 2 hours 02 minutes

33.5.1.2 (2453)Given :Distance X to Y 2700 NMMach Number 0.75Temperature -45°CMean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwindMean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwindThe distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is :a) 1386 NMb) 1350 NMc) 1313 NMd) 1425 NM

33.5.1.2 (2454)Given :Distance A to B 2050 NMMean groundspeed 'on' 440 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 540 ktThe distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is :a) 1130 NMb) 1025 NMc) 920 NMd) 1153 NM

33.5.1.2 (2455)Given :Distance A to B 3060 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 440 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 540 ktSafe Endurance 10 hoursThe time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:a) 5 hours 30 minutesb) 5 hours 45 minutesc) 3 hours 55 minutesd) 5 hours 20 minutes

33.5.1.2 (2456)Given the following:D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal TimeGSo = groundspeed outGSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is :a) X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)b) X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)c) X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)d) X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr)

33.5.2.1 (2457)Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ?1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot.

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a) Statement 1 onlyb) Statement 2 onlyc) Both statementsd) Neither statement

33.5.2.1 (2458)Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight planning computers ?1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.2. In the event of inflight re-routing the computer produces a new plan.a) Statement 1 onlyb) Statement 2 onlyc) Both statementsd) Neither statement

33.5.2.1 (2459)Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.a) Statement 2 onlyb) Both statementsc) Statement 1 onlyd) Neither statement

33.6.1.0 (2460)When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account :1 - the wind2 - foreseeable airborne delays3 - other weather forecasts4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landingThe combination which provides the correct statement is :a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4b) 03-Janc) 2 - 4d) 1 - 2 - 3

33.6.1.1 (2461)(For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 E005 05.9).Find: Route designator and total distancea) Direct route, 69 NMb) D, 44 NMc) UG 21, 69 NMd) UG 21, 26 NM

33.6.1.3 (2462)""Integrated range"" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose isa) to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass.b) to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature deviations.c) to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude.

d) to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost of the aeroplane.

33.6.1.3 (2463)(For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered with:a) Distance (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate.b) Still air distance, wind component, zero fuel mass.c) Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.d) Distance (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass.

33.6.1.3 (2464)(For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL, Destination elevation 1500 ftFind: Final reserve fuel and corresponding timea) 1180 kg, 30 minb) 2360 kg, 30 minc) 2360 kg, 01 h 00 mind) 1180 kg, 45 min

33.6.1.3 (2465)(For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ftFind: Final reserve fuela) 1180 kgb) 2360 kgc) 1150 kgd) 2300 kg

33.6.1.3 (2466)(For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)a) 10000 ftb) 7500 ftc) 12500 ftd) 11000 ft

33.6.1.3 (2467)(For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)a) 30000 ftb) 25000 ftc) 21000 ftd) 27500 ft

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33.6.1.3 (2468)(For this question use annexes 033-9494A and 033-9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 and Figure 4.3.1B)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg, Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel 2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination: Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt, Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature -30°CFind: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planninga) 4800 kg, 01 h 51 minb) 4400 kg, 02 h 05 minc) 4750 kg, 02 h 00 mind) 4600 kg, 02 h 05 min

33.6.1.3 (2469)(For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C)Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation +20°C and Landing mass 55000 kgFind: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight planninga) 12400 kg, 04 h 00 minb) 11400 kg, 04 h 12 minc) 11600 kg, 04 h 15 mind) 12000 kg, 03 h 51 min

33.6.1.3 (2470)(For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg, Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10 ktFind: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING)a) 1000 kg, 24 minb) 1000 kg, 40 minc) 800 kg, 24 mind) 800 kg, 0.4 hr

33.6.1.3 (2471)(For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033-11226B)In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum altitude, your Mach number should be:a) 0.82b) 0.84c) 0.80d) the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise)

33.6.1.3 (2472)(For this question use annex 031-11229A )For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000 kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at flight level FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude calculated using the annex is:a) 37400 ftb) 37800 ftc) 34600 ftd) 38600 ft

33.6.1.5 (2473)Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kgLoad= 7600 kgMaximum allowable take-off mass= 66200 kgStandard taxi fuel= 200 kgTank capacity= 16 100 kgThe maximum possible take-off fuel is:a) 15 900 kgb) 17 100 kgc) 16 300 kgd) 17 300 kg

33.6.1.5 (2474)(For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL 330 initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg, leg flight time 29 minFind: fuel consumption for this lega) 1 020 kgb) 1 200 kgc) 1 100 kgd) 1 680 kg

33.6.1.5 (2475)(For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC). Temp. ISA -5° C Take-off mass 56 000 kg Climb fuel 1 100 kgFind: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption:a) 345 NAM, 2000 kgb) 350 NAM, 2000 kgc) 345 NAM, 2100 kgd) 437 NAM, 2100 kg

33.6.1.5 (2476)(For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg,initial cruise FL 280,average temperature during climb ISA -10°C,average head wind component 18 ktFind: climb timea) 13 minb) 11 minc) 15 mind) 14 min

33.6.1.5 (2477)(For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Given : brake release mass 57 500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C, head wind component 16 ktinitial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the climba) 62 NAM, 59 NMb) 59 NAM,62 NMc) 67 NAM, 71 NMd) 71 NAM,67 NM

33.6.1.5 (2478)(For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure

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4.5.1)Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg,temperature ISA -10°C, average head wind component 16 ktinitial cruise FL 280Find: climb fuela) 1138 kgb) 1238 kgc) 1387 kgd) 1040 kg

33.6.1.5 (2479)(For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given :FL 330, long range cruise, OAT -63°C, gross mass 50 500 kg.Find: true airspeed (TAS)a) 420 ktb) 433 ktc) 431 ktd) 418 kt

33.6.1.5 (2480)(For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)Given: long range cruise, outside air temperature (OAT) -45 ° C in FL 350, mass at the beginning of the leg 40 000 kg, mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg.Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM).a) TAS 431 kt, 227 NAMb) TAS 423 kt, 227 NAMc) TAS 431 kt, 1163 NAMd) TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM

33.6.1.5 (2481)(For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B and 033-3320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2)Given: estimated take-off mass 57 000 kg, still air distance 150 NAM, outside air temperature (OAT) ISA -10K, cruise at 0.74 Mach.Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeeda) 25 000 ft, 435 ktb) 25 000 ft, 445 ktc) 22 000 ft, 441 ktd) 22 000 ft, 451 kt

33.6.1.5 (2482)(For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC)a) 1000 kgb) 1000 lbsc) 1100 kgd) 1500 lbs

33.6.1.5 (2483)(For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London Heathrow for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13

000 kgThe holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions.Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate Manchester.a) 48 125 kg.b) 49 250 kg.c) 2 250 kg.d) 48 675 kg.

33.6.1.5 (2484)(For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033-3911B) or (Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7) Preplanning:The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 ktThe distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM.Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50 000 kg.Find the alternate fuel and the according time.a) 1 450 kg and 32 minutes.b) 1 300 kg and 28 minutes.c) 1 600 kg and 36 minutes.d) 1 200 kg and 26 minutes.

33.6.1.5 (2485)(For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033-3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Powersetting: Mach= 0.74Planned flight level FL 280The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kgThe trip distance used for calculation is 200 NMThe wind from Paris to London is 280°/40 ktFind the estimated trip fuel.a) 1 740 kg.b) 1 550 kg.c) 1 900 kg.d) 1 450 kg.

33.6.1.5 (2486)(For this question use annex 033-9558A)Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h.a) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:07b) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:52c) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37d) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:12

33.6.1.5 (2487)(For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT -54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind.Using long range cruise procedure what fuel is required?a) 2150 kgb) 2250 kg

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c) 2350 kgd) 2050 kg

33.6.1.5 (2488)(For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000 fta) 26 min, 1975 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 ktb) 26 min, 2050 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 ktc) 20 min, 1750 kg, 117 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 288 ktd) 25 min, 1875 kg, 148 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 391 kt

33.6.1.5 (2489)(For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033-9699B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 5.1 and Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC)a) 50 NMb) 56 NMc) 53 NMd) 47 NM

33.6.1.5 (2490)(For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)a) 11 minb) 3 minc) 12 mind) 15 min

33.6.1.5 (2491)(For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031-11239B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departureThe commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg in addition to that which is necessary.For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at arrival must be:a) 0.27 $/lb) 0.26 $/lc) 0.28 $/ld) 0.33 $/l

33.6.1.5 (2492)(For this question use annex 033-11240A and 033-11240B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this

level: 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destinationThe commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel than that which is necessary.For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be:a) 0.30 $/lb) 0.24 $/lc) 0.28 $/ld) 0.29 $/l

33.6.1.5 (2493)(For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033-11243B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure, 0.27 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.b) 22 000 kgc) 15 000 kgd) 8 000 kg

33.6.1.5 (2494)(For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033-11244B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: 50 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 170 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure, 0.30 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:a) 8 000 kgb) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.c) 18 000 kgd) 32 000 kg

33.6.1.5 (2495)(For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033-11245B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this level: 5 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure, 0.315 $/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.b) 22 000 kgc) 15 000 kgd) 8 000 kg

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33.6.1.5 (2496)For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as:a) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel.b) Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel.c) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel.d) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel.

33.6.1.5 (2497)Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum allowable take-off fuela) 11100 kgb) 11400 kgc) 14400 kgd) 8600 kg

33.6.1.5 (2498)Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum additional loada) 3000 kgb) 4000 kgc) 7000 kgd) 5600 kg

33.6.1.5 (2499)(For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74Determine the TASa) 430 ktb) 440 ktc) 427 ktd) 417 kt

33.6.1.5 (2500)(For this question use annexes 033-11204A, 033-11204B and 033-11204C)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NMFlight level FL 370, ""Long range"" flight regimeEffective wind at this level: head wind of 50 ktTemperature: ISACentre of gravity (CG): 37 %Pack flow : LOW (LO)Anti ice: OFFReference landing mass: 140 000 kgTaxi fuel: 500 kgFinal reserve fuel: 2 400 kgThe fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the aircraft is:a) 51 860 kgb) 52 060 kgc) 46 340 kgd) 41 950 kg

33.6.1.5 (2501)(For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033-11207B)A turbojet aeroplane is

prepared for a 1300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimize its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is:a) 14 000 kgb) 30 000 kgc) 42 000 kgd) 12 000 kg

33.6.1.5 (2502)(For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B and 033-11224C)Given:. Take-off mass: 150 000 kg. Planned cruise at FL 350. Long range MACH. Standard Atmosphere (ISA). CG: 37 %You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM.Your flight time will be:a) 304 minutesb) 288 minutesc) 298 minutesd) 359 minutes

33.6.1.5 (2503)(For this question use annex 033-11252A,033-11252B and 033-11252C)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Air distance: 3 000 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:a) 400 minutesb) 383 minutesc) 394 minutesd) 389 minutes

33.6.1.5 (2504)(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 033-11253C and 033-11253D)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:a) 209 minutesb) 192 minutesc) 198 minutesd) 203 minutes

33.6.1.5 (2505)(For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 033-11254C and 033-11254D)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:a) 171 200 kgb) 169 200 kg

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c) 170 200 kgd) 174 800 kg

33.6.1.5 (2506)(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, and 033-11253C)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:a) 172 300 kgb) 170 400 kgc) 171 300 kgd) 176 100 kg

33.6.1.5 (2507)(For this question use annex 033-11259A and 033-11259B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure, 0.26 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this caseb) 4 000 kgc) 6 000 kgd) 10 000 kg

33.6.1.5 (2508)(For this question use annex 033-11260A and 033-11260B)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 195 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure, 0.26 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this caseb) 5 000 kgc) 8 000 kgd) 10 000 kg

33.6.1.5 (2509)(For this question use annex 033-11270A)A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data:. flight level: FL 330, flight regime: ""Long Range"" (LR), mass: 156 500 kg. tailwind component at this level: 40 ktWith a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at cruising speed is:a) 539 NMb) 493 NMc) 471 NMd) 518 NM

33.6.1.5 (2510)(For this question use annex 033-11271A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:. Take-off mass: 210 500 kg. Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM. Flight level FL 330, ""Long Range"" flight regime . Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt. Total anti-ice set on ""ON"". Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg, final reserve: 2 400 kg. Ignore alternate fuel.The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption.The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking area is:a) 31 840 kgb) 31 340 kgc) 30 200 kgd) 39 750 kg

33.6.1.6 (2511)Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/ha) 1125 NMb) 1143 NMc) 1463 NMd) 1491 NM

33.6.1.7 (2512)On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as ""H"" for ""Heavy""a) is of the highest wake turbulence categoryb) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kgc) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kgd) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass

33.6.1.7 (2513)On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is:a) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airportb) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport, plus 15 minutesc) the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airportd) the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport

33.6.1.7 (2514)On an ATC flight plan, the letter ""Y"" is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules.a) IFR followed by VFRb) VFR followed by IFRc) IFRd) VFR

33.6.1.7 (2515)On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you write:a) TANGO / N0350 F280b) TANGO / K0350 FL280

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c) TANGO / FL280 N0350d) TANGO / KT350 F280

33.6.1.7 (2516)On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will write :a) ROMEO / N0120 F085b) ROMEO / K0120 FL085c) ROMEO / FL085 N0120d) ROMEO / F085 N0120

33.7.1.1 (2517)To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on board is:a) identical to that defined for VFR flights over landb) at least equal to that defined for IFR flightsc) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 %d) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 %

33.7.1.1 (2518)For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate aerodrome is compulsory, except if :1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours2 - during the period from two hours before to two hours after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half times the applicable minima3 - the platform is available and no other flight either from or to the platform is expected between the estimated time of departure and one half hour after the estimated landing timeThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :a) 2001-02-03b) 02-Janc) 1 - 3d) 2 - 3

33.7.1.2 (2519)A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is 3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress, on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind. Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly outbound for distance of:a) 160.3 NMb) 224.5 NMc) 158.6 NMd) 222.1 NM

40.1.1.1 (2520)Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?a) A moderate level of stress may improve performance.b) A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.c) Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground.

d) A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly.

40.1.1.1 (2521)Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it occur?1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does not immediately have a solution2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual capabilities3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for the problem he just is confronted witha) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) Only 1 is falsec) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is falsed) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

40.1.1.1 (2522)Divided attention is the ability :1. to execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel)2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level)3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed.4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on the proceduresa) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are falseb) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are falsed) Only 3 is false

40.1.1.1 (2523)The physiology of stress is now well known:a) stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental oerformanceb) the only stress hormone is adrenalinec) stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and then acceleration of heart rate and increase in visiond) stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism and thereby slows down the heart rate

40.1.1.1 (2524)An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention2. resignation, frustration, rage3. deterioration in motor coordination4. high pitch voice and fast speakinga) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are falsed) 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false

40.1.1.2 (2525)In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be described as:

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a) the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole systemb) the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot doc) during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the machined) the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily use of his skills

40.1.1.2 (2526)A pilot is skilled when he :-1 : trains or practises regularly-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpecteda) 1,2,4b) 1,2,3,4c) 1,2d) 2, 3,4

40.1.2.0 (2527)The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism) :a) is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movementsb) has improved considerably over the last fifteen yearsc) is a long way short of the safety level of road transportd) represents about fifty accidents around the world every year

40.1.2.0 (2528)As a cause of accidents, the human factora) is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidentsb) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has been involved has more than tripled since this datec) which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC onlyd) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in general aviation

40.1.2.0 (2529)What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease in hull loss rates in the eighties?a) GPWSb) DMEc) SSRd) TCAS

40.1.2.0 (2530)In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):- 1 : do not exist- 2 : have slight physiological consequences- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axisa) 2,4b) 1c) 3,4d) 3

40.1.3.0 (2531)Thinking on human reliability is changing.a) Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are generally inescapableb) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledgec) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safetyd) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future

40.1.3.0 (2532)Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of interpretation by using an old three-point altimeter?a) Liveware - Hardwareb) Liveware - Softwarec) Liveware - Environmentd) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.3.0 (2533)Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of warning systems?a) Liveware - Softwareb) Liveware - Hardwarec) Liveware - Environmentd) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.3.0 (2534)Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human peformance?a) Liveware - Environmentb) Liveware - Hardwarec) Liveware - Softwared) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.3.0 (2535)The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface mismatch betweena) Liveware - Softwareb) Liveware - Hardwarec) Liveware - Environmentd) Liveware - Liveware

40.2.1.0 (2536)Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by external stimulations.This internal equilibrium is called :a) Homeostasisb) Heterostasisc) Isothermyd) Metastasis

40.2.1.1 (2537)The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentration. Match

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the following:1 nitrogen A 0,03%2 oxygen B 0,92%3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%4 rare gas D 78,10%a) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4Bb) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4Cc) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4Dd) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

40.2.1.1 (2538)Gases of physiological importance to man are:a) oxygen and carbon dioxideb) nitrogen and carbon dioxidec) oxygen and carbon monoxided) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor

40.2.1.1 (2539)The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% whicha) is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reachb) decreases with increasing altitudec) increases with increasing altituded) is dependent on the present air pressure

40.2.1.1 (2540)The following applies for the physical properties of gases:a) at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ftb) at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would be at sea-levelc) a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its volume as it would have at sea-leveld) at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of 65°C

40.2.1.1 (2541)The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is :a) 21%b) 5%c) 10,50%d) 42%

40.2.1.1 (2542)The atmospheric gas pressurea) drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same altitude changes at higher altitudesb) rises with altitudec) decreases linear with altituded) decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher levels and equivalent altitude changes

40.2.1.1 (2543)A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this gas is :a) largerb) smaller

c) constantd) first larger, then smaller

40.2.1.1 (2544)You can survive at any altitude, provided thata) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is availableb) 21% oxygen is available in the air you breath inc) pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altituded) the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10"" C

40.2.1.1 (2545)Fatigue and permanent concentrationa) lower the tolerance to hypoxiab) increase the tolerance to hypoxiac) do not affect hypoxia at alld) will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet

40.2.1.1 (2546)The atmosphere contains the following gases:a) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gasesb) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gasesc) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gasesd) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

40.2.1.1 (2547)An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:a) shortness of breathb) a decrease of acidity in the bloodc) a reduction of red blood cellsd) an improving resistance to hypoxia

40.2.1.1 (2548)The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases which compose the mixture corresponds to:a) Dalton´s lawb) Graham´s lawc) Henry`s lawd) Boyle Mariotte´s law

40.2.1.1 (2549)The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard atmosphere) isa) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxideb) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argonc) 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argond) 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide

40.2.1.1 (2550)According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is approximately

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a) - 2 °C every 1000 feetb) 10 °C every 100 feetc) 2 °C every 1000 metresd) constant in the troposphere

40.2.1.1 (2551)The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level ata) 18 000 feetb) 10 000 feetc) 25 000 feetd) 30 000 feet

40.2.1.1 (2552)The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at sea level.In accordance with this statement,a) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea levelb) the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by 50 % tooc) the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by one half alsod) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled

40.2.1.1 (2553)The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %, but the partial pressure of oxygen :a) decreases with decreasing barometric pressureb) remains constant, independent from altitudec) increases by expansiond) decreases significantly with lower temperatures

40.2.1.1 (2554)Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3. Temperature4. Humiditya) 1,2 ,3b) 1, 2 ,4c) 2,3 ,4d) 3 , 4

40.2.1.1 (2555)Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:a) the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitudeb) the occurance of decompression sickness at high altitudec) the occurance of hypoxia with increasing altituded) hyperventilation with increasing altitude

40.2.1.1 (2556)Dalton's law explains the occurance of :a) altitude hypoxiab) bendsc) decompression sicknessd) creeps

40.2.1.1 (2557)Henry's Law explains the occurence of:a) decompression sicknessb) diffusionc) hyperventilationd) hypoxia

40.2.1.1 (2558)Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported bya) red blood cellsb) plateletsc) blood plasmad) white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2559)The respiratory process consists mainly ofa) the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the bodyb) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of carbon monoxidec) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of nitrogend) the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and elimination of oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2560)Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?a) Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled.b) Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood.c) With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning will be compensated.d) Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.

40.2.1.2 (2561)Carbon monoxide poisoninga) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied by coating the exhaustb) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiencyc) only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanesd) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT

40.2.1.2 (2562)In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.a) Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness.b) High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy.c) Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.d) Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.

40.2.1.2 (2563)A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the ""critical threshold"" at approximately:

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a) 22 000 ftb) 16 000 ftc) 18 000 ftd) 38 000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2564)Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately:a) 38 000 ftb) 10 000c) 22 000 ftd) 45 000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2565)The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude area) euphoria and impairment of judgementb) hyperventilationc) sensation of heat and blurred visiond) breathlessness and reduced night vision

40.2.1.2 (2566)When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:a) less oxygen to be diffused into the cellsb) a poor saturation of oxygen in the bloodc) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudesd) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia

40.2.1.2 (2567)With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:a) an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even unconsciousnessb) finger nails and lips will turn blue (""cyanosis"")c) more oxygen will reach the braind) peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved

40.2.1.2 (2568)Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at :a) 10 000 ftb) 8 000 ftc) 14 000 ftd) 18 000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2569)At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected?a) Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.b) Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.c) 22 000 ftd) Approximately 35 000 ft.

40.2.1.2 (2570)To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression ?a) Approximately 38 000 ft.b) Approximately 14 000 ft.c) Approximately 20 000 ft.d) Approximately 45 000 ft.

40.2.1.2 (2571)When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating):a) his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays consciousb) his oxygen need will not be affectedc) his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudesd) his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be increased

40.2.1.2 (2572)""Tunnel vision"" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:a) + 3.5 Gzb) - 3.5 Gzc) + 3.5 Gxd) - 3.5 Gy

40.2.1.2 (2573)""Grey out"" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:a) + 3 Gzb) - 3 Gzc) + 3 Gxd) + 3 Gy

40.2.1.2 (2574)The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with inertia along :a) the vertical body axis upwardsb) the vertical body axis downwardsc) the transverse body axis to the rightd) the transverse body axis to the left

40.2.1.2 (2575)How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ?a) Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure breathing.b) Tighten shoulder harness.c) Take an upright seat position.d) Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward.

40.2.1.2 (2576)Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported bya) the hemoglobin in the red blood cellsb) the blood plasma

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c) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasmad) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2577)Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blooda) to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the hemoglobin at lung areab) to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the hemoglobinc) to accelerate the oxygen supply to the braind) not to change at all

40.2.1.2 (2578)Hypoxia is caused bya) reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lungb) reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lungc) an increased number of red blood cellsd) a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2579)Hypoxia can be caused by:1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide attached to the hemoglobin3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz)4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after a hangover)a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are falsec) 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correctd) 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false

40.2.1.2 (2580)A pilot will get hypoxiaa) after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in timeb) after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 % oxygen via an oxygen maskc) if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/mind) if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing 100 % oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2581)Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?a) Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system)b) Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane.c) Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of danger.d) The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask.

40.2.1.2 (2582)In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:a) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.

b) Nausea and barotitis.c) Dull headache and bends.d) Dizziness, hypothermia.

40.2.1.2 (2583)Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?a) Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoriab) Pain in the jointsc) Low blood pressured) Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area

40.2.1.2 (2584)A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:a) cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxiab) there are great differences between the twoc) altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ftd) symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given

40.2.1.2 (2585)Which statement applies to hypoxia?a) sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to personb) carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiencyc) you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxiad) it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in

40.2.1.2 (2586)Hypoxia can also be caused bya) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygenb) a lack of nitrogen in ambient airc) too much carbon dioxide in the bloodd) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases

40.2.1.2 (2587)Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ?a) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.b) Dizziness.c) Lack of adaptation.d) Lack of accomodation.

40.2.1.2 (2588)Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?a) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.b) A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

40.2.1.2 (2589)The momentum of gas exchange in respiration isa) dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during

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respirationb) the excess pressure caused by inhalingc) independent from the partial pressures of the participating gasesd) depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the alveoli

40.2.1.2 (2590)Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?a) Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.b) White blood cells.c) Plasma.d) Blood fat.

40.2.1.2 (2591)Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:a) carbon monoxideb) nitrogenc) oxygend) carbon dioxide

40.2.1.2 (2592)Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?a) It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's ""physiological altitude"".b) It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen.c) It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.d) It is always present in the lungs.

40.2.1.2 (2593)The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:a) the amount of carbon dioxide in the bloodb) the amount of carbon monoxide in the bloodc) the amount of nitrogen in the bloodd) the total atmospheric pressure

40.2.1.2 (2594)In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs?a) Carbon dioxide.b) Ambient air.c) Oxygen.d) Carbon monoxide.

40.2.1.2 (2595)Which statement is correct ?a) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen pressure gradient.b) The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen.c) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level.d) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure.

40.2.1.2 (2596)A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:a) talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneouslyb) don an oxygen maskc) excecute the valsalva manoeuvred) close the eyes and relax

40.2.1.2 (2597)What could cause hyperventilation ?a) Fear, anxiety and distressb) Abuse of alcoholc) Extreme low rate of breathingd) Fatigue

40.2.1.2 (2598)A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:a) the pilot is emotionally arousedb) there is a low CO-pressure in the bloodc) he is flying a tight turnd) there is an increased blood flow to the brain

40.2.1.2 (2599)Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:a) blood circulation to the brain is slowed downb) oxygen saturation of the blood is decreasedc) not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungsd) oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will be supplied with more blood than normal

40.2.1.2 (2600)At what altitude (""threshold for compensatory reactions"") does the human organism start with remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when climbing?At about:a) 6000-7000 FTb) 8000-9000 FTc) 9000-10000 FTd) 10000-12000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2601)Where is the ""critical threshold"" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone?It starts at:a) 22000 FT.b) 18000 FTc) It25000 FTd) It38000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2602)Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:a) 8000 FT

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b) 12000 FTc) 15000 FTd) 20000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2603)Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:a) 38000 FTb) 45000 FTc) 60000 FTd) 80000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2604)After a decompression at high altitudea) nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism, bends and chokesb) automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabinc) temperature in the cockpit will increased) pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin

40.2.1.2 (2605)In airline operations decompression sickness symptomsa) may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitudeb) may develop when being decompressed from MSL to 15 000 FTc) appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving activitiesd) may affect people with defect tympanic membrane

40.2.1.2 (2606)Symptoms of decompression sicknessa) are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory shockb) are only relevant when divingc) can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FTd) are flatulence and pain in the middle ear

40.2.1.2 (2607)Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due toa) cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)b) sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FTc) emergency descents after a cabin pressure lossd) fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an unpressurized aeroplane

40.2.1.2 (2608)The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization betweena) middle ear and external atmosphereb) sinuses of the nose and external atmospherec) nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphered) frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses

40.2.1.2 (2609)Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called:a) barotraumab) ebulismc) hypoxiad) hyperventilation

40.2.1.2 (2610)Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead to:a) pressure pain or flatulenceb) barotitisc) decompresion sicknessd) barosinusitis

40.2.1.2 (2611)What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)?a) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva)b) Increase rate of descentc) Stop climbing, start descentd) Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the middle ear

40.2.1.2 (2612)How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis) ?a) Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitisb) Aerosinusitis will never develop during descentc) Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearingd) There is no difference

40.2.1.2 (2613)Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis).a) Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rateb) Increase the rate of descentc) Stop chewing and swallowing movements (""Valsalva"")d) Use drugs against a cold

40.2.1.2 (2614)Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occura) when descending rapidlyb) during a long high altitude flightc) when climbingd) in sudden steep turns

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40.2.1.2 (2615)Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied bya) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressureb) dizzinessc) noises in the eard) pain in the joints

40.2.1.2 (2616)The effect of hypoxia to visiona) is stronger with the rodsb) is usual stronger with the conesc) can only be detected when smoking tobaccod) does not depend on the level of illumination

40.2.1.2 (2617)When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called:a) internal respirationb) external respirationc) ventilationd) hyperventilation

40.2.1.2 (2618)Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is changed?a) Eustachian tubeb) Cochleac) Tympanic membraned) External auditory canal

40.2.1.2 (2619)Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?a) Dizzy feelingb) Slow heart beatc) Slow rate of breathingd) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)

40.2.1.2 (2620)Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective measure against hyperventilation tetany is:a) breathe into a plastic or paper bagb) hold breathc) avoid strenuous flight manoeuvresd) speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly

40.2.1.2 (2621)What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?1. Pressure breathing.2. Anxiety or fear.3. Overstress.4. Strong pain.5. Jogging.a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is falseb) Only 2 and 3 are correct

c) 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correctd) 1and 5 are both false

40.2.1.2 (2622)Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?1. Dizziness2. Muscular spasms3. Visual disturbances4. Cyanosisa) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falseb) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is falsec) 1 is false, all others are correctd) 2 and 4 are false

40.2.1.2 (2623)TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is:a) the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he is exposed to hypoxiab) the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure lossc) the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets ind) the time between the start of hypoxia and death

40.2.1.2 (2624)The ""Effective Performance Time"" or ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is:a) between 30 and 60 secondsb) approximately 3 minutesc) approximately 5 minutesd) less than 20 seconds

40.2.1.2 (2625)The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). Ita) varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitudeb) is the same amount of time for every personc) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressured) varies individually and does not depend on altitude

40.2.1.2 (2626)After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:a) 5-15 secondsb) 30-45 secondsc) 45-60 secondsd) 60-90 seconds

40.2.1.2 (2627)Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth)a) are forbiddenb) can be performed without any dangerc) are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceededd) should be avoided because hypoxia may develop

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40.2.1.2 (2628)Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are symptoms ofa) decompression sicknessb) barotraumac) air-sicknessd) hypoxia

40.2.1.2 (2629)After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:a) 30 -90 secondsb) 10-15 secondsc) 3-4 minutesd) 5 minutes or more

40.2.1.2 (2630)You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms.How long should you wait until your next flight?a) 12 hoursb) 24 hoursc) 36 hoursd) 48 hours

40.2.1.2 (2631)Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)a) can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FTb) prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FTc) has no influence on altitude flightsd) is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia

40.2.1.2 (2632)Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)a) is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the ambient airb) is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sportc) is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose spraysd) is only caused by colds and their effects

40.2.1.2 (2633)Barodontalgiaa) arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a toothb) arises only at higher altitudes and after decompressionc) even arises with healthy teethd) arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of descent

40.2.1.2 (2634)At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe

flatulence due to trapped gases. The correct counter-measure is:a) descend to lower altitudeb) climb to a higher altitudec) perform ""valsalva maneouvre""d) use supplemental oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2635)A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)a) is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descentb) is only caused by large pressure changes during climbc) causes severe pain in the sinusesd) is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately following the decompression will eliminate the problem

40.2.1.2 (2636)Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case?a) More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft.b) At lower altitudes.c) Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels.d) During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2637)The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occura) with colds and rapid descentsb) with colds and fast climbsc) with colds and slow ascentsd) after a decompression

40.2.1.2 (2638)Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:a) the eustachian tube is blockedb) the nose is pinchedc) you breath through the mouthd) barotrauma exists in the sinuses

40.2.1.2 (2639)A barotrauma of the middle ear isa) an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the eardrumb) a bacterial infection of the middle earc) a dilatation of the eustachian tubed) an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression

40.2.1.2 (2640)The eustachian tube is the passage way between thea) nasopharynx and the middle earb) nose, pharynx and inner earc) nose, pharynx and the external auditory canald) sinuses and the pharynx

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40.2.1.2 (2641)Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?a) The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)b) The semicircular canalsc) The cochlead) The sacculus and utriculus

40.2.1.2 (2642)Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may:a) get blurred and/or tunnel visionb) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGLc) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGLd) get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache

40.2.1.2 (2643)Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia?1. Fatigue.2. Euphoria.3. Lack of concentration.4. Pain in the joints.5. Sensation of suffocation.a) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) 4 and 5 are correctc) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctd) Only 5 is false

40.2.1.2 (2644)In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?a) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactionsb) This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate.c) Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turningd) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.

40.2.1.2 (2645)Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms:a) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred visionb) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuityc) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rated) blue finger-nails and lips

40.2.1.2 (2646)In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayeda) 24 hoursb) 3 hours after non decompression divingc) 36 hours after any scuba divingd) 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made

40.2.1.2 (2647)The cabin pressure in airline operation isa) normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feetb) normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feetc) normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feetd) always equivalent to sea level

40.2.1.2 (2648)The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a explained by:a) Dalton´s lawb) Boyle Mariotte´s lawc) Henry´s lawd) Graham´s law

40.2.1.2 (2649)Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases2. permeable membranes3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air4. acid-base balance in the blooda) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 2 and 3 are falsed) only 1 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2650)Hyperventilation causesa) a lack of carbon dioxide in the bloodb) an excess of carbon dioxide in the bloodc) acidosisd) hypochondria

40.2.1.2 (2651)Anxiety and fear can causea) hyperventilationb) hypoxiac) spatial disorientationd) hypoglycemia

40.2.1.2 (2652)Symptoms of decompression sicknessa) sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the groundb) always begin immediately after the decompression during the flightc) normally take 2 or 3 days to appear after exposure to a hypobaric atmosphered) disappear on landing and never appear again

40.2.1.2 (2653)The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial accelerations isa) grey-outb) loss of consciousnessc) black-outd) red-vision

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40.2.1.2 (2654)Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure.The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues can be derived from:a) Henry´s lawb) Boyle Mariotte´s lawc) Dalton´s lawd) Gay Lussac´s law

40.2.1.2 (2655)The normal rate of breathing isa) 20 to 30 cycles a minuteb) 12 to 16 cycles a minutec) 32 to 40 cycles a minuted) 60 to 100 cycles a minute

40.2.1.2 (2656)The main function of the red blood cells isa) to transport oxygenb) to participate in the process of coagulation of the bloodc) the cellular defense of the organismd) to contribute to the immune response of the organism

40.2.1.2 (2657)Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)a) below 3 000 mb) up to 5 000 mc) between 3 000 m and 5 000 md) between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

40.2.1.2 (2658)""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:a) pain in the jointsb) pain in the thorax and a backing coughc) CNS-disturbancesd) loss of peripheral vision

40.2.1.2 (2659)One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a decompression in airline operationa) are the bendsb) are the chokesc) is a shockd) are neurological damages to the CNS

40.2.1.2 (2660)Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?a) Tingling sensations in arms or legs.b) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails).c) Severe headache.d) Euphoria.

40.2.1.2 (2661)1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error.a) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct, 2 is not correctc) 1 is not correct, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.2.1.2 (2662)Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression at high altitude may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:1 the digestive tract2 the ears3 the eyes4 the sinusesa) 1b) 1,2,3c) 2,3,4d) 2,4

40.2.1.2 (2663)Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?- 1: Decrease in heart rate- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organsa) 2,3,4b) 1,2,3c) 1d) 1,3,4

40.2.1.2 (2664)What is hypoxia ?a) Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological conditionb) The total absence of oxygen in the airc) The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sicknessd) A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask

40.2.1.2 (2665)What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?a) Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordinationb) Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapsec) Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousnessd) Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing

40.2.1.2 (2666)You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between :a) 0 and 5.000 feetb) 5.000 and 10.000 feet

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c) 10.000 and 15.000 feetd) 45.000 and 50.000 feet

40.2.1.2 (2667)Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by :a) decreased atmospherical pressureb) disorientationc) accelerationsd) increased atmospherical pressure

40.2.1.2 (2668)Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :a) 21% oxygenb) 5% oxygenc) 15% oxygend) 10% oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2669)Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:a) 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gasesb) 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gasesc) 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gasesd) 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases

40.2.1.2 (2670)The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be explained by the principle that:a) the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that gas above the fluid (Henry's Law)b) a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of this gas at constant temperature (Boyle's law)c) the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the separate gases (Dalton's Law)d) the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher concentration or partial pressure to an area of lower concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion)

40.2.1.2 (2671)Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:a) bendsb) chokesc) creepsd) leans

40.2.1.2 (2672)What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression ?a) Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement, memory disordersb) Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitationsc) Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature impairment of judgementd) Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory rate, memory disorders

40.2.1.2 (2673)Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur?a) Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possibleb) Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before climbing againc) Only medical treatment is of used) Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary

40.2.1.2 (2674)What is decompression sickness ?a) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitudeb) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraftc) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ftd) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's capabilities

40.2.1.2 (2675)Which of the following statements are correct:-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying-4: Diet has no repercussion on healtha) 2 and 3 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 2, 3 and 4 are correctd) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.1.2 (2676)A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:1. decompression sickness2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines3. hypoxia4. coronary deseasea) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

40.2.1.2 (2677)Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up toa) 10.000 - 12.000feetb) 15.000 feetc) 20.000 feetd) 25.000 feet

40.2.1.2 (2678)When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:a) the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level.b) the composition of the blood changesc) the composition of the air is different from sea leveld) the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level

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40.2.1.2 (2679)Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases with:1. decreasing air pressure2. carbon monoxide poisoning3. increasing altitude4. increasing air pressurea) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falseb) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is falsec) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is falsed) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.1.2 (2680)Hypoxia is a situation in which the cellsa) have a shortage of oxygenb) are saturated with nitrogenc) are saturated with oxygend) have a shortage of carbon dioxide

40.2.1.2 (2681)The severity of hypoxia depends on the:1. rate of decompression2. physical fitness3. flight level4. individual tolerancea) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is falsed) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false

40.2.1.2 (2682)Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?a) It is a potential threat to safety.b) It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft.c) It activates the senses and makes them function better.d) It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate for it.

40.2.1.2 (2683)Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbancesa) 1,3 and 4 are correctb) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctc) 1,2 and 3 are correctd) 1,2 and 4 are correct

40.2.1.2 (2684)One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:a) impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptomsb) reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spinc) cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to heard) hyperventilation, causing emotional stress

40.2.1.2 (2685)Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

40.2.1.2 (2686)Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?a) Night vision.b) Motor coordination.c) Hearing.d) Speech.

40.2.1.2 (2687)You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:a) your judgement could be impairedb) the blood-pressure can get too highc) the blood-pressure can get too lowd) you will get the bends

40.2.1.2 (2688)During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by:a) breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask.b) closing one eyec) scanning sectors of the field of visiond) dim the instrument lights

40.2.1.2 (2689)During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms: 1. blue lips 2. mental disturbances 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs 4. reduction of peripheral visionWhich is the possible cause?a) Hypoxia.b) Glaucoma.c) Hypothermia.d) Hypoglycaemia.

40.2.1.2 (2690)Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?1. Descend below 10 000 FT.2. Breathe 100 % oxygen.3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.4. Reduce physical activities.a) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) only 1 is correctd) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

40.2.1.2 (2691)Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilota) is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feetb) is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxiac) is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva methodd) will not exceed 20 000 FT cabin pressure altitude

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40.2.1.2 (2692)Hypoxia can occur because:a) you are hyperventilatingb) you are getting toomuch solar radiationc) you inhale too much nitrogend) the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude

40.2.1.2 (2693)You should not despense blood without prior information from your flight surgeon. The most important reason for this advise is:a) you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood-donation.b) the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donationc) your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donationd) your heart frequency is too low after blood-donation

40.2.1.2 (2694)Hyperventilation is:a) an increased lung ventilationb) a too high percentage of nitrogen in the bloodc) a decreased lung ventilationd) a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.

40.2.1.2 (2695)Hyperventilation is:a) a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)b) an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressurec) an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressured) a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain

40.2.1.2 (2696)What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression?a) Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ftb) First inform ATCc) Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergencyd) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight

40.2.1.2 (2697)What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ?a) About 12 secondsb) Between 20 seconds and 1 minutec) About 40 secodsd) More than 1 minute

40.2.1.2 (2698)What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?a) The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his available oxygen supply

b) The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompressionc) The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxiad) The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it

40.2.1.2 (2699)Which of the folllowing statements concerning barotrauma are correct? They are:a) due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the ambient pressureb) caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease in altitudec) more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descentd) mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its internal pressures

40.2.1.2 (2700)Decompression sickness may occur as from :- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding 18,000 ft- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°Ca) 1,3b) 2,3c) 1,3,4d) 2,4

40.2.1.2 (2701)With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that :a) age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factorsb) scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent flightc) sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to itd) physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness symptoms to appear

40.2.1.2 (2702)The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must :a) allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming hypoxicb) allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxiac) make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygend) make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes

40.2.1.2 (2703)What is the ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft ?a) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilotb) About 18 secondsc) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 secondsd) About 30 seconds

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40.2.1.2 (2704)A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him to:1. unbuckle and massage the belly2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before flight in the future4. drink a lot of water throughout the flighta) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) 2, 3 and 4 are correctc) 1 and 3 not advisabled) only 4 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2705)On ascent the gases in the digestive tract willa) expandb) stay the samec) shrinkd) be absorbed by tissues and blood

40.2.1.2 (2706)Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:a) leveling off and possibly climbingb) blocking the effected ear with the palm of your handc) increasing the rate of descentd) using an oxygen mask

40.2.1.2 (2707)The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to :1 : physical activity of the subjected crew2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question3 : the strength and time of decompression4 : the cabin temperaturea) 1,3b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 4

40.2.1.2 (2708)During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen pressure :a) an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressureb) a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in atmospheric pressurec) an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure drop above that altituded) an increase which is inversely proportional to the decrease in atmospheric pressure

40.2.1.2 (2709)The following may occur during gradual depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft :a) a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headacheb) a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to headache and also to a loss of coordinationc) sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headached) a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable somnolence

40.2.1.2 (2710)What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations?a) A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood availableb) An improvement of peripheral visionc) An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level)d) Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders

40.2.1.2 (2711)What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the pilot?a) Radial acceleration (+ Gz)b) Linear acceleration (+ Gx)c) Transverse acceleration (+ Gy)d) Combined linear and transverse acceleration

40.2.1.2 (2712)Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:a) carbon dioxideb) carbon monoxidec) nitrogend) oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2713)In the pulmonary artery there is :a) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich bloodb) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor bloodc) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blondd) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood

40.2.1.2 (2714)The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for :a) gasesb) plateletsc) proteind) red blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2715)The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide2. transportation of information by chemical substancesa) 1 and 2 are correctb) 1 is correct and 2 is falsec) 1 is false and 2 is correctd) both are false

40.2.1.2 (2716)The part of blood without cell is called :a) plasmb) lymphc) serumd) water

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40.2.1.2 (2717)Haemoglobin is:a) in the red blood cellsb) in the plateletsc) dissolved in the plasmad) in the white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2718)Someone who has anaemia has:a) not enough functional hemoglobinb) not enough plateletsc) not enough plasmad) not enough white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2719)The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:a) 60 to 80 beats/minb) 30 to 50 beats/minc) 90 to 100 beats/mind) 110 to 150 beats/min

40.2.1.2 (2720)Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:1. Adrenalin2. Cortisol3. Physical exercise.4. Glucose concentration in the blooda) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is falseb) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctc) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is falsed) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

40.2.1.2 (2721)With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about:a) 5 liters/minb) 6 liters/minc) 7 liters/mind) 8 liters/min

40.2.1.2 (2722)At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately:a) 5 liters/minb) 450 ml/minc) 45 liters/mind) 75 liters/min

40.2.1.2 (2723)The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:a) the coronary arteriesb) the auriclesc) ventriclesd) the pulmonary veins

40.2.1.2 (2724)The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):a) 120/80 mm Hgb) 80/20 mm Hgc) 180/120 mm Hgd) 220/180 mm Hg

40.2.1.2 (2725)Which of the following statements is correct?The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressurea) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)b) in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body)c) in the mussles of the upper armd) in the veins of the upper arm

40.2.1.2 (2726)Blood-pressure depends on: 1. the cardiac output 2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)a) 1 and 2 are correctb) 1 is correct 2 is falsec) 1 is false 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both false

40.2.1.2 (2727)The blood-pressure depends on: 1. the work of the heart 2. the peripheral resistance 3. the elasticity of the arterial walls 4. the bloode volume and viscositya) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is falsed) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false

40.2.1.2 (2728)Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:a) pressoreceptorsb) arteriolsc) adrenal glandsd) pacemakers

40.2.1.2 (2729)The pressoreceptors are located ina) the carotid and aortic arterial vesselsb) the intestinesc) the heartd) the lungs

40.2.1.2 (2730)When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which result in:1. an increase of respiratory activity2. the arteriols to constrict3. an increase of cardiac output4. the heart rate to risea) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is falseb) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

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c) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is falsed) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

40.2.1.2 (2731)The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:1. the duration of the G-forces 2. the onset rate of the G-forces3. the magnitude of the G-forces 4. the direction of the G-forces.a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctb) 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is falsed) 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false

40.2.1.2 (2732)Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-pressure in the brain to:a) decreaseb) remain constantc) increased) first increase, then decrease

40.2.1.2 (2733)During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:a) grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness.b) unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out.c) black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness.d) grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision

40.2.1.2 (2734)Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres?a) A tilt back seat.b) Breathing oxygen.c) Sit in upright position and keep relaxed.d) Hyperventilation.

40.2.1.2 (2735)The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:a) 16 cycles per minuteb) 4 cycles per minutec) 32 cycles per minuted) 72 cycles per minute

40.2.1.2 (2736)The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:a) 500 ml of airb) 350 ml of airc) 150 ml of aird) 75 ml of air

40.2.1.2 (2737)When exhaling, the expired air contains:a) more carbon dioxide than the inspired airb) more nitrogen than the inhaled airc) less water vapour than the inhaled aird) more oxygen than the inhaled air

40.2.1.2 (2738)The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:a) pressure of carbon dioxide in the bloodb) partial pressure of nitrogenc) partial pressure of oxygen in the bloodd) total air pressure in the blood

40.2.1.2 (2739)The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be discribed by:a) the law of diffusionb) Boyle's Lawc) Dalton's Lawd) Henry's Law

40.2.1.2 (2740)The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:a) the law of diffusionb) Boyles Lawc) Dalton's Lawd) Henry's Law

40.2.1.2 (2741)The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:a) lower than in the bloodb) almost the same as in the atmospheric airc) higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the bloodd) lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air.

40.2.1.2 (2742)The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:a) surplus of CO2 in the bloodb) surplus of O2 in the bloodc) shortage of CO in the bloodd) shortage of CO2 in the blood

40.2.1.2 (2743)If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological needa) the blood turns less more alkalineb) the blood turns more acidc) the acid-base balance of the blood will not changed) the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly

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40.2.1.2 (2744)During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is:a) hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)b) cyanosisc) hypoxiad) vertigo

40.2.1.2 (2745)During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate:a) hyperventilationb) disorientationc) hypoxiad) carbon monoxide poisoning

40.2.1.2 (2746)During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating you shoulda) control your rate and depth of breathingb) descendc) apply the Valsalva methodd) use the oxygen mask

40.2.1.2 (2747)A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:a) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voiceb) depending on instrumentsc) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxided) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure

40.2.1.2 (2748)You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is:a) to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possibleb) to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygenc) to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lungd) to reduce blood pressure

40.2.1.2 (2749)Which symptom does not belong to the following list:a) leansb) bendsc) chokesd) creeps

40.2.1.2 (2750)The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called:a) creeps

b) bendsc) chokesd) leans

40.2.1.2 (2751)Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:a) chokesb) bendsc) creepsd) leans

40.2.1.2 (2752)Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of following answers is correct?a) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression sickness.b) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some exercise.c) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.d) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.

40.2.1.2 (2753)Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:1. SCUBA-Diving2. Obesity3. Age4. Body heighta) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) 2 and 4 are correctc) 1, 3 and 4 are correctd) only 4 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2754)Decompression symptoms are caused by:a) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the bodyb) low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled airc) low oxygen pressure of inhaled aird) release of locked gases from joints

40.2.1.2 (2755)In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:a) don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flowb) descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSAc) transmit mayday calld) carry out check for structural damage

40.2.1.2 (2756)After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot shall be:a) maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask)b) informing ATCc) informing the cabin crewd) preventing panic of the passengers

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40.2.1.2 (2757)The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness:1. climb to higher level2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible3. breathe 100 % oxygen4. get medical advice about recompression after landinga) 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 1 and 4 are correctd) 1 and 3 are correct

40.2.1.2 (2758)Decompression sickness can be prevented by:1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flighta) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsed) only 3 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2759)What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?a) about 30 minutesb) 1 to 2 minutesc) 1to 2 hoursd) 5 to 10 minutes

40.2.1.2 (2760)Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about:a) 1 to 2 minutesb) 3 to 5 minutesc) 5 to 10 minutesd) 10 to 12 minutes

40.2.1.2 (2761)After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about:a) 30 to 60 secondsb) 15 seconds or lessc) 5 minutes.d) 10 minutes.

40.2.1.2 (2762)After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least:a) 24 hoursb) 6 hoursc) 12 hoursd) 48 hours

40.2.1.2 (2763)Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:a) decompression sickness without having a decompressionb) hyperventilationc) hypoxiad) stress

40.2.1.2 (2764)If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get:a) more alkalineb) less satured with oxygenc) more satured with carbon dioxided) more acid

40.2.1.3 (2765)The ozone-layer is situated in thea) stratosphereb) tropospherec) thermosphered) ionosphere

40.2.1.3 (2766)Which of the following statements are correct ?-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is satisfactory for the body-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue-4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be losta) 2,3b) 2,3,4c) 1,2,4d) 1,4

40.2.1.3 (2767)With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it :-1 : varies between 40 and 60%-2 : varies between 5 and 15%-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew-4 : has no special effects on crew membersa) 2,3b) 1,3c) 2,3,4d) 1,4

40.2.2.0 (2768)Which of the following statements is correct ?a) 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channelb) Hearing is the sense which collects most information in manc) 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channeld) The kinesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying

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40.2.2.1 (2769)Once we have constructed a mental model we tenda) to give undue weight to information that confirms the modelb) to give undue weight to information that contradicts the modelc) to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming informationd) to alter that model unnecessarily frequently

40.2.2.1 (2770)The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:a) carbon dioxide in the bloodb) nitrogen in the airc) water vapour in the alveolid) oxygen in the cells

40.2.2.1 (2771)Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means:a) a lesser sensitivityb) a greater sensitivityc) a greater selectivityd) a lesser selectivity

40.2.2.1 (2772)Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:a) the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying downb) a touch on the skin indicating the true verticalc) environmental stressorsd) the condition of the body itself

40.2.2.1 (2773)The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but informs him ofa) the relative motion and relative position of his body partsb) a touch on the skinc) our surroundingsd) the condition in the body itself

40.2.2.1 (2774)A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called:a) reflexb) data processingc) control systemd) change of stimulation level

40.2.2.2 (2775)Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the:a) eyeballsb) optic nerve

c) cristalline lensd) photosensitive cells

40.2.2.2 (2776)Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved througha) seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)b) good visibility onlyc) visual memory onlyd) the ""blind spot"" at the retina

40.2.2.2 (2777)Adaptation isa) the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illuminationb) the change of the diameter of the pupilc) the reflection of the light at the cornead) the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina

40.2.2.2 (2778)The time required for complete adaptation isa) for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 minb) for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutesc) for day and night: 30 mind) for night 10 sec and for day 30 min

40.2.2.2 (2779)The requirement of good sunglasses is toa) absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR radiation and absorb all colors equallyb) fit to the pilots individual tastec) eliminate distortion in aircraft windshieldsd) increase the time for dark adaptation

40.2.2.2 (2780)Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?a) Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purpleb) Accomodation is destroyedc) Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive cellsd) The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on vitamin A

40.2.2.2 (2781)Scanning at night should be performed by:a) slight eye movements to the side of the objectb) scanning with one eye openc) concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea centralis)d) avoiding food containing Vitamin A

40.2.2.2 (2782)Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor bladesa) can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer period of time

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b) can be neglectedc) can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched ond) should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve

40.2.2.2 (2783)What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)?a) It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objectsb) Objects seem to be closer than in realityc) Objects seem to be much bigger than in realityd) There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny day

40.2.2.2 (2784)Hypoxia will effect night visiona) at 5000 FTb) less than day visionc) and causes the autokinetic phenomenad) and causes hyperventilation

40.2.2.2 (2785)What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?a) Fast speedb) Oxygen deficiencyc) Accelerationd) Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication)

40.2.2.2 (2786)The fovea centralis isa) the area of best day vision and no night vision at allb) the area of the blind spot (optic disc)c) where the optic nerves come together with the pupild) the area of best day vision and best night vision

40.2.2.2 (2787)The retina of the eyea) is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for visionb) filters the UV-lightc) is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lensd) only regulates the light that falls into the eye

40.2.2.2 (2788)Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision:1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced diet containing sufficient vitamin A4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic visiona) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are falseb) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

c) Only 4 is falsed) 1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.2 (2789)What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?a) Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindnessb) Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin Ac) Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes offd) Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C

40.2.2.2 (2790)Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy winterday? Becausea) perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrastb) his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditionsc) the danger of a ""greying out"" will make it impossible to determine the height above the terraind) pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information

40.2.2.2 (2791)Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMCa) can cause disorientationb) can cause colour-illusionsc) will improve the pilots depth perceptiond) will effect the pilots binocular vision

40.2.2.2 (2792)A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get?a) The source of light moves away from himb) The source of light stands stillc) The source of light is approaching him with increasing speedd) The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing

40.2.2.2 (2793)To prevent the ""autokinetic phenomena"", the following can be done:a) look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision alsob) fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the otherc) look sideways to the source of light for better fixationd) turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously

40.2.2.2 (2794)Autokinesis isa) the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the darkb) the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcoholc) the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the darkd) the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at different distances

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40.2.2.2 (2795)The time for dark adaptation isa) 30 minb) 10 secc) 1/10 secd) 10 min

40.2.2.2 (2796)Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses)a) can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glassb) are generally forbidden for pilotsc) are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effectsd) are advantageous for pilots

40.2.2.2 (2797)What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying into fog, snow or haze?a) Objects seem to be farther away than in realityb) Objects will appear closer than they really arec) Objects will appear bigger in size than in realityd) Objects seem to move slower than in reality

40.2.2.2 (2798)The peripheral vision is important for:a) detecting moving objectsb) visual acuityc) binocular visiond) colour vision

40.2.2.2 (2799)Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use the scan ning technique, becausea) only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearlyb) it is tiring to look continually in the same directionc) only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearlyd) the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A

40.2.2.2 (2800)When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is thea) visionb) cochleac) sense of balanced) proprioceptive sensitivity

40.2.2.2 (2801)The part(s) of the eye responsible for night visiona) are the rodsb) are the conesc) are rods and conesd) is the cornea

40.2.2.2 (2802)The foveaa) is an area in which cones predominateb) is sensitive to very low intensities of lightc) is an area in which rods predominated) is the area responsible for night vision

40.2.2.2 (2803)When the optical image forms in front of the retina, we are talking abouta) myopiab) hypermetropiac) presbyopiad) astigmatism

40.2.2.2 (2804)The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:a) 25 - 30 minutesb) 5 minutesc) 10 minutesd) 10 seconds

40.2.2.2 (2805)The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night vision are called:a) the rodsb) the foveac) the conesd) the cones and the rods

40.2.2.2 (2806)When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flashblindness by:a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lightsb) looking inside the cockpitc) wearing sunglassesd) using face blinds or face curtains when installeda) a), b), c) and d) are correctb) a), b) and c) are correct, d) is falsec) a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are falsed) c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false

40.2.2.2 (2807)Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?a) Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object.b) Look directly at the object.c) Blink your eyes.d) Look with one eye.

40.2.2.2 (2808)Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for :a) good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)b) good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)c) precise vision of contours and coloursd) red vision, both during the day and at night

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40.2.2.2 (2809)To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary :- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed- 4 : to avoid blindinga) 1,3,4b) 1,2,4c) 2,3,4d) 2

40.2.2.2 (2810)Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due toa) binocular visionb) interactions between cones and rodsc) peripheral visiond) the high sensitivity of the retina

40.2.2.2 (2811)With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct ?-1: It is due to the functioning of rods-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen-3: Its very active both during the day and at night-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacitya) 2,4b) 1,2,4c) 2,3,4d) 1,3

40.2.2.2 (2812)The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):a) is limited to the foveal area of the retinab) is limited to daytime using the rod cellsc) is almost equally shared by the entire retinad) is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle

40.2.2.2 (2813)Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods- 3: The rods allow for night-vision- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retinaa) 1,3b) 1c) 2,3d) 4

40.2.2.2 (2814)In order to get colour vision, it is necessary :-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15°-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light-4 : to avoid white lighta) 1b) 1,2,3

c) 2,4d) 3

40.2.2.2 (2815)The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the:a) cones located in its central partb) rods located in its central partc) crystalline lensd) rods located in its peripheral zone

40.2.2.2 (2816)The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of the following ?a) The crystalline lensb) The rodsc) The conesd) The retina

40.2.2.2 (2817)We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for :a) the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological datab) the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation processc) binocular visiond) the analysis of visual signals

40.2.2.2 (2818)We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs- 2 : are present during take-off and landing- 3 : are rare during routine flights- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousnessa) 3b) 1,4c) 2,3d) 1,2,3

40.2.2.2 (2819)Empty field myopia is caused by:a) lack of distant focal pointsb) atmospheric perspectivec) ozone at altituded) flying over mountainous terrain

40.2.2.2 (2820)The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:a) the pupilb) the ciliary bodyc) the cornead) the lens

40.2.2.2 (2821)When focussing on near objects:

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a) the shape of lens gets more sphericalb) the shape of lens gets flatterc) the cornea gets smallerd) the pupil gets larger

40.2.2.2 (2822)The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:a) accomodationb) binocular visionc) depth perceptiond) adaptation

40.2.2.2 (2823)The mechanism of accomodation is caused by:a) the functioning of the ciliary muscle aroud the lensb) the elasticity of the optic nervesc) the functioning of the muscles of the eyed) the diameter of the pupil

40.2.2.2 (2824)Presbyopia is:a) far sightedness linked with ageb) short sightednessc) myopiad) high intraocular pressure

40.2.2.2 (2825)Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stagea) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is falsec) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is falsed) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

40.2.2.2 (2826)Glaucoma is:a) high intra-ocular pressureb) disturbed colour visionc) disturbed adaptationd) disturbed night vision

40.2.2.2 (2827)Glaucoma is characterised by: 1. disturbed light adaptation 2. progressive narrowing of the visual field 3. insidious onset and concealed progression 4. an increase in intra-ocular pressurea) 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is falseb) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctc) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsed) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.2.3 (2828)Which is the audible range to human hearing?a) Between 16 Hz and 20 KHzb) Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHzc) Between 16 KHz and 20 KHzd) Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz

40.2.2.3 (2829)Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?a) Ossiclesb) Otolithsc) Endolymphd) Semicircular canals

40.2.2.3 (2830)Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of noise?a) The cochleab) The semicircular canalsc) The sacculus and utriculusd) The eustachian tube

40.2.2.3 (2831)The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated ina) the middle earb) the inner earc) the outer eard) the maxillary sinus

40.2.2.3 (2832)Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up ina) noise induced hearing lossb) conductive hearing lossc) presbycusis (eefects of aging)d) a ruptured ear drum

40.2.2.3 (2833)All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of growing old.The effects of aginga) are to cut out the high tones firstb) are to cut out the low tones firstc) are to cut out all tones equallyd) will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all the time

40.2.2.3 (2834)The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequenciesa) 16 - 20,000 Hzb) 0 - 16 Hzc) 20,000 - 40,000 Hzd) 30 - 15000 dB

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40.2.2.3 (2835)The intensity of a sound is measured ina) decibelsb) hertzc) cycles per secondd) curies

40.2.2.3 (2836)The Eustachian tube connects:a) the middle ear and the pharynxb) the auditory duct and the inner earc) the semi circular canalsd) the middle ear and the inner ear

40.2.2.3 (2837)Excessive exposure to noise damages:a) the sensitive membrane in the cochleab) the semi circular canalsc) the ossiclesd) the eardrum

40.2.2.4 (2838)Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor contributing to air-sickness, because theya) upset the vestibular apparatusb) interfere with those of the own blood thus causing circulation problemsc) interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous systemd) make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same frequency

40.2.2.4 (2839)What is understood by air-sickness?a) A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, vomiting and fearb) An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the bloodc) An illness caused by reduced air pressured) An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear

40.2.2.4 (2840)When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will bea) angular accelerationb) radial accelerationc) linear accelerationd) vertical acceleration

40.2.2.4 (2841)Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused bya) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hzb) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHzc) acceleration along the longitudonal body axisd) angular velocity

40.2.2.4 (2842)What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?1. Avoid turbulences.2. Avoid flying through rough weather.3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.4. Give pertinent information.a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are falsed) Only 4 is correct

40.2.2.4 (2843)The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, whena) the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to flyb) the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies prior flightc) the student ist motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli of flyingd) the student has good outside visual reference

40.2.2.4 (2844)Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?a) Gravity and linear accelerationb) Gravity alonec) Linear acceleration and angular accelerationd) Angular acceleration

40.2.2.4 (2845)The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitora) angular accelerationsb) movements with constant speedsc) relative speed and linear accelerationsd) gravity

40.2.2.4 (2846)Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?a) The sacculus and utriculusb) The semicircular canalsc) The cochlead) The eustachian tube

40.2.2.4 (2847)Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular acceleration?a) The semicircular canalsb) The cochleac) The sacculus and utriculusd) The eustachian tube

40.2.2.4 (2848)The vestibular organa) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravityb) gives the impression of hearing

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c) reacts to pressure changes in the middle eard) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea

40.2.2.4 (2849)The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is becausea) the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated canal wallsb) the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impressionc) the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal wallsd) the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds

40.2.2.4 (2850)The semicircular canals monitora) angular accelerationsb) relative speedc) horizontal and vertical accelerationsd) gravity

40.2.2.4 (2851)Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the bodya) change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the bodyb) will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative force acts across the body at right angles to the body axisc) will not stimulate any of the vestibular organsd) are of no interest when performing aerobatics

40.2.2.4 (2852)The semicircular canals form part of thea) inner earb) middle earc) ear drumd) external ear

40.2.2.4 (2853)Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear bya) the semicircular canalsb) the tympanumc) the saccule and the utricled) the cochlea

40.2.2.4 (2854)The semicircular canals detecta) angular accelerationsb) sound wavesc) linear accelerationsd) changes in arterial pressure

40.2.2.4 (2855)Angular accelerations are perceived by:a) the semi circular canalsb) the cochleac) the otholitsd) the receptors in the skin and the joints

40.2.2.4 (2856)The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:a) linear acceleration and gravityb) angular accelerationc) angular speedd) constant speed only

40.2.2.4 (2857)Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion sickness ?-1 : Hearing-2 : The vestibular system-3 : Vision-4 The proprioceptive senses ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"")-5 : The gastrointestinal systema) 2,3,4b) 1,2,3c) 2,3,4,5d) 1,2,5

40.2.2.4 (2858)Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are :1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC2 - sensed via impressions of rotation3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMCa) 1,2,3,4b) 2,3,4c) 1,3d) 3,4

40.2.2.4 (2859)The vestibular system is composed of-1: two ventricles-2 : a saccule-3 : an utricle-4 : three semicircular channelsa) 2,3,4b) 1,4c) 2,3d) 1,3,4

40.2.2.4 (2860)The inner ear is able to perceive: 1. angular acceleration 2. linear acceleration 3. noisea) 1 and 2 and 3 are correctb) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is falsec) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is falsed) 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false

40.2.2.5 (2861)Flying a coordinated level turn will

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a) make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s vertical axisb) first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descentc) make the blood being pooled in the headd) make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body`s vertical axis

40.2.2.5 (2862)Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensationa) corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing a level turnb) corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying straight and level or starting a descentc) makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flightd) will not stimulate the ""seat-of-the-pants"" sense

40.2.2.5 (2863)Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a coordinated level turn?a) Descending and turning into the opposite directionb) Flying straight and levelc) Climbingd) Turning into the original direction

40.2.2.5 (2864)How can a pilot prevent ""pilots-vertigo""?a) Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and maintain an effective instrument cross check.b) Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off-center vision.c) Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments.d) Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and rely upon the senses of balance..

40.2.2.5 (2865)How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight?1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Always believe the instruments, never trust your sense of feeling.3. Ignore arising illusions.4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to ""shake-off"" illusions.a) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are falsec) Only 4 is correctd) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2866)The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor coordination. Theya) are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMCb) indicate the difference between gravity and G-forcesc) allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight conditiond) are important senses for flight training in IMC

40.2.2.5 (2867)The so-called ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense isa) not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lostb) only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMCc) useful for instrument and contact flightd) the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC

40.2.2.5 (2868)Sensory input to the ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is given bya) subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensorsb) blood rushing into legsc) acceleration of the stomach (nausea)d) pressure of the heart on the diaphragm

40.2.2.5 (2869)Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the pilot believe of beeinga) higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (""ducking under"")b) higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshootingc) lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshootingd) lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under

40.2.2.5 (2870)A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at aa) greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land shortb) lower than actual height with the tendency to overshootc) greater height and the impression of landing shortd) lower height and the impression of landing slow

40.2.2.5 (2871)A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly aa) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershootb) compensatory glide path and land longc) compensatory glide path and stall outd) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot

40.2.2.5 (2872)The proprioceptive senses (""Seat of-the-Pants-Sense"")a) give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lostb) is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitudec) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMCd) can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC

40.2.2.5 (2873)The most probable reason for spatial disorientation isa) a poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth between instruments and visual referencesb) the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator

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c) to rely on instruments when flying in and out of cloudsd) to believe the attitude indicator

40.2.2.5 (2874)What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He shoulda) make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be inducedb) be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will make him believe that he is higher than actualc) make a visual approach and call the tower for assistanced) be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot feel that he is lower than actual height

40.2.2.5 (2875)Orientation in flight is accomplished by1. eyes2. utriculus and sacculus3. semicircular canals4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sensea) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) only 1 and 4 are correctc) 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is falsed) 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct

40.2.2.5 (2876)The ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense""a) can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lostb) is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in spacec) can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in spaced) can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and instrument meteorological conditions

40.2.2.5 (2877)The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in thea) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body partsb) semicircular canalsc) utriculus and sacculusd) skin of the breech only

40.2.2.5 (2878)A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to :a) an early or high ""round out""b) a steeper than normal approach dropping lowc) a flatter than normal approach with the risk of ""ducking under""d) the risk to land short of the overrun

40.2.2.5 (2879)The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark is calleda) ""autokinesis""b) ""white out""

c) ""oculogyral illusion""d) ""oculografic illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2880)Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, haze)?Under these conditions it is:a) difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objectsb) impossible to detect objectsc) no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objectsd) improbable to get visual illusions

40.2.2.5 (2881)A pilot approaching an upslope runwaya) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short.b) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing longc) establishes a higher than normal approach speedd) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out

40.2.2.5 (2882)The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:a) approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landingb) to drop far below the glide pathc) approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landingd) to misjudge the length of the runway

40.2.2.5 (2883)Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms ofa) ""Pilot`s vertigo""b) ""Nystagmus""c) ""Flicker-vertigo""d) ""Oculogravic illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2884)""Pilot's vertigo""a) is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)b) is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turnc) is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear accelerationd) announces the beginning of airsickness

40.2.2.5 (2885)What can a pilot do to avoid ""Flicker vertigo"" when flying in the clouds?a) Switch strobe-lights offb) Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflectionsc) Engage the autopilot until breaking the cloudsd) Fly straight and level and avoid head movements

40.2.2.5 (2886)What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establish and

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maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore illusions.4. Minimize head movements.a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are falsed) Only 4 is false

40.2.2.5 (2887)A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to prevent vertigo?a) Depend on the instrumentsb) Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe normal againc) Concentrate on the vertical speedometerd) Depend on information from the semicircular canals of the inner ear, because those are the only ones giving correct information

40.2.2.5 (2888)The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, whena) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organsb) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants-Sensec) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusionsd) informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored

40.2.2.5 (2889)Vertigo is the result ofa) ""Coriolis-effect""b) ""Oculogyral illusion""c) ""Autokinetic-illusion""d) ""Elevator illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2890)Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head whilea) bankingb) climbingc) descendingd) flying straight and level

40.2.2.5 (2891)With ""vertigo"" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due toa) the coriolis effect in the semicircular canalsb) tuned resonance caused by vibrationc) conflicting information between the semicircular canals and the tympanic membraned) oxygen deficiency

40.2.2.5 (2892)""Pilot's vertigo"":a) is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same timeb) the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft is spinning

c) a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to multiple irritation of the utriculus and sacculus at the same timed) the impression of climbing when banking

40.2.2.5 (2893)What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time?a) ""Pilot's"" Vertigo.b) Sudden incapacitation.c) ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" illusions.d) Graveyard spin.

40.2.2.5 (2894)Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion ofa) spinning into the opposite directionb) spinning into the same directionc) straight and level flightd) climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin

40.2.2.5 (2895)Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe toa) climbb) descentc) turn into the opposite directiond) increase the rate of turn into the same direction

40.2.2.5 (2896)When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus willa) give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)b) give the illusion of bankingc) give the illusion of straight and level flightd) give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the airplane going down)

40.2.2.5 (2897)A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get:a) the illusion of climbing or descendingb) the feeling of rotationc) the illusion to turnd) the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left

40.2.2.5 (2898)To prevent vertigo in flight we shoulda) not move the head suddenly while we are turningb) look towards the sides when we make a turnc) breath deeply but control the respiratory frequencyd) keep breathing normally

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40.2.2.5 (2899)When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensationa) that we are starting a spin into the opposite directionb) of turning in the same directionc) of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraftd) of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft

40.2.2.5 (2900)When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of aa) climbb) descentc) turnd) spin

40.2.2.5 (2901)During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome illusions is the:a) visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicatorb) ""Seat-of-the-pants-Sense""c) vestibular sensed) visual sense by looking outside

40.2.2.5 (2902)Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:a) if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot does not believe the instrumentsb) when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross checkc) when flying in light rain below the ceilingd) when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer

40.2.2.5 (2903)Autokinetic illusion is:a) an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to moveb) the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the opposite direction of the accelerationc) a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensationsd) poor interpretation of the surrounding world

40.2.2.5 (2904)With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:a) are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual systemb) originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual perceptionsc) are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusivelyd) are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception between the various members of a crew

40.2.2.5 (2905)Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3. hypertension4. fatigue

a) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctc) 1, 2 and 3 are correctd) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2906)Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:1. flying in IMC2. frequently changing between inside and outside references3. flying from IMC into VMC4. having a colda) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 2, 3 and 4 are correctd) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2907)Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:a) pitching upb) pitching downc) apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of visiond) vertigo

40.2.2.5 (2908)Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:a) climbingb) descendingc) yawingd) spinning

40.2.2.5 (2909)Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:a) simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvresb) undergoing positive Gc) gazing in the direction of a flashing lightd) normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age

40.2.2.5 (2910)When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention against:a) coriolis illusionb) autokinesisc) oculogyral illusiond) pressure vertigo

40.2.2.5 (2911)Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system ?-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects-4 : Illusions of rotationa) 1,4b) 2,3,4

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c) 2d) 3,4

40.2.2.5 (2912)A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences:a) coriolis illusionb) autokinetic illusionc) barotraumad) pressure vertigo

40.2.2.5 (2913)When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion that:a) the light is movingb) the size of the lightis varyingc) the intensity of the light is varyingd) the colour of the light is varying

40.2.2.5 (2914)When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an isolated star) you will find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called:a) autokinetic phenomenonb) black hole illusionc) coriolis illusiond) leans

40.2.2.5 (2915)How is haze effecting your perception?a) Objects seem to be further away than in reality.b) Objects will give better contrast.c) Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinityd) Objects seem to be closer than in reality.

40.2.2.5 (2916)The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion ofa) being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing shortb) being too close, landing longc) climbingd) being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal

40.2.2.5 (2917)You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:a) high approach with overshootb) high approach with undershootc) low approach with overshootd) low approach with undershoot

40.2.2.5 (2918)You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:a) low approach with undershootb) high approach with overshootc) high approach with undershootd) low approach with overshoot

40.2.2.5 (2919)1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense.2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you must believe the instruments.a) 1 is false, 2 is correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 1 is correct, 2 is falsed) 1 and 2 are false

40.2.2.5 (2920)How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? Bya) maintaining a good instrument cross check.b) believing your body senses only.c) moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.d) looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.

40.2.2.5 (2921)Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?a) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.b) Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the semicircular canals.c) Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.d) Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the time.

40.2.2.5 (2922)How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?a) Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check.b) Always try to catch outside visual cues.c) Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses.d) Rely on the kinaesthetic sense.

40.2.2.5 (2923)If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:a) continue on instrumentsb) dim the cockpit lightingc) scan the surroundingsd) use your oxygen mask

40.2.2.5 (2924)If you are disorientated during night flying you must:a) relay on instrumentsb) look outsidec) descendd) check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast

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40.2.3.0 (2925)Which of the following statements are correct ?1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities.2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold.3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35°Ca) 1,3,4b) 1,2,3c) 2,4d) 2,3,4

40.2.3.0 (2926)Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4: vitaminesa) 2,3b) 1,2,3,4c) 1,4d) 1,3

40.2.3.0 (2927)Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when expored to extreme high environmental temperatures?-1 : Shivering-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels-3 : Sweating-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vesselsa) 3,4b) 1,3,4c) 2,3d) 1

40.2.3.0 (2928)The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35°C :a) shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathyb) the appearance of intense shiveringc) mental disorders, and even comad) profuse sweating

40.2.3.0 (2929)We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia :a) reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37°Cb) a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral temperature at the skin is stablec) a rapid fall in ambient temperatured) greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere

40.2.3.0 (2930)What is meant by metabolism ?a) The transformation by which energy is made available for the uses of the organismb) Information exchangec) Transfer of chemical messagesd) Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood

40.2.3.0 (2931)One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is :a) waterb) proteinc) sugard) fat

40.2.3.0 (2932)The body loses water via:1. the skin and the lungs2. the kidneysa) 1 and 2 are correctb) 1 is correct and 2 is not correctc) 1 is not correct and 2 is correctd) both are false

40.2.3.2 (2933)It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:a) pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descentsb) gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drumc) swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic membraned) swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss

40.2.3.2 (2934)It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:a) the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descentsb) although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen, gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to the ear drumc) swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in hyperventilationd) because it will seriously affect peripheral vision

40.2.3.2 (2935)Exchange of gasses between the body and the environment takes place at the:a) lungsb) heartc) musclesd) central nervous system

40.2.3.2 (2936)The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38°C :a) impairment of physical and mental performanceb) apathyc) considerable dehydrationd) nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at 39°C

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40.2.3.2 (2937)Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2. pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinusesa) 2,3 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 1,3 and 4 are correctd) 1,2 and 4 are correct

40.2.3.2 (2938)Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:a) pain in the sinusesb) bendsc) chokesd) hypoxia

40.2.3.3 (2939)Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?a) High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system.b) High blood pressure only.c) Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by in-flight medication.d) Low blood pressure only.

40.2.3.3 (2940)When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute:1.obesity2.distress3.smoking4.family historya) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are falsec) Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are falsed) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

40.2.3.3 (2941)Noise induced hearing loss is influenced bya) the duration and intensity of a noiseb) the duration of a noise but not its intensityc) the suddenness of onset of a noised) the intensity of the noise but not its duration

40.2.3.3 (2942)To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should bea) double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a weekb) avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heartc) double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a weekd) triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week

40.2.3.3 (2943)Which of the following is most true?a) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumptionb) Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate

c) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weightd) Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose weight

40.2.3.3 (2944)Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membranea) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctb) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is falsec) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsed) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.3.3 (2945)Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:a) damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noiseb) a blocked Eustachian tubec) pressure differences on both sides of the eardrumd) reduced mobility of the ossicles

40.2.3.3 (2946)Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ?a) Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight.b) Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature.c) Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.d) Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40°C or more.

40.2.3.3 (2947)Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by: 1. anaemia 2. smoking in the cockpit 3. carbon monoxide poisoning 4. hypoxiaa) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correctc) 2,3 and 4 are correctd) 1,3 and 4 are correct

40.2.3.4 (2948)Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantitiesa) can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxiab) will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxiac) will have no effect at alld) may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be identified

40.2.3.4 (2949)Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct:a) no flying under the influence of alcoholb) flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcoholc) flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohold) flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is safe up to this limit

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40.2.3.4 (2950)The metabolisation of alcohola) is a question of timeb) is quicker when used to itc) can be accelerated even more by coffeed) can be influenced by easy to get medication

40.2.3.4 (2951)Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performancea) the primary and the side effects have to be consideredb) the side effects only have to be consideredc) medication has no influence on pilot´s performanced) only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable

40.2.3.4 (2952)Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects:1. Drowsiness, dizziness2. Dry mouth3. Headaches4. Impaired depth perception5. Nauseaa) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correctb) only 3, 4 and 5 are correctc) 2, 3 and 4 are correctd) only 1 is correct

40.2.3.4 (2953)The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly for the following reasons:1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification.2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment.3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety.4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped.a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsec) 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.d) Only 2 is false.

40.2.3.4 (2954)Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:a) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxiab) a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxiac) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxiad) a suppressed desire to eat and drink

40.2.3.4 (2955)A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day?a) 5 - 8%b) 0.5 - 2%c) 12 - 18%d) 20 - 25%

40.2.3.4 (2956)Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitudea) above 10 000 FTb) of 10 000 FTc) lower than 10 000 FTd) of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen

40.2.3.4 (2957)Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?a) Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lostb) Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcoholc) Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performanced) Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken

40.2.3.4 (2958)Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, maya) intensify the effects of the drugsb) compensate for side effects of drugsc) show undesired effects only during night flightsd) increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood

40.2.3.4 (2959)Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)a) is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expeditedb) is approx. 0.3% per hourc) depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinksd) definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten

40.2.3.4 (2960)When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention has to be payed toa) the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awarenessb) the effect they have on hearingc) the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under the influence of those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleepd) schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications

40.2.3.4 (2961)The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is abouta) 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hourb) 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hourc) 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hourd) 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour

40.2.3.4 (2962)A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceedinga) 0.05 % blood alcohol

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b) 0.1 % blood alcoholc) 0.15 % blood alcohold) 0.2 % blood alcohol

40.2.3.4 (2963)The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs isa) tarb) nicotinec) carbon monoxided) lead

40.2.3.4 (2964)One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to?a) Carbon monoxideb) Carbonic anhydridec) Tard) Carbon dioxide

40.2.3.4 (2965)The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs:a) on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneouslyb) on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner earc) on stimulating the cochlea intenselyd) when no semicircular canal is stimulated

40.2.3.4 (2966)The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco isa) nicotineb) carbon monoxidec) tard) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide

40.2.3.4 (2967)A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is correct:a) A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a flight surgeon if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the same timeb) They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flightc) The side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by pilotsd) They will cause a condition of over-arousal

40.2.3.4 (2968)Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic becausea) it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobinb) it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract

c) it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneysd) it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane

40.2.3.4 (2969)Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?a) A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an aircraft.b) Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste.c) Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to them for a long period of time.d) When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are experienced

40.2.3.4 (2970)Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:a) altitude increasesb) altitude decreasesc) air pressure increasesd) relative humidity decreases

40.2.3.4 (2971)Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?a) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol.b) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.c) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.d) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.

40.2.3.4 (2972)Which statement is correct? 1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease 2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals pysiological altitude during flight3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung cancera) 1,2 and 3 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is falsec) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is falsed) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false

40.2.3.4 (2973)Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is because:a) hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygenb) carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveolic) carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolid) the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract

40.2.3.4 (2974)CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness 2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normala) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct, 2 is false

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c) 1 is false, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both false

40.2.3.4 (2975)Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1. loss of muscular power2. headache 3. impaired judgement 4. pain in the joints 5. loss of consciousnessa) 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correctb) 1, 2 and 4 are correctc) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is falsed) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct

40.2.3.6 (2976)Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :a) insinuatingb) obviousc) suddend) intense

40.3.1.0 (2977)The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to computers because of itsa) flexibilityb) speedc) working memory capacityd) independancy from attention

40.3.1.0 (2978)In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:a) increasingb) the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mindc) not applicable with old and experienced pilotsd) decreasing

40.3.1.0 (2979)Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up every time what they have to do.a) this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in actionb) this is dangerous for every situation is differentc) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply withd) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation.

40.3.1.1 (2980)Mental schemes correspond to:a) memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at willb) the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular situationc) memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-over to a new

machined) daily planning of probable dangerous situations

40.3.1.1 (2981)The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( Anderson model):a) cognitive, associative and autonomousb) cognitive, associative and knowledgec) associative, autonomous and expertd) automatic, cognitive and knowledge

40.3.1.1 (2982)A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she:a) has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free his/her cognitive resourcesb) is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flightc) knows how to invest the maximum resources in the automation of tasks in real timed) is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight

40.3.1.1 (2983)The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input channel is known asa) attentionb) perceptionc) sensationd) appreciation

40.3.1.1 (2984)According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:a) different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the information-gathering, information-processing or action phaseb) unlimited information-processing resourcesc) cognitive resources which are centered on actiond) processing capabilities which function at peak level when different tasks call for the same resources

40.3.1.1 (2985)The available cognitive resources of the human brain:a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same timeb) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same timec) are virtually unlimitedd) allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness

40.3.1.1 (2986)Concentration is essential for pilots.a) However, capacity of concentration is limitedb) It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of concentration without limitsc) Vigilance is all that is required to be attentived) All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on resources and therefore on one's concentration

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40.3.1.1 (2987)The 'cocktail party effect' isa) the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionallyb) the ability to drink too much at social gatheringc) the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the worldd) the tendency not to perceive relevant information

40.3.1.1 (2988)Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual interference?a) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem.b) Listen attentively and solve a problem.c) Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory.d) Read and listen attentively.

40.3.1.1 (2989)A selective attentional mechanism is requireda) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memoryb) because the capacity of the long term memory is limitedc) because of the limitations of the sense organsd) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes

40.3.1.1 (2990)If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources :a) the sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reducedb) a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance will then tail offc) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-based mode for the two tasksd) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rules-based mode for the two tasks

40.3.1.1 (2991)Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?1. Healthy living2. Use of amphetamines3. Reducing the intensity of the light4. Organising periods of rest during the flighta) 1,4b) 1,2c) 1,3d) 3,4

40.3.1.1 (2992)What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ?1. Decrease in sensory perception2. Increase in selective attention3. Sensation of muscular heaviness4. Decrease in complacencya) 1,3b) 1,4c) 2,3d) 2,4

40.3.1.1 (2993)What is ""divided attention""?a) Alternative management of several matters of interestb) Ease of concentrating on a particular objectivec) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objectived) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed

40.3.1.1 (2994)Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct ?Hypovigilance :a) may occur at any moment of the flightb) essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phasec) tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators' attentiond) only affects certain personality types

40.3.1.1 (2995)What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance) ?1. The monotony of the task2. Tiredness,the need for sleep3. A lack of stimulation4. Excessive stressa) 1,2,3b) 2,4c) 1,3d) 3,4

40.3.1.1 (2996)With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that :a) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it frees mental resourcesb) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees resourcesc) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees resourcesd) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees resources

40.3.1.1 (2997)What are the various factors which guide attention ?1. The level of automation of behaviour2. Response time3. The salience of the information4. Expectationsa) 1,3,4b) 1,4c) 1,2d) 2,3,4

40.3.1.1 (2998)Check the following statements:1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will be evaluated.2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs.3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the central decision maker (CNS).

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a) 1, 2 and 3 are correctb) 1and 3 are correctc) 1 and 2 are correctd) 2 and 3 are correct

40.3.1.2 (2999)Conscious perceptiona) is a mental process involving experience and expectationsb) relies upon the development of intuitionc) involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the brain onlyd) relates to the correct recognition of colours

40.3.1.2 (3000)The first stage in the information process isa) sensory stimulationb) perceptionc) selective attentiond) the recognition of information

40.3.1.2 (3001)Our mental model of the world is baseda) on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receiveb) entirely on the sensory information we receivec) entirely on past experiencesd) on both our past experiences and our motor programmes

40.3.1.2 (3002)What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism ?a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglectedb) They always lead to routine errorsc) The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant informationd) The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions

40.3.1.2 (3003)Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?a) The intensity of the stimuli.b) The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory.c) The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory.d) The seperation of figure and background.

40.3.1.2 (3004)The ""gestalt laws ""formulates :a) basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceivedb) basic principles governing the relationship between stress and performancec) basic principles governing the effects of habit and experienced) basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and performance

40.3.1.2 (3005)Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :a) associated with the task of mental construction of the environmentb) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systemsc) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental datad) solely induced in the absence of external reference points

40.3.1.2 (3006)In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called :a) illusion of relative movementb) autokinetic illusionc) cognitive illusiond) somato-gravic illusion

40.3.1.3 (3007)The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:a) about 7 itemsb) very limited - only 3 itemsc) about 30 itemsd) unlimited

40.3.1.3 (3008)The capacity of the short-term memory isa) about 7 itemsb) very limited - only one itemc) about 30 itemsd) unlimited

40.3.1.3 (3009)Information stays in the short-term memorya) about 20 secondsb) less than 1 secondc) from 5 to 10 minutesd) around 24 hours

40.3.1.3 (3010)Working memory :a) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its contentb) is unlimited in sizec) is unlimited in durationd) varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot

40.3.1.3 (3011)Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and expertise.a) It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it available when requiredb) The capacity of long-term memory is limited

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c) Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basisd) The recovery of information from long-term memory is immediate and easy

40.3.1.3 (3012)Motor programmes are:a) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious controlb) rules that enable us to deal with novel situationsc) rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situationsd) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous conscious control

40.3.1.3 (3013)Working memory enables us, for example,a) to remember a clearance long enough to write it downb) to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 secondsc) to ignore messages for other aircraftd) to remember our own name

40.3.1.3 (3014)In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximatelya) 20 secondsb) 5 minutesc) 1 hourd) a couple of days

40.3.1.3 (3015)The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):a) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored informationb) the quantity of data which may be storedc) the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which comes to saturate itd) the data storage time

40.3.1.3 (3016)What are the main limits of short-term memory ?It is :-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference-2 : difficult to access-3 : limited in size-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of informationa) 1,3 ,4b) 1,2 ,3c) 2 ,3d) 2,4

40.3.1.3 (3017)Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory ?- 1 : It is limited in time and size- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in sizea) 1b) 1,3c) 3,4d) 2,3

40.3.1.3 (3018)With regard to short-term memory, we can say that :a) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining datab) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the time for which it retains data but not in its storage capacityc) it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbanced) it mainly contains procedural knowledge

40.3.1.3 (3019)Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic knowledge.-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same information is used.-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time.a) 1 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 2, 3 and 4 are correctd) 2 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.3 (3020)To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful to:a) mentally rehearse information before it is neededb) learn and store data in a logical and structured wayc) structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it to memoryd) avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon

40.3.1.3 (3021)Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memorya) its storage capacity is unlimitedb) it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but unlimted in terms of storage timec) it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in terms of capacityd) its mode of storing information is passive, making memory searches effective

40.3.1.4 (3022)Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes differ from experienced pilots in the following way :a) unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same taskb) experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that routine causes mistakesc) task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's oned) flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this deficiency

40.3.1.4 (3023)In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable toa) establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real time)

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b) plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actionsc) avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasksd) plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in advance

40.3.1.4 (3024)The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible to:-1 : create a precise reference framework.-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.-3 : automate planned actions.-4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary for the period to come.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 2 and 4 are correctd) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.4 (3025)Pre-thought action plans may be said to:-1 : ease access to information which may be necessary.-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come.-3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the flight.-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered situation.The combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 2 and 4 are correctd) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.4 (3026)The workload may be said to:-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the crew resources.-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew resources.-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.-4 : correspond to the amount of resources availableThe combination of correct statements is:a) 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 3 and 4 are correctc) 1 and 3 are correctd) 2 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.4 (3027)Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in the pilot's work to maintain safety.a) However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly affects performanceb) Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusionsc) A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in complete safetyd) A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance

40.3.1.4 (3028)The quality of learning :a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performanceb) depends on long-term memory capacityc) is independent of the level of motivationd) is independent of age

40.3.1.4 (3029)Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of actions.a) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skillsb) It is most important for selfcontrolc) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imaginationd) It is more effective than training by doing

40.3.1.4 (3030)How can the process of learning be facilitated?a) By reinforcing successful trialsb) By increasing the psychological pressure on the studentc) By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trialsd) By reinforcing errors

40.3.1.4 (3031)Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due toa) practice and experienceb) innate mechanismsc) maturationd) drug influence

40.3.1.4 (3032)Mental training is helpful to improve flying skillsa) at all levels of flying proficiencyb) only for student pilotsc) only for instructor pilotsd) only at a certain level of flying experience

40.3.1.4 (3033)Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day professional life ?1. Beeing in control of one's own situation2. Fear of punishment3. Success (achievement of goals)4. Social promotion, moneya) 1,2,3,4b) 1,2,3c) 3,4d) 2,4

40.3.1.4 (3034)Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention ?a) It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attentionb) It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)c) Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertnessd) It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal

40.3.1.4 (3035)The effect of experience and habit on performancea) can both be beneficial and negativeb) is always negative

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c) is never negatived) is always beneficial

40.3.1.4 (3036)Murphy's law states :a) If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will beb) Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one person to anotherc) Expectation has an influence on perceptiond) Performance is dependent on motivation

40.3.1.4 (3037)The needs of an individual lead to :a) a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviourb) preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing satisfiedc) no change in his motivation and conrequently to the persistence of the individuals behaviour in regard to the desired outcomed) prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high self-actualization

40.3.1.4 (3038)Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity isa) skill based behaviourb) coping behaviourc) knowledge based behaviourd) rule based behaviour

40.3.1.4 (3039)If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure, and you encounter no inexpected or new problems you show:a) skill based behaviourb) knowledge based behaviourc) rule based behaviourd) rule and skill based behaviour

40.3.1.4 (3040)The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is:a) skill based behaviourb) knowledge based behaviourc) pressure based behaviourd) rule based behaviour

40.3.1.4 (3041)The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of a critical situationa) is necessary to maintain good situational awarenessb) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraftc) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anywayd) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world

40.3.1.4 (3042)1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental picture than boring information.2.The sequence in which information is offered is also important for the use the pilot makes of it.a) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct, 2 is not correctc) 1 is not correct, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.1.4 (3043)The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in their actions. This is called:a) procedural consistencyb) mental modelc) knowledge-based behaviourd) procedural confusion

40.3.2.0 (3044)What means can be used to combat human error?-1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training.-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.-4 : Improving recovery from errors and its consequences.The combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 2 and 4b) 3 and 4c) 1 and 2d) 2, 3 and 4

40.3.2.0 (3045)It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly becausea) such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstancesb) this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selectionc) this reduces the amount of training requiredd) it makes the flight deck easier to design

40.3.2.0 (3046)Human errors are frequent and may take several forms :a) an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her actionsb) an error of intention is an error of routinec) an violation is an error which is always involuntaryd) representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure

40.3.2.0 (3047)What is meant by the term 'complacency'?a) Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidenceb) To question possible solutionsc) An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Managementd) Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying

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40.3.2.0 (3048)What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the creation of their application procedures for combatting problems associated with human error ?a) To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing serious consequencesb) To eliminate the risk of latent errors occuringc) To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse their nature and modify ergonomic parametersd) To put in place redundant alarm systems

40.3.2.1 (3049)How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?a) By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross monitoring)b) By increasing error detection in all circumstancesc) By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection, warning and monitoring systemsd) By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is low

40.3.2.1 (3050)What are the various means which allow for better error detection?-1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.-2 : Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations.-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures by the crew.-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1, 2 and 3b) 1and 3c) 2, 3 and 4d) 3 and 4

40.3.2.1 (3051)Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism? -1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error.-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc. -3 : It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting future errors.-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the future.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 2 and 3b) 3 and 4c) 2 and 4d) 1 and 4

40.3.2.1 (3052)Improvement of human reliability should entail:a) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed

b) in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operatorsc) the elimination of latent errors before they can effect performanced) the analysis of modes of human failures

40.3.2.1 (3053)An excessive need for safetya) hampers severly the way of pilot decision makingb) is absolute necessary for a safe flight operationc) is the most important attribute of a line pilotd) guarantees the right decision making in critical situations

40.3.2.1 (3054)Studies of human error rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can normally be expected to occur abouta) 1 in 10 timesb) 1 in 50 timesc) 1 in 100 timesd) 1 in 250 times

40.3.2.1 (3055)Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and pretty good, after methodical traininga) 1 in 100 timesb) 1 in 1000 timesc) 1 in 10000 timesd) 1 in 100000 times

40.3.2.1 (3056)Situations particularly vulnerable to ""reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern"" are :1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed2. when situations are characterised by medium workload3. when situations are characterised by stressa) 1. and 3.b) 1. and 2.c) 3.d) 2. and 3.

40.3.2.2 (3057)The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental model is, that ita) is frequently extremely resistant to correctionb) will mainly occur under conditions of relaxationc) will only occur under conditions of stressd) can easily be changed

40.3.2.3 (3058)Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?Active error is:a) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall actionb) produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the actionc) essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule

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by airplane designersd) rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations

40.3.2.3 (3059)What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:-1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain lenght of time.-2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl conditions.-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors.-4 : lull the pilots into security.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1,2 and 4b) 1 and 2c) 1 and 3d) 2, 3 and 4

40.3.2.3 (3060)Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?Latent errors:a) have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time and are difficult to understand as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurence of the errorb) are rarely made by front-line operators, and are consequently readily identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning linksc) are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected after advanced problem-solvingd) rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress

40.3.2.3 (3061)A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is the result of:-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.-2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities.-3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links.-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface.The combination of correct statements is:a) 2 and 4b) 1, 2 and 4c) 1 and 3d) 3 and 4

40.3.2.3 (3062)According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s) :a) errors of technical knowledgeb) routine errorsc) handling errorsd) creative errors

40.3.2.3 (3063)According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based control mode:a) routine errorsb) knowledge errors

c) handling errorsd) creative errors

40.3.2.3 (3064)When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?When:a) the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safetyb) its safety system is too permeable to errorc) its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errorsd) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety

40.3.2.3 (3065)Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:a) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptationb) destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the errorc) are prompted by inductive factorsd) have virtually no interaction with behaviour

40.3.2.3 (3066)Human behaviour is determined by:a) biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influencesb) biological characteristicsc) the social environmentd) cultural influences

40.3.2.3 (3067)The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On the other hand, it may result in :a) routine errors (slips)b) mistakesc) decision-making errorsd) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action

40.3.2.3 (3068)In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity ?a) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posedb) Attentional capturec) Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posedd) The unsuitability of the automated actions

40.3.2.3 (3069)Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level ?1.Omission2.The application of a poor rule3. Attentional capture4. The poor application of a good rulea) 2,4b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 1,3

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40.3.2.3 (3070)The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various directly observable types of erroneous actions which are :1. Repetition and omission2. The forward leap and the backward leap3. Intrusion and anticipation4. Intrusiona) 1,2,4b) 1,3c) 2,4d) 1,2,3

40.3.2.3 (3071)What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ?a) Actions return to an automatic modeb) A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the resultsc) A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to continue monitoring of the problemd) A second monitoring rule must be applied

40.3.2.4 (3072)To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able toa) report its malfunctionb) report the deviationc) correct the deviationd) tolerate the deviation

40.3.2.4 (3073)Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that :a) there is hardly ever a single cause responsibleb) only front-line operators are involvedc) only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situationd) failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns

40.3.2.4 (3074)What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean?a) The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flightb) The result of a poor preflight planningc) The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in cloudsd) The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal tensions between captain and co-pilot

40.3.2.4 (3075)'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements?1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently exercised, even if it is inappropriate to do so2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do so3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways in different social situations4. The gaining of environmental skillsa) 1 and 2 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 2 and 3 are correctd) 4 is correct

40.3.2.4 (3076)Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based level ?a) When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcomeb) Failure of all the known rulesc) The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and completely newd) An automated cognitive check procedure

40.3.2.4 (3077)Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from :1. the capture of a poor action subprogram2. a mistake in the decision making process3. the application of a poor rule4. an action mode errora) 1,4b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 2,3,4

40.3.2.4 (3078)What are the main characteristics of active errors ?They :1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress3. are down to first-line operators4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected significantlya) 2,3b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 1,4

40.3.2.4 (3079)The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety :a) is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational context created by the systemb) is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the main factorc) is independent of the operational context, with the latter being identical for any flight operationd) has been evolving for 40 years and has now become independent of the social and technical system

40.3.2.4 (3080)The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:1. increase with altitude2. decrease with altitude3. increase with higher workload4. decrease with higher workloada) 1 and 3 are correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correctc) 1, 3 and 4 are correctd) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.2.4 (3081)What may be the origins of representation errors ?1. Perception errors2. The catering for all available information 3. Incorrect information from the observed world4. The receipt of a bad piece of information

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a) 1,3,4b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 2,3

40.3.3.0 (3082)When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he shoulda) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mindb) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possiblec) avoid making up his mind until the very last minuted) make up his mind before consulting other crew members

40.3.3.0 (3083)The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:a) distribution of tasks and crew coordinationb) speed of reactionc) informing ATC thoroughly about the situationd) the whole crew to focus on the problem

40.3.3.0 (3084)Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the cockpit?a) Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view.b) Communicational skills and social competence.c) Ability to search for and examine all available information regarding a situation.d) Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of action.

40.3.3.0 (3085)The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based ona) subjective perception and evalutation of situational factorsb) external factors onlyc) the emergency checklist onlyd) situational factors only

40.3.3.0 (3086)Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probablya) find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the datab) find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the datac) find it easy to interpret the data in different waysd) find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens

40.3.3.0 (3087)To maintain good situational awareness you should:(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data(2) gather as much datas as possible from every possible source before making inferences(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to make time to review the situation(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correcta) 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) all answers are correct

c) 1 and 4 are correctd) 1 and 3 are correct

40.3.3.1 (3088)Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:a) good judgementb) physical skillsc) interpersonal relationsd) good maintenance of aircraft

40.3.3.1 (3089)Judgement is based upon:a) a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experienceb) a decision making process involving physical sensations and their transfer to manually operate the aircraft controlsc) the development of skills from constant practice of flight manoeuvresd) the ability to interpret the flight instruments

40.3.3.1 (3090)Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?a) Deciding means choosing between alternatives.b) Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions.c) Deciding means imposing one's point of view.d) Deciding means applying an automatic procedure.

40.3.3.1 (3091)Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?a) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared beforehandb) Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitmentc) Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilitiesd) The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status

40.3.3.1 (3092)In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to :a) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew membersb) an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to leadc) the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilitiesd) the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone can contribute what he/she knows

40.3.3.1 (3093)What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time pressure ?a) A strategy of preparing decisionsb) A non-sequential strategyc) A Laissez-faire strategyd) A strategy of no commitment

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40.3.3.1 (3094)Which biases relate to human decision making?1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposesa) 1,2,3b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 1,2,4

40.3.3.1 (3095)Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that:a) a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible resultb) one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisionsc) professional pilots will never question established proceduresd) one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices

40.3.3.1 (3096)Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors have made in the past3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rational informationa) 1,3b) 2,3c) 1,4d) 2,4

40.3.3.1 (3097)The DECIDE model is based on :a) a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most likely to come up with the solutionb) a prescriptive generic model which is subject to mathematical logicc) a normative generic model based on mathematical logicd) a statistical model based on observation of human decision-making

40.3.3.1 (3098)Decision-making is a concept which represents :a) a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a given problemb) an automated or automation-like act of applying defined proceduresc) an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problemd) a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced with a defined problem

40.3.3.1 (3099)Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight deck ?

a) A good decision depends on analysis of the situationb) A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited timec) A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not come up to expectationsd) A group decision must always be established prior to action

40.3.3.1 (3100)In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends :1. on objective and subjective criteria2. on the objective to be achieved3. on the risks associated with each solution4. above all on the personality of the decision-makera) 1,2,3,4b) 1,2,4c) 1,3d) 4

40.3.3.1 (3101)Decision-making results in:a) a choice between different solutions for achieving a goalb) a choice always based on the experience of the PICc) an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given endd) a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions

40.3.3.1 (3102)The confirmation bias of decision making isa) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor,b) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgementc) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decisiond) a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before implementing one's decision

40.3.4.1 (3103)The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when:a) flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressureb) flying an aircraft which you have flown recentlyc) conducting a longer flight than you would normally performd) flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before

40.3.4.1 (3104)Which of the following responses is an example of ""habit reversion"" (negative habit transfer):a) A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON positionb) Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the rightc) Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructionsd) habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item when two items are on the same line

40.3.4.1 (3105)Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select

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the response below which could lead to such a hazard:a) mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipatedb) anticipating that the weather may deterioratec) anticipating that the flight will take longer time than plannedd) anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.

40.3.4.1 (3106)The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off :-1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydrationa) 2,3b) 1,3c) 1,4d) 1,2,4

40.3.4.1 (3107)You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You willa) decide to divert if you think it is necessary.b) continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the moneyc) divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboardd) see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision

40.3.4.2 (3108)Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the captain should emphasizea) particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific circumstancesb) complete delegation of all dutiesc) to depart on scheduled) to avoid inadequate handling of flight controls

40.3.4.2 (3109)Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list?-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts.-2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list.-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks.-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied-5 : Critical points should have redundancies.The combination of correct statements is:a) 1, 4 and 5 are correctb) 1, 2 and 3 are correctc) 1, 2 and 5 are correctd) 1, 3 and 5 are correct

40.3.4.2 (3110)The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:

a) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actionsb) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actionsc) their execution is not lumped together with important tasksd) it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification

40.3.4.2 (3111)The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:a) initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the flightb) define general planning of the flight planc) allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situationd) activate a collective mental schema with respect to non-procedural actions to be carried out

40.3.4.2 (3112)In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 3 are correctc) 1, 2 and 3 are correctd) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.2 (3113)Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?a) The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is usually focused hereb) The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary checkc) The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to waned) All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance

40.3.4.2 (3114)Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation?-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot.-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew.-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and distributing responsibilities.-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on temporal and cognitive synchronisation.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1 and 3b) 1,2 and 4c) 2 and 3d) 1 and 4

40.3.4.2 (3115)What are the advantages of coordination?a) Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.b) Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.

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c) Interaction, cognition, redundancy.d) Redundancy, exploration, risky shift.

40.3.4.2 (3116)Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:a) working parallel to achieve one common objectiveb) working parallel to achieve individual objectivesc) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situationsd) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions

40.3.4.2 (3117)The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the-1 Pilot in Command-2 Co-pilot-3 Navigator-4 Air traffic controllerThe correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1b) 1 and 2c) 2 and 3d) 4

40.3.4.2 (3118)Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :a) be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergyb) be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraftc) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC proceduresd) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies

40.3.4.2 (3119)The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to :a) the crewb) the manufacturerc) the number of enginesd) the year of manufacture

40.3.4.3 (3120)Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1) dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behavioura) 2 and 3b) 1 and 4c) 1 and 3d) 2 and 4

40.3.4.3 (3121)During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?a) The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any

commentsb) The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his decisionsc) The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to dod) The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that needed

40.3.4.3 (3122)Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leadera) tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involvedb) mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within the teamc) keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguingd) decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through

40.3.4.3 (3123)Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?a) The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of individual team membersb) To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with task demandsc) Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individuald) The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team members

40.3.4.3 (3124)Informal roles within a crewa) evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew membersb) are explicitely set out by the crewc) do not impair the captain's influenced) characterize inefficient crews

40.3.4.3 (3125)Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient, if all crew members concerneda) adapt their management style to meet the situational demandsb) are always task orientedc) are always relationship orientedd) always ask the captain what to do

40.3.4.3 (3126)Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?a) Active listening.b) Responding with counter-arguments.c) Staying to the own point of view.d) Giving up the own point of view.

40.3.4.3 (3127)The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on

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a) both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goalsb) both pilots wearing the same uniformc) both pilots flying together very often for a long periodd) both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude

40.3.4.3 (3128)During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your problem', and continues smoking. What should the copilot do?a) He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict during the debriefingb) He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in the cockpitc) He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit and should argue with the captain about this problem until the conflict is solvedd) He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the captain

40.3.4.3 (3129)How would you call the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew freedom for own decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult?a) Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientationb) High task-orientation and low relationship-orientationc) High task-orientation and high relationship-orientationd) Low task-orientation and low relationship-orientation

40.3.4.3 (3130)If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the captain in an unjustified way, then he shoulda) duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and clear the matter in a more appropriate occasionb) freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontationc) speak up and point at consequencies if unfair behaviour persistsd) internally retire and think positive

40.3.4.3 (3131)The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,a) ""person"" and ""goal"" orientedb) rather ""person"" than ""goal"" orientedc) neither ""person"" nor ""goal"" orientedd) rather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented

40.3.4.3 (3132)Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:a) they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are beeing observed and admired (e.g. air shows)b) making decisions independently of othersc) they are not constrained by timed) making a flight over unfamiliar territory

40.3.4.3 (3133)What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?-1 The quality of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of communications-2 A decrease in the quality of communications-3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in a deterioration in relations between the individuals-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the flight deckThe correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1, 2 and 4 are correctb) 2, 3 and 4 are correctc) 1,3 and 4 are correctd) 1,2 and 3 are correct

40.3.4.3 (3134)What elements establish synergy within the crew ?a) Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)b) Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to debriefingc) Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)d) It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew

40.3.4.3 (3135)Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew2. There is little delegating of tasks3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and laissez-fairea) 1,4b) 1,3,4c) 2,3d) 2,4

40.3.4.3 (3136)Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centered cockpit ?a) Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his own thing while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what is going onb) The egocentric personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic cockpitc) The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes charge of a situationd) While decreasing communication, the independence of each member bolsters the crew's synergy

40.3.4.3 (3137)What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?a) Inversion of authorityb) Lack of communicationc) Appearance of agressivenessd) Disengagement of the co-pilot

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40.3.4.3 (3138)What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?a) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew membersb) Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other members about themc) The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situationd) The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to tension between the various crew members

40.3.4.3 (3139)What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a highly authoritarian captain ?1. Self-assertion2. A scapegoat feeling3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies4. Disengagementa) 2,3,4b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 1,3,4

40.3.4.3 (3140)What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck ?a) In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effectb) High group performance despite the strained relationsc) A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is inassertived) Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation and efficiency

40.3.4.3 (3141)An autocratic cockpit is described by :a) The captain's excessive authority cosiderably reduces communications and consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crewb) Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to his natural leadershipc) Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief that everyone is aware of what he is doingd) The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the various members of the crew

40.3.4.3 (3142)What optimises crew co-operation ?1. Sharing and common task2. Confidence in each others capability3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members rolea) 1,2,3b) 1c) 1,2d) 2,3

40.3.4.3 (3143)What distinguishes status from role ?a) While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by

individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the groupb) While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group, status defines - via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individualsc) Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crewd) Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew

40.3.4.3 (3144)What characterises the notion of role ?a) The function and behaviour associated with the particular roleb) Only the functions associated with rolec) The characteristic behaviour associated with the description of the various roles of a particular statusd) The hierarchical position of the function and the associated behaviour

40.3.4.3 (3145)What is synergy in a crew ?a) The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performancesb) A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actionsc) The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard taskd) The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective

40.3.4.3 (3146)Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:a) expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt can not be rejected on the base of evidenceb) unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisionsc) abstention from any suggestion which might be untimelyd) the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's synergy

40.3.4.3 (3147)An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:a) decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew membersb) the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience levelc) the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew membersd) decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew members

40.3.4.3 (3148)An non-synergetic cockpit :a) is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communicationb) is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately with the outsidec) always results from an over-relaxed atmosphered) is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally

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40.3.4.3 (3149)CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:a) intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship managementb) not intended to change the individual's attitude at allc) intended solely to alter an individual's personality,d) is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes

40.3.4.4 (3150)What does not apply to a constructive and helpful feedback?a) Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of the receiverb) It should be individually tailored to the receiver's backgroundc) It should be formulated subjectively and personally ('I' instead of 'one')d) It should be actual and specify in regard to the concerned situation

40.3.4.4 (3151)Which statement is correct?a) Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper their communication process.b) There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.c) Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.d) Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their communication process.

40.3.4.4 (3152)What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate implicitly ('between the lines')?a) Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been misunderstood.b) There is no need to make up one's mind before starting to communicate.c) The receiver grasps quickly what the sender means.d) He/she has not to adjust to the communication style of the communication partner.

40.3.4.4 (3153)Metacommunication is defined asa) communicating about the communicationb) balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the interlocutorc) having an assessment conversationd) active listening

40.3.4.4 (3154)An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following rules should a feedback comply with?a) The feedback should always relate to a specific situation.b) The feedback should only be given if requested by the captain.c) The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his behaviour.d) The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation.

40.3.4.4 (3155)Nonverbal communicationa) supports verbal communicationb) is of no meaning in the cockpit

c) is always used intentionallyd) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit

40.3.4.4 (3156)How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'?a) Beeing silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning.b) Each situation requires communication.c) You cannot influence your own communication.d) The statement above is a missprint.

40.3.4.4 (3157)With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct?a) All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language.b) Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective management of any flight's communication.c) It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the ICAO.d) The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official aeronautical language of the destination country.

40.3.4.4 (3158)Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?a) Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language, tailored to minimize misunderstandings.b) Professional communication means to exchange information as little as possible.c) The syntax of communication is of little importance to its success. Only the words uttered are important.d) Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all circumstances

40.3.4.4 (3159)Which combination of elements guarantee the understanding of a message without adding new information to it?a) Feedback.b) Coding.c) Synchronization.d) Encoding.

40.3.4.4 (3160)The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is calleda) feedbackb) redundancyc) synchronizationd) transference

40.3.4.4 (3161)Which elements of communication are prone to malfunctioning?a) The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding

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b) Coding and decodingc) The senderd) The receiver

40.3.4.4 (3162)Discussing private matters in the cockpita) can improve team spiritb) should be avoided by all means in the cockpitc) is appropriate in any phase of flightd) decreases the captains role of leadership

40.3.4.4 (3163)With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:a) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progressb) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to be carried out at the same timec) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their numberd) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable and are not much affected by changes in workload

40.3.4.4 (3164)The intended recipient of a message must:-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation.-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt.-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication attempt if the pilot is too busy.-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion.The combination of correct statements is:a) 3 and 4 are correctb) 1,2 and 4 are correctc) 1 and 2 are correctd) 2 and 3 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3165)Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in connection with:-1 : the variations of technical training and skills.-2 : communication problems.-3 : conflicting ways of management.-4 : interpersonal problems.The combination of correct statements is:a) 2,3 and 4 are correctb) 1, 2 and 4 are correctc) only 1 is correctd) 2 and 3 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3166)The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:a) facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication on the flight deckb) considerably improved all the communication facilities of the crewc) reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in interpersonal relationsd) improved man-machine communication as a result of flight sensations

40.3.4.4 (3167)In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:a) does not loose its importanceb) will increase as a result of the increase of technical dissemination of informationc) will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about by technical improvementsd) are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the increased availability wich results from technical lightening of the workload

40.3.4.4 (3168)What are the communication qualities of a good briefing?A good briefing must:-1 : contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible.-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type.-3 : be short and precise.-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 2,3 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 1, 2 and 4 are correctd) 1 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3169)Of the following statements, select those which apply to ""information"".-1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers.-2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver.-3 : It is measured in bits.-4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 2 and 3 are correctb) 1,2,3 and 4 are correctc) 2,3 and 4 are correctd) only 1 is correct

40.3.4.4 (3170)Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:a) the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meaningsb) differences in contexts for the sender and the receiverc) a form of the message, which should not match the expectation of the receiverd) different codes between form and meaning

40.3.4.4 (3171)In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to: -1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels.-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding abilities.-3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of the message only.-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication channels, in order to simplify communication.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) only 2 is correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correctc) 3 and 4 are correctd) 2 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3172)Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are correct?-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she tends to reduce verbal redundancy content of his sentences-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native

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tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more complicated words so as to optimize understanding-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify the content of sentences-4 Simplification of check list in a crew who know each other essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal conflictThe correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1 and 3 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 2 and 3 are correctd) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3173)Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example: -1 : They use a limited vocabulary .-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to ambiguities.-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.-4 : Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk of ambiguities.The correct statement(s) is (are):a) 1 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 3 are correctc) 2 and 3 are correctd) only 4 is correct

40.3.4.4 (3174)A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with ground-to-crew communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of a message?a) Listening errors.b) Errors in understanding clearance values.c) Radio failure.d) Mother tongue differing from working language.

40.3.4.4 (3175)An increase in workload usually leads to:a) a shorter and less frequent exchange of informationb) a longer and less frequent exchange of informationc) a shorter and more frequent exchange of informationd) a longer and more frequent exchange of information

40.3.4.4 (3176)Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to conflicts ?1. Seeking arbitration2. Actively listening to other people3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a more emotional level4. Becoming aware of cultural influencesa) 1,2,4b) 1,2,3c) 2,3,4d) 2,4

40.3.4.4 (3177)Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct ?a) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution

b) Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional party if it is to be effectivec) Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of involved partiesd) The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities of one of the involved parties

40.3.5.0 (3178)With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said that age:a) has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight experienceb) sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive capabilitiesc) has a major impact owing to the impairment of memoryd) increases in impact as speed of thought and memory deteriorate

40.3.5.1 (3179)Attitudes are defined as:a) tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or negativelyb) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activityc) the genetic predispositions for thinking and actingd) a synonym for behaviour

40.3.5.1 (3180)Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high workload conditions in the cockpit?a) Mentally absent.b) Sensitive.c) Disciplined.d) Jovial.

40.3.5.1 (3181)Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:a) Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a situationb) form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an adultc) are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated with themd) are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality

40.3.5.1 (3182)Which of the following elements make up the personality of an individual ?1. Heredity2. Childhood environment3. Upbringing4. Past experiencea) 1,2,3,4b) 1,2,4c) 2,3d) 2,3,4

40.3.5.1 (3183)The effectiveness of the individual depends on:

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a) the ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs and the demands of realityb) the ability to repress the dictates of needsc) the ability to go beyond one's own capabilitiesd) the total independence with respect to the environment

40.3.5.2 (3184)Very high ambition and need for achievementa) disturbe the climate of cooperationb) fulfil the requirements of stress resistancec) always promote teamworkd) improves the coping process with personal failures

40.3.5.2 (3185)Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making most effective?a) Assertiveness.b) Competitiveness.c) General intelligence.d) Friendliness.

40.3.5.2 (3186)A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence is most likely?a) His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be incorporated.b) His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.c) The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.d) An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological consequences.

40.3.5.3 (3187)Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for pilots to develop?a) Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerabilty, resignation, machismo complexb) Invulnerability, underconfidence, avoidance of making decisions, lack of situational awarenessc) Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self critcismd) Resignation, confidence, inattention

40.3.5.3 (3188)Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude?a) Dominationb) Machoc) Anti-authorityd) Impulsivity

40.3.6.1 (3189)The relationship between arousal and flying performance isa) approximately the form of an inverted Ub) approximately linear increasing

c) approximately exponentiald) approximately sinusoidal

40.3.6.1 (3190)In a complex task high levels of arousala) narrow the span of attentionb) improve performancec) lead to better decision-makingd) reduce failures

40.3.6.1 (3191)A high level of motivation is relateda) to high levels of arousalb) to high levels of intelligencec) to complacencyd) to monotony states

40.3.6.1 (3192)If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of ""optimum arousal"" he/she will be:a) prepared best to cope with a difficult taskb) unprepared to handle a difficult situationc) approaching a condition of complacency or fatigued) in a confused mental state

40.3.6.1 (3193)Please check the following statements:1. A stressor causes activation 2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with ita) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct, 2 is not correctc) 1 is not correct, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.6.1 (3194)An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:a) the arousal level of both pilots will be raisedb) both pilots will loose their motor-coordinationc) both pilots will experience the same amount of stressd) the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to what may happen

40.3.6.2 (3195)What are easily observable indications of stress?a) Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.b) Lowering of the blood pressure.c) Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.d) Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.

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40.3.6.2 (3196)Which of the following statements is true?a) Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhaustion.b) Stressors are independent from each other.c) Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances.d) People are capable of living without stress.

40.3.6.2 (3197)How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?a) Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the entire body and improves wellness.b) Use moderate administration of tranquillizers before flight.c) Ignore the particular stressors and increase your physical exercises.d) Always consult a psychotherapist before the next flight.

40.3.6.2 (3198)In case of in-flight stress, one should :a) use all available resources of the crewb) only trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limitsc) demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crewd) always carry out a breathing exercise

40.3.6.2 (3199)The behavioural effects of stress may include :-1 : manifestation of aggressiveness.-2 : a willingness to improve communication.-3 : a willingness for group cohesion.-4 : a tendency to withdrawl.-5 : inappropriate gestural agitation.The combination of correct statements is :a) 1,4 and 5 are correctb) 1 and 4 are correctc) 1,2 and 3 are correctd) 2,4 and 5 are correct

40.3.6.2 (3200)The cognitive effects of stress may include :-1 : excessive haste.-2 : an improvement in memory.-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect.-5 : ease of decision-making.-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes.The combination which brings together all correct statements is :a) 1,3,4,6b) 1,2,5c) 2,3,5,6d) 3,4,5

40.3.6.2 (3201)What is the effect of stress on performance ?-1 : It always reduces performance.-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal.-3 : Excessive stress weakens performance.-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance.The combination of correct statements is:a) 2,3,4b) 1,2,3c) 1,3,4d) 1,2,4

40.3.6.2 (3202)What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose.-3 : a decrease in stress resistance.-4 : activation of the digestive system.-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.The combination of correct statements is:a) 1,2,3b) 1,2c) 2,4,5d) 1,3,5

40.3.6.2 (3203)What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome ?a) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.b) Alert, resistance, performance.c) alarm, resistance, performance,d) alert, resistance, exhaustion

40.3.6.2 (3204)The organism is mobilized by a process known as:a) GAS : General Adaptation Syndromeb) NAS : Natural Adaptation Syndromec) GMS : General Mobilization Syndrome.d) GAF : General Adaptation Function.

40.3.6.2 (3205)What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?a) The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.b) The time available to cope with the situation.c) The objective threat of the situation.d) The unexpected outcome of the situation.

40.3.6.2 (3206)Stress appears:-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable phenomenon.-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome.-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situationThe correct statement(s) is (are):a) 3,4b) 1,2c) 2, 3d) 1,2,4

40.3.6.2 (3207)Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:a) the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with itb) the evaluation of the situation and the the state of fatigue of the individualc) the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time availabled) the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment

40.3.6.2 (3208)Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?-1 : noise.-2 :

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interpersonnal conflict.-3 : temperature.-4 : administrative problem.-5 : hunger.The combination of correct statements is:a) 1,3,5b) 1,3,4c) 3,4,5d) 2,3,5

40.3.6.2 (3209)Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?a) Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or reduces performance.b) Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural performance.c) Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind encountered in aeronauticsd) Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.

40.3.6.2 (3210)Acute stress quickly leads toa) the mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressorb) a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the situationc) a permanent state of incapacitationd) a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower

40.3.6.2 (3211)The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized by:-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be converted into sugar.-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time.The combination of correct statements is:a) 1 and 4 are correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correctc) 2 , 3 and 4 are correctd) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.6.2 (3212)Stress may be defined as:a) a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered situationsb) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilitiesc) a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalitiesd) a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate

40.3.6.2 (3213)What is a stressor?a) An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as beeing stressfulb) All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the internal equilibriumc) A psychological problem developed in a situation of dangerd) The adaptation response of the individual to his environment

40.3.6.2 (3214)What triggers stress in humans?a) The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experiencedb) Objective stimulation from the environment regards of subjective perceptionsc) Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the smell of smoked) Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation (e. g. rapide heart rate)

40.3.6.2 (3215)In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human beings, which of the following responses is correct?a) ´Stress´is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon him/her.b) All forms of stress should be avoided.c) Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilot´s physical condition.d) Self imposed obligations will not create stress.

40.3.6.2 (3216)Workload essentially depends on:a) the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the systemb) the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the systemc) the pilot's knowledged) the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc)

40.3.6.2 (3217)Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?a) Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management capabilitiesb) Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attentionc) Motivation will reduce the task automation processd) Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities

40.3.6.2 (3218)What are the effects of distress (overstress) ?a) It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus attentionb) It reduces vigilance and focusses attentionc) It activates resources stored in memoryd) It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention

40.3.6.2 (3219)Pilot stress reactions :a) differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressorsb) seem to be always the same for most pilotsc) are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors where the top-ten items should be avoided by all meansd) do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with the characters themselves

40.3.6.2 (3220)Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when :

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a) stress is highb) stress is mediumc) stress and motivation are mediumd) stress and motivation are low

40.3.6.2 (3221)The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called :a) Homeostasisb) Heterostasisc) Homeothermyd) Poikilothermy

40.3.6.2 (3222)A stress reaction is:a) the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a personb) the specific response of the body to every demand placed on a personc) the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respondd) the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond

40.3.6.2 (3223)Stress is above all :a) the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the various situation which he may have to faceb) a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to controlc) a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his performanced) a phenomenon which is specific to modern man

40.3.6.2 (3224)Experiencing stress depends on:a) the individual interpretation of the situationb) the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulationc) the individual's state of tirednessd) the environment of the situation which the individual will live through or is in the process of living through

40.3.6.2 (3225)Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation.This reactiona) may include various psychological and physiological elements which one can learn to manageb) is always linked to excessive fearc) can only be controlled by medical treatmentd) is purely physiological and automatic

40.3.6.2 (3226)The individual's perception of stress depends on:a) the subjectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with itb) the objectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with itc) the pilot's increasing level of arousald) the conditions of the current situation only

40.3.6.2 (3227)Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurence of various stressors. Of these, which can be called physiological ?a) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivationb) Noise, hunger, conflicts, a deathc) Heat, humidity, fatique, administrative problemsd) Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce

40.3.6.2 (3228)General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases :-1 : alarm-2 : alert phase-3 : resistance phase-4 : exhaustion phase-5 : vigilance phasea) 1,3,4b) 2,3,4c) 1,2,4,5d) 2,3,4,5

40.3.6.2 (3229)A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:a) distress (stress reactions)b) coping stressc) eustressd) stressors

40.3.6.2 (3230)Getting uneasy will effect:1. attention2. concentration 3. memory 4. prudencea) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correctc) 1 and 3 are correctd) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.6.2 (3231)The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the ""General Adaptation Syndrome"". The sequence is:a) alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phaseb) alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phasec) exhaustion phase - resistance phase - adaptation phased) resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase

40.3.6.2 (3232)According to the different phases of the ""General Adaptation Syndrom"" check the following statements:1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol) assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for sustained operation.3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have been generated excessively during the two preceeding phases,a) 1,2 and 3 are correctb) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false

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c) only 1 is correctd) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false

40.3.6.2 (3233)1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful situation. 2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope with it will determine the type and strength of stress.a) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct, 2 is falsec) 1 is false, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both false

40.3.6.2 (3234)Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are:1. nervousness and chanellized attention2. being rough at the controls3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual4. airsickness, lack of sleepa) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are falseb) 1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct,c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is falsed) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

40.3.6.2 (3235)The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressfula) depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the situational demandsb) does not depend on his capacity to absorb informationc) depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational demandsd) depends on self-confidence alone

40.3.6.2 (3236)Please check the following statements:1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be manifested in organic stress reactions.2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress.a) 1 is correct, 2 is falseb) 1 and 2 are both correctc) 1 is false, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both false

40.3.6.2 (3237)1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is followed by psychological stress. 2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because of the strict selection for this particular profession .a) 1 and 2 are both not correctb) 1 and 2 are both correctc) 1 is correct 2 is not correctd) 1 is not correct 2 is correct

40.3.6.3 (3238)A fatigued pilot

a) will show signs of increased irritabilityb) is acting similar as when encountering a state of depressionc) will get precordial paind) considerably increases the ability to concentrate

40.3.6.3 (3239)What is the effect of tiredness on attention ?a) It reduces the ability to manage multiple mattersb) It increases the ability to manage multiple mattersc) It leads to one's attention being dispersed between different centres of interestd) It has no specific effects on attention

40.3.6.3 (3240)Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct ?a) Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of intellectual capabilitiesb) Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overloadc) Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of performanced) Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a reduction in attention capabilities

40.3.6.4 (3241)In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms requirea) less time when flying from east to westb) more time when flying from east to westc) about one day per 2.5 hours of time shiftd) about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift

40.3.6.4 (3242)Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3. day?a) LT (local time).b) MEZ (middle european time).c) ZT (zonal time).d) UTC (universal time coordinated).

40.3.6.4 (3243)The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally more difficulta) with flights towards the Eastb) with flights towards the Westc) with flights towards the Northd) with flights towards the South

40.3.6.4 (3244)During paradoxical sleepa) rapid eye movements can be observedb) the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking statec) respiration is very regulard) the rhythm of the heart is very regular

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40.3.6.4 (3245)The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of abouta) 1 - 1.5 hours a dayb) 2 - 2.5 hours a dayc) 3 - 3.5 hours a dayd) 4 - 4.5 hours a day

40.3.6.4 (3246)The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily bya) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleepb) the duration of your previous sleepc) the amount of time you have been awaked) the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system

40.3.6.4 (3247)Of the following statements concerning the effects of circadian rhythms on performance, we know that :a) Sensorimotor performance is better in the evening whereas intellectual performance is better in the morningb) Sensorimotor performance is better in the morning whereas intellectual performance is better in the eveningc) Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the morning and are sensitive to the duration of the sleep stated) Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the evening and very sensitive to the duration of the waking period

40.3.6.4 (3248)In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hrs, it is advisable to :1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the arrival country2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure country for as long as possible3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping alternation and regular meal pattern )4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome negative arousal effectsa) 2,3b) 1,3c) 2,4d) 1,4

40.3.6.4 (3249)Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to destination time :1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights3. vary little between individuals4. may vary greatly between individualsa) 2,4b) 1,3c) 1,4d) 2,3

40.3.6.4 (3250)What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ?

a) It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron energy reservesb) It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatiguec) Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and restoration of attention capabilitiesd) Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and paradoxical phases

40.3.6.4 (3251)What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance ?a) It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory illusions and mood disordersb) It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation,c) It causes muscular spasmsd) It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours

40.3.6.4 (3252)The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:a) 24 hoursb) 1.5 hoursc) 12 hoursd) 48 hours

40.3.6.4 (3253)Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:1. bad night's sleep 2. day flight Amsterdam - New York 3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg4. night flight New York - Amsterdama) 2 and 4 are correctb) 1,2 and 3 are correctc) 1 and 3 are correctd) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

40.3.6.4 (3254)Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns 1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration2. will make an individual more prone to make errorsa) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is not correct, 2 is correctc) 1 is correct, 2 is not correctd) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.6.4 (3255)Check the following statements:1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal performance degradation2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)a) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct 2 is falsec) 1 is false, 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both false

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40.3.6.4 (3256)The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's sleep.1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM- sleep.2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the long run.a) 1 and 2 are both correctb) 1 is correct 2 is not correctc) 1 is not correct 2 is correctd) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.6.4 (3257)1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental and physical functions than all the other sleep stages are.a) 1 is not correct 2 is correctb) 1 and 2 are both correctc) 1 is correct 2 is not correctd) 1 and 2 are false

40.3.6.5 (3258)Stress management programmes usually involve:a) the prevention and/or the removal of stressb) only the removal of stressc) only the prevention of stressd) the use of psychoactive drugs

40.3.6.5 (3259)Using a checklist prior start is a contribution toa) safety, because the concentration on the check list items will draw the pilot´s attention to flight related tasks, reducing distraction from personal stressb) stress, because time pressure prior take-off is always presentc) workload, because using checklists will increase the pilot´s workload prior take-offd) frustration

40.3.6.5 (3260)The human performance is generallya) better when relaxed, independent of the period of dayb) better very early in the morningc) always better in the evening than in the morningd) constant throughout the day

40.3.6.5 (3261)What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?a) The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasksb) The preparation of action and time managementc) The prioritisation of tasks and the application of proceduresd) The preparation of action and the application of procedures

40.3.6.5 (3262)If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:a) distressb) adaptation

c) hypoxiad) eustress

40.3.7.0 (3263)The performance of the man machine system is above all :a) a combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's workload and increasing his time for supervisionb) a balanced combination between someone actively engaged in his work and automated systems which serve to control the pilot's workloadc) a combination which must make the pilot available for the sphere in which he is most qualified, namely checking departures from the normal operating ranged) a combination in which the pilot must keep the main repetitive tasks and automated systems under his control in line with rule-based behaviour

40.3.7.1 (3264)Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic systems than by people ?1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of trajectory) 3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (e.g holding of flight path) 4. Qualitative decision-makinga) 1,2,3b) 2,4c) 3,4d) 2,3,4

40.3.7.1 (3265)Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation ?1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick4. General decrease in technical reliabilitya) 1,2b) 1,4c) 2,3,4d) 1,3

40.3.7.1 (3266)Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than by automatic systems ?1. Qualitative decision-making2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)a) 1,4b) 1,2c) 3,4d) 2,3,4

40.3.7.1 (3267)If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man :a) has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of considerable synergyb) has less effective means of action (output) than the computerc) has less effective means of data collection than the computer

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d) is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of data collection or means of action are referred to

40.3.7.2 (3268)How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?a) Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be crosschecked as wellb) Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periodsc) Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-machine loopd) Nothing, because it is system-inherent

40.3.7.2 (3269)A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, thata) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of 'being out of the loop'b) it is guaranteed that the crew maqintains always situational awarenessc) Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromizing safetyd) the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems

40.3.7.2 (3270)One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in :a) complacency among the crewmembersb) pilots disregarding the automatic equipmentc) constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasksd) less experienced crews because of more transparent system details

40.3.7.3 (3271)As a result of automation in cockpits,a) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew membersb) man-man communication has been significantly improvedc) coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more precise and more important informationd) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine relations

50.1.1.1 (3272)How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere ?a) It decreases from south to north.b) It remains constant from north to south.c) It increases from south to north.d) It remains constant throughout the year.

50.1.1.1 (3273)What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?a) 16 kmb) 8 km

c) 11 kmd) 40 km

50.1.1.1 (3274)In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?a) Troposphere.b) Tropopause.c) Stratosphere.d) Stratopause.

50.1.1.1 (3275)What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?a) Tropopause.b) Ionosphere.c) Stratosphere.d) Atmosphere.

50.1.1.1 (3276)Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?a) Cumulonimbusb) Cirrostratusc) Altocumulusd) Altostratus

50.1.1.1 (3277)Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?a) It separates the troposphere from the stratosphereb) It is, by definition, an isothermal layerc) It indicates a strong temperature lapse rated) It is, by definition, a temperature inversion

50.1.1.1 (3278)Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?a) Troposphereb) Lower stratospherec) Upper stratosphered) Ionosphere

50.1.1.1 (3279)The thickness of the troposphere varies witha) latitudeb) longitudec) rotation of the earthd) the wind

50.1.1.1 (3280)What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?a) 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gassesb) 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

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c) 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gassesd) 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

50.1.1.1 (3281)Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopausea) decreases and its temperature increasesb) increases and its temperature increasesc) increases and its temperature decreasesd) decreases and its temperature decreases

50.1.1.1 (3282)The tropospherea) has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the polesb) contains all oxygen of the stratospherec) is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphered) reaches the same height at all latitudes

50.1.1.1 (3283)The troposphere is thea) part of the atmosphere below the tropopauseb) part of the atmosphere above the stratospherec) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphered) boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere

50.1.1.1 (3284)The tropopause is a level at whicha) temperature ceases to fall with increasing heightb) water vapour content is greatestc) pressure remains constantd) vertical currents are strongest

50.1.1.1 (3285)The tropopause is lowera) over the North Pole than over the equatorb) in summer than winter in moderate latitudesc) south of the equator than north of itd) over the equator than over the South Pole

50.1.1.1 (3286)The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is abouta) 11 kmb) 8 kmc) 14 kmd) 16 km

50.1.1.1 (3287)The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order ofa) 16 km and -75°C over the equatorb) 8 km and -40°C over the equator

c) 8 km and - 75°C over the polesd) 16 km and -40°C over the poles

50.1.1.1 (3288)In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average froma) 11 to 50 kmb) 0 to 11 kmc) 50 to 85 kmd) 85 to more than 200 km

50.1.2.1 (3289)The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?a) -6°C.b) -18°C.c) -9°C.d) -15°C.

50.1.2.1 (3290)At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ?a) -54°C.b) -50°C.c) -56,5°C.d) -58°C.

50.1.2.1 (3291)An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?a) 10°C colder than ISA.b) 10°C warmer than ISA.c) 5°C warmer than ISA.d) 5°C colder than ISA.

50.1.2.1 (3292)What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?a) -75°C.b) -55°C.c) -35°C.d) -25°C.

50.1.2.1 (3293)The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6° C?a) FL 80b) FL 20c) FL 100d) FL 110

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50.1.2.1 (3294)The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?a) -4°Cb) -6°Cc) 0°Cd) +2°C

50.1.2.1 (3295)The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?a) +7°Cb) +3°Cc) 0°Cd) -3°C

50.1.2.1 (3296)The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?a) -8°Cb) -4°Cc) 0°Cd) +4°C

50.1.2.1 (3297)A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?a) +2°Cb) +4°Cc) 0°Cd) -2°C

50.1.2.1 (3298)How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over western Europe?a) Lowb) Highc) Within +/-5°C of ISAd) 20°C below standard

50.1.2.1 (3299)How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level over western Europe?a) Highb) Within +/-5°C of ISAc) Lowd) Very low

50.1.2.1 (3300)How would you characterise an air temperature of -55°C at the 200 hPa level over

western Europe?a) Within +/-5°C of ISAb) Highc) Lowd) Very high

50.1.2.1 (3301)In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperaturea) is almost constantb) decreases with altitudec) increases with altituded) increases at first and decreases afterward

50.1.2.1 (3302)Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?a) It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regionsb) It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regionsc) It is highest in middle latitudesd) There is no significant difference with change of latitude

50.1.2.2 (3303)Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most ?a) Convection and condensation.b) Solar radiation and conduction.c) Absorption and vaporization.d) Absorption and evaporation.

50.1.2.2 (3304)Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest ina) summer in the afternoon.b) winter during the night and early morning.c) summer during the night and early morning.d) winter in the afternoon.

50.1.2.2 (3305)Advection is :a) horizontal motion of airb) vertical motion of airc) the same as subsidenced) the same as convection

50.1.2.2 (3306)The radiation of the sun heatsa) the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphereb) the air in the troposphere directlyc) the water vapour in the air of the troposphered) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present

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50.1.2.3 (3307)A layer is conditionally unstable if the aira) is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.b) is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.c) becomes stable by lifting it.d) is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.

50.1.2.3 (3308)Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse ratea) exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate.b) exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.c) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.d) is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate.

50.1.2.3 (3309)In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m. This layer of air is:a) stableb) unstablec) a layer of heavy turbulenced) conditionally unstable

50.1.2.3 (3310)The dry adiabatic lapse ratea) has a constant fixed valueb) is greater in summer than in winterc) is greater during the night than during the dayd) has a variable value

50.1.2.3 (3311)An air mass is called stable whena) the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappearsb) the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with heightc) the pressure in a given area is constantd) the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents

50.1.2.3 (3312)A layer can bea) stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated airb) stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated airc) unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated aird) unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable

50.1.2.3 (3313)From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived?a) Environmental lapse rateb) Surface temperaturec) Dry adiabatic lapse rated) Pressure at the surface

50.1.2.3 (3314)When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected thea) stability increases in the layerb) stability decreases in the layerc) wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphered) wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere

50.1.2.3 (3315)An inversion is a layer of air which isa) absolutely stableb) absolutely unstablec) conditionally unstabled) conditionally stable

50.1.2.3 (3316)The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmospherea) varies with timeb) has a fixed value of 1°C/100mc) has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100md) has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT

50.1.2.3 (3317)The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value ofa) 1°C/100mb) 2°C/1000FTc) 0.65°C/100md) 0.5°C/100m

50.1.2.3 (3318)In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called:a) environmental lapse rateb) saturated adiabatic lapse ratec) dry adiabatic lapse rated) normal lapse rate

50.1.2.3 (3319)The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate ina) cirrusb) freezing fogc) stratusd) cumulus

50.1.2.4 (3320)Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion ?a) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.b) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.c) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.d) Heating of the air by subsidence

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50.1.2.4 (3321)Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ?a) An inversion over a large area with haze, mist.b) CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area.c) Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation.d) Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes .

50.1.2.4 (3322)What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude?a) Inversionb) Subsidencec) Adiabaticd) Advection

50.1.2.4 (3323)What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ?a) Stabilityb) Instabilityc) Clear iced) Area of active storms

50.1.2.4 (3324)A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic ofa) nocturnal radiationb) the passage of cold frontc) advection fogd) cumulus clouds

50.1.2.4 (3325)An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperaturea) increases with heightb) remains constant with heightc) increases with height more than 1°C/100md) decreases with height more than 1°C/100m

50.1.2.4 (3326)An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperaturea) remains constant with heightb) increases with heightc) decreases with height at a constant rated) increases with height at a constant rate

50.1.2.4 (3327)An inversion isa) an increase of temperature with heightb) an increase of pressure with heightc) a decrease of pressure with heightd) a decrease of temperature with height

50.1.2.5 (3328)The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky isa) clear and winds are weakb) clear and winds are strongc) overcast and winds are weakd) overcast and winds are strong

50.1.2.5 (3329)Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter, is 3°C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should bea) slightly below +3°C.b) significantly below 0°C.c) slightly above +3°C.d) significantly above +3°C.

50.1.2.5 (3330)On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximatelya) half an hour after sunriseb) half an hour before sunrisec) at the moment the sun risesd) one hour before sunrise

50.1.3.1 (3331)What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?a) Positions with the same air pressure at a given levelb) Positions with the same temperature at a given levelc) Positions with the same wind velocity at a given leveld) Positions with the same relative pressure heights

50.1.3.1 (3332)The station pressure used in surface weather charts isa) QFFb) QFEc) QNHd) QNE

50.1.3.1 (3333)The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressurea) reduced to sea levelb) at flight levelc) at height of observatoryd) at a determined density altitude

50.1.3.1 (3334)Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equala) QFFb) QFE

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c) QNEd) QNH

50.1.3.1 (3335)(For this question use annex 050-10850A)The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is aa) ridge of high pressureb) colc) trough of low pressured) depression

50.1.3.1 (3336)(For this question use annex 050-10784A)The pressure system at position ""D"" is aa) colb) secondary lowc) trough of low pressured) ridge of high pressure

50.1.3.2 (3337)In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in heighta) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.b) remains constant at all levels.c) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.d) is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.

50.1.3.2 (3338)What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m ?a) 15 m (50 FT).b) 8 m (27 FT).c) 32 m (105 FT).d) 64 m (210 FT).

50.1.3.2 (3339)Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?a) It decreases with heightb) It is higher in winter than in summerc) It is higher at night than during the dayd) It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m

50.1.3.2 (3340)An isohypse (contour)a) indicates the true altitude of a pressure levelb) is the longest slope line of a frontal surfacec) is the limit between two air masses of different temperatured) indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm

50.1.3.3 (3341)In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?

a) Elevation of the airfield.b) Temperature at the airfield.c) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.d) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.

50.1.3.3 (3342)The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?a) More than 1016 hPab) 1016 hPac) Less than 1016 hPad) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.3.3 (3343)The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?a) Less than 1016 hPab) More than 1016 hPac) 1016 hPad) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.3.3 (3344)The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?a) More than 1009 hPab) 1009 hPac) Less than 1009 hPad) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.3.3 (3345)The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?a) It is not possible to give a definitive answerb) More than 1022 hPac) 1022 hPad) Less than 1022 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3346)The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?a) 1022 hPab) Less than 1022 hPac) More than 1022 hPad) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.3.3 (3347)The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?a) More than 1018 hPab) Less than 1018 hPa

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c) 1018 hPad) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.3.3 (3348)The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?a) More than 1030 hPab) Less than 1030 hPac) 1030 hPad) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.3.3 (3349)If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ?a) 1005 hPab) 1000 hPac) 1015 hPad) 1010 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3350)If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?a) 1025 hPab) 985 hPac) 990 hPad) 1035 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3351)If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?(Assume 1hPa = 8m)a) 990 hPab) 995 hPac) 1000 hPad) 1005 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3352)If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?a) 1000 hPab) 995 hPac) 1005 hPad) 1025 hPa

50.1.3.3 (3353)QNH is defined asa) QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphereb) pressure at MSL in the standard atmospherec) pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphered) QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere

50.1.3.3 (3354)In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?a) Elevation of the airfieldb) Temperature at the airfieldc) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSLd) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

50.1.4.1 (3355)At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:a) Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.b) Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.c) Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.d) Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.

50.1.4.1 (3356)Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ?a) At standard temperature.b) At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.c) When the altimeter has no position error.d) When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.

50.1.4.1 (3357)Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the firsta) 5 kmb) 3 kmc) 8 kmd) 11 km

50.1.5.1 (3358)The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is :a) -56.5°Cb) -273°Cc) -44.7°Cd) -100°C

50.1.5.1 (3359)A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?a) FL 390.b) FL 300.c) FL 100.d) FL 50.

50.1.5.1 (3360)A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?a) FL 300b) FL 390

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c) FL 100d) FL 50

50.1.5.1 (3361)A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?a) FL 180b) FL 160c) FL 100d) FL 390

50.1.5.1 (3362)A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?a) FL 100b) FL 180c) FL 300d) FL 390

50.1.5.1 (3363)A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable ?a) FL 50b) FL100c) FL 300d) FL 390

50.1.5.1 (3364)If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?a) -30°Cb) -45°Cc) -60°Cd) -15°C

50.1.5.1 (3365)If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?a) +5°Cb) +15°Cc) -10°Cd) -15°C

50.1.5.1 (3366)If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the ""freezing level"" be?a) FL 110b) FL 130c) FL 150d) FL 90

50.1.5.1 (3367)How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?a) Decreasesb) Increasesc) At first it increases and higher up it decreasesd) Remains constant

50.1.5.1 (3368)What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere ?a) 6.5°C per 1000 mb) 4.5°C per 1000 mc) 3°C per 1000 md) 2°C per 1000 m

50.1.5.1 (3369)In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km isa) 0.65°C per 100mb) 1°C per 100mc) 0.5°C per 100md) 0.6°C per 100m

50.1.5.1 (3370)Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?a) At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPab) At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100mc) At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100md) At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

50.1.5.1 (3371)In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?a) 300 - 200 hPab) 400 - 300 hPac) 500 - 400 hPad) 600 - 500 hPa

50.1.5.1 (3372)The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :a) -5°Cb) 0°Cc) -20°Cd) -35°C

50.1.5.1 (3373)The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International Standard Atmosphere is :a) 0.65°Cb) 1°C

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c) 0.5°Cd) variable

50.1.6.1 (3374)The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?a) 8590 FT.b) 10210 FT.c) 9790 FT.d) 11410 FT.

50.1.6.1 (3375)You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15°C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?a) 16230 FT.b) 15690 FT.c) 14370 FT.d) 13830 FT.

50.1.6.1 (3376)During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that :a) the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca.b) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested.c) the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca.d) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect.

50.1.6.1 (3377)You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?a) 14100 FT.b) 13830 FT.c) 14370 FT.d) 15900 FT.

50.1.6.1 (3378)You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?a) ISA -20°Cb) ISA +/-0°Cc) ISA +20°Cd) ISA +12°C

50.1.6.1 (3379)An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca

(QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that :a) the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseilleb) the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseillec) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be testedd) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect

50.1.6.1 (3380)During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken ?a) None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseilleb) Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrongc) Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrongd) Compensate by heading further to the left

50.1.6.1 (3381)During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this ?a) The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorcab) One of the QNH values must be wrongc) The altimeter is faultyd) The aircraft is being blown off track to the left

50.1.6.1 (3382)During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?a) It is colder than ISAb) Its average temperature is the same as ISAc) It is warmer than ISAd) There is insufficient information to make any assumption

50.1.6.1 (3383)An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90, the true altitude is 9100 feet, local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?a) There is insufficient information to make any assumptionb) It is colder than ISAc) It is warmer than ISAd) Its average temperature is the same as ISA

50.1.6.1 (3384)An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?a) Its average temperature is the same as ISAb) It is colder than ISA

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c) It is warmer than ISAd) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

50.1.6.1 (3385)An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet, local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ?a) It is warmer than ISAb) Its average temperature is about ISAc) It is colder than ISAd) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

50.1.6.1 (3386)An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit?a) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summitb) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summitc) The same altitude as the elevation of the summitd) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion

50.1.6.1 (3387)An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation?a) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summitb) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summitc) The same altitude as the elevation of the summitd) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion

50.1.6.1 (3388)(For this question use annex 050-4246A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?a) The true altitude will be higher at A than at Bb) The true altitude will be higher at B than at Ac) Wind speed at A is higher than at Bd) Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B

50.1.6.1 (3389)(For this question use annex 050-4247A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?a) The true altitude will be higher at A than at Bb) The true altitude will be higher at B than at Ac) Wind speed at A is higher than at Bd) Wind speed at A and at B is the same

50.1.6.1 (3390)(For this question use annex 050-4248A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?a) The true altitude will be higher at B than at Ab) The true altitude will be higher at A than at Bc) Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at Ad) Wind speed at B is higher than at A

50.1.6.1 (3391)(For this question use annex 050-4249A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?a) The true altitude will be higher at B than at Ab) The true altitude will be higher at A than at Bc) Wind speed at A and at B is the samed) Wind speed at B is higher than at A

50.1.6.1 (3392)You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?a) 19340 feetb) 20660 feetc) 21740 feetd) 18260 feet

50.1.6.1 (3393)You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?a) 15090 feetb) 15630 feetc) 16370 feetd) 16910 feet

50.1.6.1 (3394)You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?a) 11520 feetb) 12210 feetc) 11250 feetd) 11790 feet

50.1.6.1 (3395)Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown ?a) Air temperature higher than standardb) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

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c) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.d) Air temperature lower than standard.

50.1.6.1 (3396)The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude ifa) standard atmospheric conditions occurb) the outside air temperature is standard for that heightc) the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surfaced) the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

50.1.6.1 (3397)The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 surface+15.a) Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude.b) The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT.c) The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere.d) The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable

50.1.6.1 (3398)Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct?a) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then true altitude is increasingb) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true altitude is increasingc) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true altitude is increasingd) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true altitude is increasing

50.1.6.1 (3399)An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ?a) It decreasesb) It increasesc) It remains constantd) Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.

50.1.6.3 (3400)What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level?a) QFE is greater than QNH.b) QFE is smaller than QNH.c) QFE equals QNH.d) No clear relationship exists.

50.1.6.3 (3401)An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate :a) 1375 FT.b) 1200 FT.c) 1105 FT.d) 1280 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3402)After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?a) 1028 hPa.b) 1015 hPa.c) 1013 hPa.d) 998 hPa.

50.1.6.3 (3403)An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?a) It will decreaseb) It will increasec) It will remain the samed) It will not be affected

50.1.6.3 (3404)After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level ?a) 660 feet.b) 1200 feet.c) 1740 feet.d) 2280 feet.

50.1.6.3 (3405)During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ?a) It will decreaseb) It will increasec) It will remain the samed) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.6.3 (3406)During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure?a) It will increaseb) It will decreasec) It will remain the samed) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

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50.1.6.3 (3407)An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ?a) 1080 FTb) 700 FTc) 380 FTd) 0 FT

50.1.6.3 (3408)What pressure is defined as QFE?a) The pressure at field elevationb) The pressure of the altimeterc) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperaturesd) The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

50.1.6.3 (3409)An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would bea) 3006 FT.b) 2922 FT.c) 4278 FT.d) 4194 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3410)In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva isa) 942 hPa.b) 967 hPa.c) 961 hPa.d) 948 hPa.

50.1.6.3 (3411)An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximatelya) 7650 FT.b) 8600 FT.c) 8350 FT.d) 8000 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3412)The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa.Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be:a) 20 FT.b) 11 FT.c) -10 FT.d) 560 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3413)Which of the following statements is true ?a) QNH can be equal to QFEb) QNH is always lower than QFEc) QNH is always higher than QFEd) QNH is always equal to QFE

50.1.6.3 (3414)Which statement is true ?a) QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPab) QNH can not be 1013.25 hPac) QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any timed) QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL

50.1.6.3 (3415)When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicatesa) elevation while landingb) zero while landingc) elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphered) zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere

50.1.6.3 (3416)You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale?a) Less than 0 FTb) 0 FTc) More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FTd) 4000 FT

50.1.6.3 (3417)The QNH is equal to the QFE ifa) the elevation = 0b) T actual = T standardc) T actual > T standardd) T actual < T standard

50.1.6.3 (3418)Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?a) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m)b) QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)c) QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)d) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)

50.1.6.3 (3419)For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield isa) 160 metresb) 600 metresc) 540 metresd) 120 metres

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50.1.6.3 (3420)Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicatesa) in standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevation.b) the flight level.c) the aircraft's altitude above the mean sea level.d) the height of the aircraft's wheels above the runway.

50.1.6.4 (3421)If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10°C in the lower troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120 ?a) 6240 FT.b) 6000 FT.c) 5900 FT.d) 5760 FT.

50.1.6.4 (3422)What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?a) Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.b) Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.c) Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISAd) Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA

50.1.6.4 (3423)Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?a) Cold low.b) Warm depression.c) Cold high.d) Warm high.

50.1.6.4 (3424)A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?a) Less than 1000 FTb) It remains 1000 FTc) More than 1000 FTd) Without QNH information, it can not be determined

50.1.6.4 (3425)At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?a) At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPab) In a cold low pressure regionc) At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013

hPad) In a warm high pressure region

50.2.1.1 (3426)What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?a) 45 km/hb) 35 km/hc) 55 km/hd) 60 km/h

50.2.1.1 (3427)What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?a) 50 ktb) 55 ktc) 60 ktd) 70 kt

50.2.1.1 (3428)What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?a) 20 m/secb) 15 m/secc) 25 m/secd) 30 m/sec

50.2.1.1 (3429)What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?a) Direction relative to true north and speed in knotsb) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knotsc) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmhd) Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh

50.2.2.1 (3430)Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?a) It decreasesb) It increases.c) It remains constant.d) Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.

50.2.2.1 (3431)Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?a) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.b) Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.c) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.d) Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.

50.2.2.1 (3432)In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?

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a) Wind from the right.b) Wind from the left.c) Tailwind with no drift.d) Headwind with no drift.

50.2.2.1 (3433)An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure ?a) In front.b) Behind.c) To the left.d) To the right.

50.2.2.1 (3434)The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because thea) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradientb) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradientc) coriolis force is added to the pressure gradientd) coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force

50.2.2.1 (3435)The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because thea) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradientb) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradientc) effect of coriolis is added to frictiond) coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force

50.2.2.1 (3436)An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from ?a) From the left and slightly on the noseb) From the right and slightly on the nosec) From the right and slightly on the taild) From the left and slightly on the tail

50.2.2.1 (3437)What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?a) Coriolis forceb) Surface frictionc) Katabatic forced) The pressure gradient force

50.2.2.1 (3438)Geostrophic winda) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient forceb) is directly proportional to the density of the air

c) always increases with increasing heightd) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere

50.2.2.1 (3439)Wind is caused bya) horizontal pressure differencesb) the rotation of the earthc) friction between the air and the groundd) the movements of fronts

50.2.2.1 (3440)You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?a) If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitudeb) If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitudec) If you have a head wind you are gaining altituded) If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude

50.2.2.1 (3441)Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars area) straight lines and no friction is involved.b) curved lines and no friction is involvedc) straight lines and friction is involved.d) curved lines and friction is involved.

50.2.2.1 (3442)The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer becausea) the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient forceb) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same windspeed in the upper airc) the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure systemd) the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the gradient force.

50.2.2.1 (3443)The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same)a) higher if curvature is anticyclonicb) always higherc) always lowerd) higher if curvature is cyclonic

50.2.2.1 (3444)The geostrophic wind depends ona) density, earth's rotation, geographic latitudeb) earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal forcec) geographic latitude, centripetal force, heightd) centripetal force, height, pressure gradient

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50.2.2.1 (3445)The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused bya) curvature of isobarsb) frictionc) horizontal temperature gradientsd) slope of pressure surfaces

50.2.2.1 (3446)The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to thea) horizontal pressure gradientb) curvature of isobarsc) sine of latituded) density of the air

50.2.2.1 (3447)For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will bea) greater at 30°N than at 60°Nb) greater at 60°N than at 30°Nc) the same at all latitudes north or south of 15°d) equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component

50.2.2.1 (3448)For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will bea) greatest at 40°Nb) the same at all latitudesc) greatest at 60°Nd) least at 50°N

50.2.2.1 (3449)Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind isa) greater than the geostrophic windb) less than the geostrophic windc) the same as the thermal componentd) proportional only to the Coriolis force

50.2.2.2 (3450)What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together?a) Strong and flowing across the isobars.b) Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.c) Strong and parallel to the isobars.d) Moderate and parallel to the isobars.

50.2.2.2 (3451)Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?a) In the transition zone between two air massesb) At the centre of a low-pressure systemc) At the centre of a high-pressure systemd) Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months

50.2.2.2 (3452)Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart.a) When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.b) Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.c) Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.d) When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds.

50.2.2.2 (3453)The greater the pressure gradient thea) closer the isobars and the stronger the windb) further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the windc) closer the isobars and the lower the temperaturesd) further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature

50.2.2.2 (3454)When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to bea) strongb) blowing perpendicular to the isobarsc) changing direction rapidlyd) light

50.2.2.2 (3455)Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant ?a) There is no cross windb) There is a cross wind from the leftc) There is a cross wind from the rightd) Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered

50.2.2.3 (3456)In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused bya) frictional forcesb) centripetal forcesc) the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis forced) the curvature of the isobars

50.2.2.3 (3457)In an area of converging aira) clouds can be formedb) convective clouds can be dissolvedc) stratified clouds can be dissolvedd) clouds can not be formed

50.2.2.3 (3458)Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, ina) falling pressure and likely formation of clouds

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b) rising pressure and likely formation of cloudsc) rising pressure and likely dissipation of cloudsd) falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds

50.2.3.1 (3459)Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt ?a) 25° - 35°.b) 10° - 15°.c) 35° - 55°.d) 55° - 75°.

50.2.3.1 (3460)Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems ?a) 55° - 75°b) 35° - 55°c) 25° - 35°d) 10° - 15°

50.2.3.1 (3461)In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds area) NE trade windsb) NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summerc) SE trade windsd) SW winds throughout the whole year

50.2.3.1 (3462)(For this question use annex 050-10721A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zonea) wb) tc) ud) v

50.2.3.1 (3463)(For this question use annex 050-10722A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone ""t"" is an area ofa) subtropical high pressure systemsb) SE trade windsc) travelling low pressure systemsd) NE trade winds

50.2.3.1 (3464)(For this question use annex 050-10723A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zonea) s and yb) t onlyc) t and xd) u and w

50.2.3.1 (3465)(For this question use annex 050-10724A)Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone ofa) subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressureb) antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and Antarcticac) disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and raind) equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over central Australia

50.2.3.1 (3466)(For this question use annex 050-10725A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone ""y"" is an area ofa) travelling low pressure systemsb) NE trade windsc) SE trade windsd) subtropical high pressure systems

50.2.3.1 (3467)(For this question use annex 050-10726A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zonea) ub) tc) vd) w

50.2.3.1 (3468)(For this question use annex 050-10727A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone ""u"" is in area ofa) NE trade windsb) travelling depressionsc) SW trade windsd) subtropical high pressure

50.2.4.1 (3469)Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?""There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult.""a) Moderate.b) Light.c) Severe.d) Violent.

50.2.4.1 (3470)All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against

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their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported asa) moderateb) lightc) severed) extreme

50.2.4.2 (3471)What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?a) Severe turbulence in CB cloud.b) Moderate turbulence in NS cloud.c) Light turbulence in CB cloud.d) Light turbulence in ST cloud.

50.2.4.2 (3472)Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?a) Altocumulus lenticularisb) Stratocumulusc) Cirrocumulusd) Nimbostratus

50.2.4.2 (3473)Fair weather cumulus often is an indication ofa) turbulence at and below the cloud levelb) poor visibility at surfacec) smooth flying conditions below the cloud leveld) a high risk of thunderstorms

50.2.4.2 (3474)On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounceda) during the early afternoonb) immediately after sunsetc) during early morning hours before sunrised) about midmorning

50.2.5.1 (3475)Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions?a) Friction between the wind and the surface.b) A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.c) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.d) The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.

50.2.5.1 (3476)Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:a) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.b) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.c) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.d) veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.

50.2.5.1 (3477)You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?a) South-southeast.b) South-southwest.c) Southwest.d) South.

50.2.5.1 (3478)If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?a) 22030KTb) 16020KTc) 25025KTd) 22010KT

50.2.5.1 (3479)If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?a) 11020KTb) 08015KTc) 05020KTd) 08005KT

50.2.5.1 (3480)If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?a) 19040KTb) 16030KTc) 14020KTd) 17015KT

50.2.5.1 (3481)If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?a) 33025KTb) 23030KTc) 30025KTd) 27020KT

50.2.5.1 (3482)In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure area because :a) wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreasesb) the pressure gradient increasesc) turbulence is formed and pressure increasesd) turbulence is formed and pressure decreases

50.2.5.1 (3483)What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than

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parallel to the isobars ?a) Surface frictionb) Coriolis forcec) Greater density of the air at the surfaced) Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface

50.2.5.1 (3484)In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing froma) left and behindb) right and behindc) about 45 degrees to the right of directly aheadd) directly ahead

50.2.5.1 (3485)In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blowsa) counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure areab) from a low pressure area to a high pressure areac) clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure aread) counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.

50.2.5.1 (3486)During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage) the wind normallya) backs and decreasesb) veers and increasesc) backs and increasesd) veers and decreases

50.2.5.1 (3487)What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?a) The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker.b) They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by frictionc) They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstaclesd) The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker.

50.2.5.1 (3488)The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily ona) stability, wind speed, roughness of surfaceb) wind speed, roughness of surface, temperaturec) roughness of surface, temperature, local timed) temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate

50.2.5.1 (3489)During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, thea) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoonb) surface wind speed tends to be highest at nightc) angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoond) wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon

50.2.5.1 (3490)In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximatea) 340/20b) 030/20c) 340/28d) 030/28

50.2.5.1 (3491)In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to bea) 045/12b) 060/12c) 060/18d) 075/12

50.2.5.2 (3492)At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the winda) veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layerb) backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layerc) veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layerd) backs in the friction layer and and backs above the friction layer

50.2.6.1 (3493)In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :a) during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.b) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.c) during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.d) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

50.2.6.1 (3494)A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?a) Sea to land.b) Land to sea.c) Variable.d) Parallel to the coastline.

50.2.6.1 (3495)A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blowsa) down the slope during the night.b) up the slope during the day.c) down the slope during the day.d) up the slope during the night.

50.2.6.1 (3496)Which of the following is true of a land breeze?a) It blows from land to water

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b) It blows from water to landc) It blows by dayd) It blows only at noon

50.2.6.1 (3497)An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?a) Crosswind from the rightb) Crosswind from the leftc) Tailwindd) Headwind

50.2.6.1 (3498)The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the :a) mountain during daylight hours.b) mountain at night.c) valley during daylight hours.d) valley during daylight as much as at night.

50.2.6.1 (3499)An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon ?a) Crosswind from the leftb) Crosswind from the rightc) Tailwindd) Headwind

50.2.6.1 (3500)When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience winda) from the water in daytime and from the land at nightb) continually from land to waterc) continually from water to the landd) from the land in daytime and from the water at night

50.2.6.1 (3501)The sea breeze is a wind from the seaa) occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytimeb) that reaches up to the tropopause in daytimec) blowing at night in mid-latitudesd) occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime

50.2.6.1 (3502)In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blowsa) at night down from the mountainsb) at night up from the valley

c) during the day down from the mountainsd) during the day up from the valley

50.2.7.1 (3503)What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?a) The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar frontb) The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over Icelandc) The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front regiond) Strong winds in the upper atmosphere

50.2.7.2 (3504)An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?a) It decreases.b) It increases.c) It first increases, then decreases.d) It remains constant.

50.2.7.2 (3505)What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?a) 1/100b) 01-Janc) 10-Jand) 1/1000

50.2.7.2 (3506)An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced ?a) It falls.b) It rises.c) It stays the same.d) It falls and then rises.

50.2.7.2 (3507)A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:a) possible but a very rare phenomenon.b) not possible.c) a common occurence.d) not unusual in polar regions.

50.2.7.2 (3508)An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind isa) from the rightb) from the left.

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c) tailwind.d) headwind.

50.2.7.2 (3509)Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ?a) Just below the tropopauseb) At about 5500 metres altitudec) Close to the groundd) In the stratosphere

50.2.7.2 (3510)Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?a) The polar front jet streamb) The arctic jet streamc) The subtropical jet streamd) The equatorial jet stream

50.2.7.2 (3511)What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?a) 60 kt.b) 50 kt.c) 70 kt.d) 100 kt.

50.2.7.2 (3512)A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following windprofile (Northern hemisphere).900hPa 220/20kt 800hPa 220/25kt 700hPa 230/35kt 500hPa 260/60kt 400hPa 280/85kt300hPa 300/100kt250hPa 310/120kt 200hPa 310/80ktWhich system is the jet stream associated with?a) With a warm front.b) With a cold front.c) With a ITCZ.d) With an easterly wave.

50.2.7.2 (3513)Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?a) In the warm air mass.b) In the cold air mass.c) Just above the warm-air tropopause.d) Just below the cold-air tropopause.

50.2.7.2 (3514)You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes.a) This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.b) You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no temperature difference between the two airmasses.c) Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments tested.

d) This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences are possible at these heights.

50.2.7.2 (3515)What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in July ?a) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.b) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.c) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar front jet stream.d) One subtropical jet stream.

50.2.7.2 (3516)While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?a) Crosswind from the leftb) Crosswind from the rightc) A headwind.d) A tailwind.

50.2.7.2 (3517)Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?a) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occurb) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occurc) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occurd) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur

50.2.7.2 (3518)Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct ?a) It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximumb) It and its surface projection lie in the warm airc) It lies in the warm air, its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the cored) It lies in the cold air, the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core

50.2.7.2 (3519)On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means thata) the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jetb) the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jetc) below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to southd) above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south

50.2.7.3 (3520)(For this question use annex 050-2541A)What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B) ?a) Sub-tropical jet streamb) Equatorial jet streamc) Polar front jet streamd) Arctic jet stream

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50.2.7.3 (3521)(For this question use annex 050-3017A)What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A) ?a) Equatorial jet stream.b) Polar front jet stream.c) Arctic jet stream.d) Sub-tropical jet stream.

50.2.7.3 (3522)What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?a) 20000 FT .b) 30000 FT.c) 40000 FT.d) 50000 FT.

50.2.7.3 (3523)Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?a) The subtropical jet stream.b) The polar night jet stream.c) The equatorial jet stream.d) The arctic jet stream.

50.2.7.3 (3524)What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?a) 30000 FT.b) 20000 FT.c) 40000 FT.d) 50000 FT.

50.2.7.3 (3525)At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?a) FL 400b) FL 200c) FL 300d) FL 500

50.2.7.3 (3526)In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?a) Headwinds.b) Light winds diagonal to the route.c) Tailwinds.d) Strong northerly winds.

50.2.7.3 (3527)What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ?a) Wind direction.b) Vertical dimension.c) Horizontal dimension.d) Windspeed.

50.2.7.3 (3528)Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?a) Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream.b) Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream.c) Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream.d) Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream.

50.2.7.3 (3529)The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs :a) only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FTb) only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30 000 FTc) during the whole year in the southern hemisphered) during the whole year in the northern hemisphere

50.2.7.3 (3530)During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves toward thea) south and speed increasesb) north and speed decreasesc) south and speed decreasesd) north and speed increases

50.2.7.3 (3531)Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered ?a) In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.b) In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.c) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain.d) Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high.

50.2.7.4 (3532)The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight bya) long streaks of cirrus clouds.b) dust or haze at high levelc) a constant outside air temperatured) a high-pressure centre at high level

50.2.7.5 (3533)In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?a) The cold air side of the core.b) The warm air side of the core.c) Exactly in the centre of the core.d) About 12000 FT above the core.

50.2.7.5 (3534)Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence?a) Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core.

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b) Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core.c) In the core of the jet stream.d) Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air.

50.2.7.5 (3535)Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced ?a) A curved jet stream near a deep troughb) A jet stream, with great spacing between the isothermsc) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summerd) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area

50.2.8.1 (3536)Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves ?a) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.b) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.c) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge.d) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.

50.2.8.1 (3537)At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered isa) altocumulus lenticularis.b) cirrostratus.c) cirrus.d) cumulus mediocris.

50.3.1.1 (3538)What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ?a) Water vapourb) Nitrogenc) Oxygend) Hydrogen

50.3.1.2 (3539)What does dewpoint mean?a) The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.b) The temperature at which ice melts.c) The freezing level (danger of icing).d) The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same.

50.3.1.2 (3540)Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?

a) Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100b) Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100c) Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100d) Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100

50.3.1.2 (3541)The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?a) It increases with increasing water vapour.b) It is not influenced by changing water vapour.c) It decreases with increasing water vapour.d) It is only influenced by temperature.

50.3.1.2 (3542)Relative humiditya) changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.b) is not affected when air is ascending or descending.c) is not affected by temperature changes of the air.d) does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant.

50.3.1.2 (3543)How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by temperature changes?a) It decreases with increasing temperature.b) It is not influenced by temperature changes.c) It increases with increasing temperature.d) It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.

50.3.1.2 (3544)How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?a) When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant.b) When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.c) When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.d) When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.

50.3.1.2 (3545)When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?a) It decreases.b) It increases.c) It remains constant.d) It increases up to 100%, then remains stable.

50.3.1.2 (3546)During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?a) It must decrease to +5°C.

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b) It must decrease by 5°C.c) It must decrease to +6°C.d) It must decrease to +7°C.

50.3.1.2 (3547)Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?a) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air massb) It can be higher than the temperature of the air massc) It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidityd) It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown

50.3.1.2 (3548)Relative humiditya) increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constantb) is higher in warm air than in cool airc) is higher in cool air than in warm aird) decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

50.3.1.2 (3549)The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on thea) air temperatureb) relative humidityc) stability of the aird) dewpoint

50.3.1.2 (3550)Dew point is defined asa) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressureb) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressurec) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidityd) the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat

50.3.1.2 (3551)The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater ina) dry airb) moist airc) air with high temperatured) air with low temperature

50.3.1.2 (3552)The dewpoint temperaturea) can be equal to the air temperatureb) is always lower than the air temperaturec) is always higher than the air temperatured) can not be equal to the air temperature

50.3.1.2 (3553)Relative humidity depends ona) moisture content and temperature of the airb) moisture content and pressure of the airc) moisture content of the air onlyd) temperature of the air only

50.3.1.2 (3554)The dewpoint temperaturea) can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constantb) can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constantc) can not be equal to the air temperatured) can not be lower than the air temperature

50.3.1.2 (3555)Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation betweena) actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour contentb) water vapour weight and dry air weightc) water vapour weight and humid air volumed) dew point and air temperature

50.3.2.1 (3556)Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?a) Solid direct to vapourb) Solid direct to liquidc) Liquid direct to solidd) Liquid direct to vapour

50.3.2.1 (3557)Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:a) water vapour condenses.b) water vapour is present.c) relative humidity reaches 98%.d) temperature and dew point are nearly equal.

50.3.2.1 (3558)In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ?a) Gas to liquidb) Solid to liquidc) Solid to gasd) Liquid to gas

50.3.2.1 (3559)How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?a) Through water vapour released during fuel combustionb) Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid airc) Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gasesd) In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases

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50.3.2.1 (3560)Supercooled droplets can occur ina) clouds, fog and precipitationb) clouds but not in precipitationc) precipitation but not in cloudsd) clouds but not in fog

50.3.2.1 (3561)Supercooled droplets are alwaysa) at a temperature below freezingb) small and at a temperature below freezingc) large and at a temperature below freezingd) at a temperature below -60°C

50.3.2.1 (3562)Supercooled droplets can be encountereda) at any time of the yearb) in winter only in high cloudsc) only in winter above 10000 FTd) only in winter at high altitude

50.3.2.1 (3563)A super-cooled droplet isa) a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezingb) a water droplet that is mainly frozenc) a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°Cd) a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent

50.3.2.1 (3564)The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known asa) sublimationb) supercoolingc) supersaturationd) radiation cooling

50.3.2.1 (3565)When water evaporates into unsaturated aira) heat is absorbedb) heat is releasedc) relative humidity is not changedd) relative humidity is decreased

50.3.2.1 (3566)A super-cooled droplet is one thata) remains liquid at a below freezing temperatureb) has frozen to become an ice pelletc) has a shell of ice with water inside itd) is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air

50.3.3.1 (3567)What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?a) 3.0°C.b) 2.0°Cc) 1.5°Cd) 3.5°C

50.3.3.1 (3568)A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?a) The same as the starting temperature.b) Higher than the starting temperature.c) Lower than the starting temperature.d) It depends upon the QFE.

50.3.3.1 (3569)A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes ?a) Relative humidityb) Absolute humidityc) Mixing ratiod) Specific humidity

50.3.3.1 (3570)If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases ata) a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.b) the same rate as if the air mass were dry.c) a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.d) a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat.

50.3.3.1 (3571)During an adiabatic process heat isa) neither added nor lostb) addedc) lostd) added but the result is an overall loss

50.3.3.1 (3572)The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air isa) 1°Cb) 2°Cc) 0.65°Cd) 0.5°C

50.3.3.1 (3573)The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximatelya) 0.6°Cb) 1°C

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c) 1.5°Cd) 0.35°C

50.3.3.1 (3574)The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because:a) heat is released during the condensation processb) moist air is heavier than dry airc) water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry aird) water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun

50.3.3.1 (3575)A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height isa) more than 1°C per 100mb) between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100mc) 0.65°C per 100md) less than 0.65°C per 100m

50.3.3.1 (3576)A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height isa) absolutely stableb) unstablec) neutrald) conditionally unstable

50.3.3.1 (3577)A layer in which the temperature increases with height isa) absolutely stableb) absolutely unstablec) conditionally unstabled) neutral

50.3.3.1 (3578)A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m isa) neutral for dry airb) absolutely stablec) absolutely unstabled) conditionally unstable

50.3.3.1 (3579)If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at the top of the layer is 8°C then this layer isa) absolutely unstableb) absolutely stablec) conditionally unstabled) neutral

50.3.3.1 (3580)An inversion isa) an absolutely stable layer

b) a conditionally unstable layerc) an unstable layerd) a layer that can be either stable or unstable

50.3.3.1 (3581)In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as beinga) absolutely unstableb) absolutely stablec) conditionally unstabled) conditionally stable

50.3.3.1 (3582)Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?a) The environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C/100mb) The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65°C/100mc) The layer is unstable for unsaturated aird) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65°C/100m

50.3.3.1 (3583)The stability in a layer is increasing ifa) warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower partb) warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper partc) warm and moist air is advected in the lower partd) cold and dry air is advected in the upper part

50.3.3.1 (3584)Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct ?a) Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcelsb) Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcelsc) Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100md) Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m

50.3.3.1 (3585)The height of the lifting condensation level is determined bya) temperature and dewpoint at the surfaceb) temperature at surface and air pressurec) wind and dewpoint at the surfaced) wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface

50.3.3.1 (3586)A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated bya) lifting the parcel to a higher levelb) lowering the parcel to a lower levelc) moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperatured) moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature

50.3.3.1 (3587)A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by

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a) expanding it adiabaticallyb) raising the temperaturec) lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constantd) compressing it adiabatically

50.3.3.1 (3588)If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending unsaturated air is:a) -15°Cb) 0°Cc) 5°Cd) -5°C

50.4.1.1 (3589)Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?a) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind.b) Unstable air.c) Convection during the day.d) The release of latent heat.

50.4.1.1 (3590)Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?a) Convection.b) Radiation.c) Subsidence.d) Frontal lifting within stable layers.

50.4.1.1 (3591)What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage?a) Liftingb) Sinkingc) Convection processd) Radiation

50.4.1.1 (3592)Rising air cools becausea) it expandsb) surrounding air is cooler at higher levelsc) it becomes more moistd) it contracts

50.4.1.1 (3593)Convective clouds are formeda) in unstable atmosphereb) in stable atmospherec) in summer during the day onlyd) in mid-latitudes only

50.4.1.1 (3594)In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on thea) thickness of the unstable layerb) wind directionc) air pressure at the surfaced) pressure at different levels

50.4.1.2 (3595)Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?a) Nimbostratus.b) Stratus.c) Altocumulus.d) Cirrus.

50.4.1.2 (3596)Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?a) CU, CB.b) ST, CS.c) SC, NS.d) CI, SC.

50.4.1.2 (3597)Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions ?a) AS, AC.b) SC, NSc) CI, CC.d) CS, ST.

50.4.1.2 (3598)(For this question use annex 050-1914A)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?a) 3.b) 1.c) 2.d) 4.

50.4.1.2 (3599)What is the main composition of clouds classified as ""high level clouds""?a) Ice crystals.b) Supercooled water droplets.c) Water droplets.d) Water vapour.

50.4.1.2 (3600)A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?a) 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain.b) 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain.

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c) 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain.d) 15000 - 25000 FT above the terrain.

50.4.1.2 (3601)Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?a) STb) CSc) ASd) CC

50.4.1.2 (3602)Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?a) ST, ASb) CU, CBc) NS, CUd) CB, CC

50.4.1.2 (3603)(For this question use annex 050-4273A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?a) 2b) 3c) 4d) 1

50.4.1.2 (3604)(For this question use annex 050-4274A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?a) 4b) 3c) 2d) 1

50.4.1.2 (3605)Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels ?a) CBb) ACc) STd) CI

50.4.1.2 (3606)A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?a) 1500 - 7000 FT above groundb) 100 - 1500 FT above groundc) 7000 - 15000 FT above groundd) 15000 - 25000 FT above ground

50.4.1.2 (3607)A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?a) 15000 - 35000 FT above the terrainb) 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrainc) 1500 - 7000 FT above the terraind) 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain

50.4.1.2 (3608)Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?a) CIb) SCc) ASd) CU

50.4.1.2 (3609)Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ?a) ASb) CSc) STd) SC

50.4.1.2 (3610)Fallstreaks or virga area) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the groundb) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaksc) gusts associated with a well developed Borad) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation

50.4.1.2 (3611)Altostratus clouds are classified asa) medium level cloudsb) low level cloudsc) high level cloudsd) convective clouds

50.4.1.2 (3612)A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer containsa) a combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water dropletsb) only water dropletsc) only ice crystalsd) a combination of ice crystals and water droplets

50.4.1.2 (3613)Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication ofa) instability in the atmosphereb) the presence of a low level inversionc) the presence of warm air aloftd) poor surface visibility

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50.4.1.2 (3614)Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases froma) the surface to 6500 FTb) 1000 to 2000 FTc) 500 to 1000 FTd) 100 to 200 FT

50.4.1.2 (3615)Which of the following are medium level clouds ?a) Altostratus and altocumulusb) Cirrocumulus and cirrostratusc) Cumulonimbusd) All convective clouds

50.4.1.2 (3616)What type of cloud is being described ?A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.a) Stratusb) Altostratusc) Nimbostratusd) Cirrostratus

50.4.1.2 (3617)The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicatesa) instability in the middle troposphereb) strong convection at low heightc) stability in the higher troposphered) subsidence in a large part of the troposphere

50.4.1.2 (3618)The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of thea) presence of mountain wavesb) risk of orographic thunderstormsc) development of thermal lowsd) presence of valley winds

50.4.1.4 (3619)What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?a) Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.b) Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.c) Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.d) Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.

50.4.1.4 (3620)In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?a) In Nimbostratus cloudb) Below the freezing level in clear air

c) In clear air above the freezing leveld) Within cloud of any type

50.4.1.4 (3621)What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?a) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m, nil icing.b) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m, nil icing.c) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m, light to moderate icing.d) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m, light to moderate rime ice.

50.4.1.4 (3622)Cumulus clouds are an indication fora) up and downdraftsb) stabilityc) the approach of a cold frontd) the approach of a warm front

50.4.2.1 (3623)At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?a) Shortly after sunrise.b) At sunset.c) Late evening.d) Shortly after midnight.

50.4.2.1 (3624)What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?a) 500 FT.b) 2 000 FT.c) 5 000 FT.d) 10 000 FT.

50.4.2.1 (3625)What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C?a) Calm.b) Northerly, 10 kt.c) Westerly, 10 kt variable.d) Easterly, 10 kt.

50.4.2.1 (3626)Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?a) Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.b) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.c) Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.d) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.

50.4.2.1 (3627)Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?a) A marked increase in wind velocity near the groundb) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground

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c) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the nightd) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass

50.4.2.1 (3628)The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is :a) increasing surface wind speed.b) an increasingly stable atmosphere.c) surface cooling.d) a low level temperature inversion.

50.4.2.1 (3629)What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?a) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.b) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.c) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.d) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.

50.4.2.1 (3630)What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?a) Radiation.b) Advection.c) Steam.d) Orographic.

50.4.2.1 (3631)Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?a) Little or no cloudb) Very dry airc) Strong surface windsd) Very low temperatures

50.4.2.1 (3632)Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?a) Heat loss from the ground on clear nightsb) Dry, warm air passing over warm groundc) The passage of frontsd) Cold air passing over warm ground

50.4.2.1 (3633)When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to bea) fog or low cloudb) clear and coolc) high scattered cloudsd) unlimited visibility

50.4.2.1 (3634)The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to producea) radiation fogb) a cold frontc) advection fogd) good clear weather

50.4.2.1 (3635)Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?a) Moist air over land during clear night with little windb) Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountainc) Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sead) Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea

50.4.2.1 (3636)Freezing fog consists ofa) supercooled water dropletsb) frozen water dropletsc) frozen minute snow flakesd) ice crystals

50.4.2.1 (3637)The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :a) below 5 ktb) between 10 and 15 ktc) between 5 and 10 ktd) above 15 kt

50.4.2.2 (3638)Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog ?a) Moist warm air moving over a cold surfaceb) Moist cold air moving over a warm surfacec) Dry warm air moving over a cold surfaced) Dry cold air moving over a warm surface

50.4.2.2 (3639)Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?a) Advection fogb) Radiation fogc) Steam fogd) Frontal fog

50.4.2.2 (3640)Advection fog can be formed whena) warm moist air flows over a colder surfaceb) cold moist air flows over a warmer surface

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c) warm moist air flows over a warmer surfaced) cold moist air flows over warmer water

50.4.2.2 (3641)Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?a) It can be formed suddenly by day or nightb) It forms at night or the early morningc) It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabaticallyd) It forms slowly and disappears rapidly

50.4.2.3 (3642)Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?a) Cold air moving over warm waterb) Warm air moving over cold waterc) The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sund) The coastal region of the sea cools at night

50.4.2.3 (3643)Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in aira) with cold mass propertiesb) with warm mass propertiesc) that is absolutely stabled) that is stable

50.4.2.4 (3644)When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?a) When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air.b) When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air.c) When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air.d) When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air.

50.4.2.4 (3645)Frontal fog is most likely to occura) in advance of a warm frontb) in rear of a warm frontc) in summer in the early morningd) in winter in the early morning

50.4.2.5 (3646)What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?a) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.b) High relative humidity and an unstable air massc) Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidityd) Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range

50.5.1.1 (3647)Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?a) Drizzle.

b) Moderate rain with large drops.c) Heavy rain with large drops.d) Hail.

50.5.1.1 (3648)How does freezing rain develop?a) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°Cb) Rain falls on cold ground and then freezesc) Through melting of sleet grainsd) Through melting of ice crystals

50.5.2.1 (3649)With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?a) Cumulonimbus.b) Stratocumulus.c) Nimbostratus.d) Stratus.

50.5.2.1 (3650)Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ?a) NS.b) CS.c) SC.d) ST.

50.5.2.1 (3651)Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?a) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0°C.b) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C.c) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.d) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through which rain is falling.

50.5.2.1 (3652)What type of cloud can produce hail showers?a) CBb) NSc) CSd) AC

50.5.2.1 (3653)The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence thata) freezing rain occurs at a higher altitudeb) a cold front has passedc) there are thunderstorms in the aread) a warm front has passed

50.5.2.1 (3654)With which of the following types of cloud is ""+RA"" precipitation most commonly associated?

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a) NSb) ACc) SCd) ST

50.5.2.1 (3655)With what type of cloud is ""GR"" precipitation most commonly associated?a) CBb) ASc) STd) CC

50.5.2.1 (3656)With what type of cloud is ""DZ"" precipitation most commonly associated?a) STb) CBc) CCd) CU

50.5.2.1 (3657)Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ?a) CIb) ASc) CBd) NS

50.5.2.1 (3658)With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months ?a) SC, ASb) CB, STc) NS, CCd) AS, NS

50.5.2.1 (3659)With what type of cloud is ""+TSRA"" precipitation most commonly associated?a) CBb) ASc) SCd) NS

50.5.2.1 (3660)Freezing precipitation occursa) mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzleb) only in the precipitation of a cold frontc) only in the precipitation of a warm frontd) mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow

50.5.2.1 (3661)Freezing rain occurs when

a) rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°Cb) ice pellets meltc) water vapour first turns into water dropletsd) snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air

50.5.2.1 (3662)Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly froma) convective cloudsb) stratified cloudsc) cirro-type cloudsd) clouds containing only ice crystals

50.5.2.1 (3663)Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls froma) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulenceb) convective clouds with little or no turbulencec) stratiform clouds with severe turbulenced) convective clouds with moderate turbulence

50.5.2.1 (3664)Large hail stonesa) are typically associated with severe thunderstormsb) only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudesc) are entirely composed of clear iced) only occur in frontal thunderstorms

50.5.2.1 (3665)The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:a) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.b) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.c) Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.d) Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.

50.5.2.1 (3666)From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?a) Stratus.b) Altostratusc) Cumulusd) Cirrostratus.

50.5.2.1 (3667)What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?a) Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.b) Towering cumulus and altostratus.c) Altostratus and stratus.d) Nimbostratus.

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50.5.2.1 (3668)What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ?a) Cumulus and cumulonimbusb) Cumulus and altostratusc) Altostratus and stratusd) Nimbostratus

50.6.1.1 (3669)An airmass is unstable whena) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.b) temperature and humidity are not constantc) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal aread) temperature increases with height

50.6.1.1 (3670)An airmass is stable whena) the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears.b) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with heightc) pressure is constantd) the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m

50.6.1.2 (3671)What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia ?a) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air.b) The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores.c) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air.d) The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.

50.6.1.2 (3672)Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer?a) The southern Balkan region and the Near East.b) Southern Italy.c) Southern France.d) The Azores region.

50.6.1.2 (3673)Where does polar continental air originate?a) Siberian landmass.b) Areas of arctic water.c) The region of the Baltic sea.d) The region of Greenland.

50.6.1.2 (3674)In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?a) Polar continental air.b) Polar maritime air.c) Tropical continental air.d) Arctic maritime air.

50.6.1.2 (3675)(For this question use annex 050-2065A)What is the classification of the airmass affecting position ""Q"" at 0600 UTC?a) Tropical maritime.b) Polar maritime.c) Polar continental.d) Tropical continental.

50.6.1.2 (3676)In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ?a) East of Greenlandb) Region of British Islesc) Baltic Sead) Black Sea

50.6.2.1 (3677)What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?a) Polar front low.b) A cold air pool.c) A low on lee side of a mountain.d) Heat low.

50.6.2.1 (3678)At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position?a) Winter.b) Summer.c) Spring.d) Autumn.

50.6.2.1 (3679)The polar front is the boundary between:a) polar air and tropical air.b) arctic air and polar air.c) arctic air and tropical air.d) maritime polar air and continental polar air.

50.6.2.1 (3680)(For this question use annex 050-4297A)Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?a) Track B-Db) Track B-Cc) Track A-Dd) Track A-E

50.6.2.2 (3681)What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to fall?a) Warm fronts, warm occlusions.b) Cold occlusions.

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c) High level cold fronts.d) Cold fronts.

50.6.2.2 (3682)Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level ?a) Low cloud base and poor visibility.b) Severe thunderstorms at low altitude.c) Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground.d) High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms.

50.6.2.2 (3683)During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds:Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus.Which of the following are you most likely to encounter ?a) Decreasing temperatures.b) Strong, gusty winds.c) A strong downdraught.d) Increasing temperatures.

50.6.2.2 (3684)What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?a) Nimbostratus.b) Cumulus.c) Altostratus.d) Cumulonimbus.

50.6.2.2 (3685)The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:a) 1/150b) 1/50c) 1/300d) 1/500

50.6.2.2 (3686)In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?a) Ahead of a warm front in the winterb) Ahead of a cold front in the winterc) Behind a warm front in the summerd) Ahead of a cold front in the summer

50.6.2.2 (3687)How do air masses move at a warm front ?a) Warm air overrides a cold air massb) Cold air overrides a warm air massc) Cold air undercuts a warm air massd) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

50.6.2.2 (3688)What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front ?a) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the frontb) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS beginc) At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CBd) At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS

50.6.2.2 (3689)If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest ?a) 12000 feetb) 9000 feetc) 5000 feetd) 3000 feet

50.6.2.2 (3690)Read this description: ""After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey, but at least it has become a little bit warmer."" Which of these weather phenomena is being described?a) A warm frontb) A blizzardc) Weather at the back of a cold frontd) A cold front

50.6.2.2 (3691)Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front ifa) the warm air is convectively unstable.b) the cold air is convectively unstable.c) the cold air is convectively stable.d) the warm air is convectively stable.

50.6.2.2 (3692)On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approachinga) QFE and QNH decrease.b) QFE and QNH increase.c) QFE increases and QNH decreases.d) QFE decreases and QNH increases.

50.6.2.2 (3693)The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is thea) saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporatingb) saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporatingc) reduction of outgoing radiation due to cloudsd) warm air moving over a cold surface

50.6.2.3 (3694)After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the

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cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature?a) A veering in the wind direction.b) A backing in the wind direction.c) An increase in tailwind.d) A decrease in headwind.

50.6.2.3 (3695)(For this question use annex 050-2388A)What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?a) A rise in pressureb) A drop in pressurec) Irregular fluctuationsd) Approximately constant pressure

50.6.2.3 (3696)What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?a) Showers associated with thunderstormsb) Freezing rainc) Light to moderate continuous raind) Drizzle

50.6.2.3 (3697)What is the relative movement of the two airmasses along a cold front ?a) Cold air pushes under a warm air massb) Warm air pushes over a cold air massc) Cold air slides over a warm air massd) Warm air pushes under a cold air mass

50.6.2.3 (3698)Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?a) Mainly towering cloudsb) Mainly layered cloudsc) Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passedd) Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed

50.6.2.4 (3699)Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter?a) ST with drizzle.b) CI, CS.c) Fair weather CU.d) CU, CB.

50.6.2.4 (3700)What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer?a) Moderate (several km).b) Very poor (less than 1 km).c) Good (greater than 10 km).d) Very good (greater than 50 km).

50.6.2.4 (3701)What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer ?a) Fair weather CUb) BKN CU and CBc) Sky cleard) ST with drizzle

50.6.2.4 (3702)What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front ?a) It will have decreased.b) It will remain unchanged.c) It will have increased.d) It will show a small increase or decrease.

50.6.2.4 (3703)What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?a) It will be increasing.b) It will remain unchanged.c) It will be decreasing.d) It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.

50.6.2.4 (3704)What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing?a) It will first increase then decrease.b) It will remain unchanged.c) It will first decrease then increase.d) It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.

50.6.2.5 (3705)What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?a) Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.b) Showers and thunderstorms.c) Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS.d) 8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.

50.6.2.6 (3706)Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?a) Behind the front.b) Ahead of the front.c) At the surface position of the front.d) At the junction of the occlusion.

50.6.2.6 (3707)Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?a) The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm frontb) The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front

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c) The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the frontd) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front

50.6.2.6 (3708)When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?a) Summerb) Winterc) Autumn and winterd) Winter and spring

50.6.2.6 (3709)(For this question use annex 050-2060A)Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left ?a) Track D-Ab) Track C-Ac) Track B-Ad) Track B-C

50.6.2.6 (3710)(For this question use annex 050-2061A)Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B?a) 3b) 1c) 2d) 4

50.6.2.6 (3711)How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ?a) The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion, the warm air mass is above ground level.b) The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion, the warm air mass is above ground level.c) The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion, the less cold air is above ground level.d) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion, the less cold air mass is above ground level.

50.6.2.6 (3712)In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold aira) behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude.b) in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude.c) behind is colder than the cold air in front.d) behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude.

50.6.2.6 (3713)In a warm front occlusiona) the warm air is liftedb) the warm front overtakes the cold frontc) the warm front becomes a front aloftd) the cold air is lifted

50.6.2.7 (3714)What characterizes a stationary front ?a) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the frontb) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the frontc) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold aird) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front

50.6.2.8 (3715)In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?a) In the direction of the warm sector isobars.b) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.c) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.d) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.

50.6.2.8 (3716)What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?a) Cold front.b) Warm front.c) Cold occlusion.d) Warm occlusion.

50.6.2.8 (3717)In which main direction does a polar front depression move?a) Along the front towards the eastb) Along the front towards the westc) Across the front towards the northd) Across the front towards the south

50.6.2.8 (3718)(For this question use annex 050-2064A)Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar frontal wave have moved ?a) Position 3b) Position 1c) Position 2d) Position 4

50.6.2.8 (3719)Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet winda) in the warm sectorb) in front of the warm frontc) behind the cold frontd) at the apex of the wave

50.6.2.8 (3720)A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect ?a) Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours.b) Continous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.

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c) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.d) Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.

50.6.2.8 (3721)(For this question use annex 050-4298A)Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have moved ?a) Position Cb) Position Dc) Position Ad) Position B

50.6.2.8 (3722)(For this question use annex 050-4389A)This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?a) TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 =b) TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =c) TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 =d) TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =

50.6.2.8 (3723)In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG =160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG =161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS =161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG =What do you conclude based on these observations?a) A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoonb) A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoonc) A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoond) Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station

50.6.2.8 (3724)An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction isa) continuously backingb) continuously veeringc) initially backing, then veeringd) initially veering, then backing

50.7.1.1 (3725)In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer?a) Azores, SE USA, SW Europeb) Greenland, Azores, NE Canadac) Iceland, SW USA, Azoresd) Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada

50.7.1.1 (3726)Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred overa) Iceland / Greenlandb) USAc) Siberiad) Azores

50.7.1.1 (3727)Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems area) Azores high and weak low over NE Canadab) Scandinavian high and Azores highc) weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian highd) Azores low and Icelandic high

50.7.1.1 (3728)Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface isa) Azores, Siberiab) Siberia, Iceland, Canariesc) NE Canada, Icelandd) Greenland, Iberian peninsula

50.7.2.1 (3729)What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?a) Subsidence.b) Convergence.c) Advection.d) Convection.

50.7.2.1 (3730)What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter?a) A tendency for fog and low ST.b) Thunderstorms.c) NS with continuous rain.d) The possibility of snow showers.

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50.7.2.1 (3731)In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?a) Calm winds, haze.b) TS, SH.c) CB, TS.d) NS.

50.7.2.1 (3732)What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?a) Sinking airb) Rising airc) Instabilityd) Divergence at higher levels

50.7.2.1 (3733)Subsidence is :a) vertically downwards motion of airb) horizontal motion of airc) vertically upwards motion of aird) the same as convection

50.7.2.1 (3734)If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is aa) warm highb) cold lowc) cold highd) warm low

50.7.2.1 (3735)The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is calleda) subsidence inversionb) friction inversionc) radiation inversiond) trade wind inversion

50.7.2.1 (3736)A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere isa) a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°Nb) quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclonec) situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressionsd) a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

50.7.2.1 (3737)The most effective way to dissipate cloud is bya) subsidenceb) convectionc) a decrease in temperatured) a decrease in pressure

50.7.2.1 (3738)Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks ita) is heated by compressionb) reaches warmer layersc) is heated by expansiond) loses water vapour

50.7.3.1 (3739)What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?a) Showers and thunderstorms.b) Strong westerly winds.c) Fine weather CU.d) Nothing (CAVOK).

50.7.3.1 (3740)How do you recognize a cold air pool?a) As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).b) As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).c) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.d) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.

50.7.3.1 (3741)What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?a) Convergence with lifting.b) Divergence with descending air.c) Divergence with lifting.d) Convergence with descending air.

50.7.3.1 (3742)With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is :a) strong wind shear, convection and snow showersb) light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceilingc) strong wind with subsidence at low levelsd) strong wind associated with an almost clear sky

50.7.3.1 (3743)Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of :a) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depressionb) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depressionc) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depressiond) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression

50.7.3.1 (3744)A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area ofa) convergence and widespread ascent

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b) divergence and subsidencec) divergence and widespread ascentd) convergence and subsidence

50.7.3.1 (3745)Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?a) It forms over land in summerb) It forms over the ocean in summerc) It forms over the ocean in winterd) It forms over land in winter

50.7.3.1 (3746)Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?a) It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic senseb) It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sensec) It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primaryd) It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary

50.7.4.1 (3747)What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving storm?a) Dense CIb) Frequent SCc) Excessive accumulation of CUd) NS spread over a large area

50.7.4.1 (3748)Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?a) In the wall of clouds around the eye.b) Anywhere in the eye.c) In the centre of the eye.d) About 600 km away from the eye.

50.7.4.1 (3749)Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic becausea) of the low water temperature.b) there is no coriolis force present.c) of the strong southeast wind.d) the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.

50.7.4.1 (3750)What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?a) Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.b) Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt.c) Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.d) The equatorial jet stream.

50.7.4.1 (3751)What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area?a) West in the earlier stages and later north eastb) Eastc) West deep into the U.S.d) West in the earlier stages and later south east

50.7.4.1 (3752)Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?a) From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundingsb) They intensify rapidly after landfallc) The diameter is 50-500 md) Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter

50.7.4.1 (3753)Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?a) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds`long sea passageb) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase of heightc) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sead) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation

50.7.4.2 (3754)At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?a) July to November.b) September to January.c) January to May.d) May to July.

50.7.4.2 (3755)On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?a) SE coastb) W coastc) N coastd) NE coast

50.7.4.2 (3756)What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?a) West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.b) East then south.c) West deep into the USA.d) West in the earlier stages and later turning south east.

50.7.4.2 (3757)During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?

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a) Summer and autumn.b) Winter.c) Winter and spring.d) All seasons.

50.7.4.2 (3758)During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?a) July until November.b) October until January.c) January until April.d) April until July.

50.7.4.2 (3759)The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur isa) the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline.b) the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA.c) the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.d) the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.

50.7.4.2 (3760)(For this question use annex 050-10788A)The arrows labelled ""r"" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly froma) December to April and are called cyclonesb) December to April and are called tornadoesc) June to October and are called typhoonsd) June to October and are called hurricanes

50.7.4.2 (3761)(For this question use annex 050-10791A)The arrows labelled ""s"" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly froma) May to November and are called cyclonesb) December to April and are called cyclonesc) May to November and are called hurricanesd) December to April and are called typhoons

50.7.4.2 (3762)(For this question use annex 050-10792A)The arrows labelled ""t"" represents the mean track of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly froma) June to October and are called cyclonesb) December to April and are called hurricanesc) June to October and are called tornadoesd) June to October and are called hurricanes

50.7.4.2 (3763)(For this question use annex 050-10793A)The arrows labelled ""u"" represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly froma) July to October and are called typhoonsb) January to March and are called willy-willies

c) May to July and are called cyclonesd) December to April and are called tornadoes

50.7.4.2 (3764)When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?a) December to Aprilb) May to Julyc) August to Octoberd) Not experienced at Darwin

50.8.1.1 (3765)At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?a) 50°N.b) 10°N.c) 30°N.d) 80°N.

50.8.1.1 (3766)The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is thata) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter.b) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.c) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows.d) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.

50.8.1.1 (3767)(For this question use annex 050-10795A)Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to bea) a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 ktb) a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 ktc) variable in direction and less than 30 ktd) light easterlies

50.8.1.2 (3768)What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ?a) Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.b) Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the yearc) Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July.d) Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January.

50.8.2.2 (3769)When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?a) March to May and October to November.

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b) December to February and July to October.c) March to May and August to October.d) April to July and December to February.

50.8.2.2 (3770)During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason for this difference?a) The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.b) The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable conditions.c) The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions.d) The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream.

50.8.2.2 (3771)Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct?a) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceansb) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continentsc) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceansd) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents

50.8.2.3 (3772)Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct?a) Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ.b) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.c) The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.d) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.

50.8.2.3 (3773)In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?a) 0° - 7°N.b) 3° - 8°S.c) 8° - 12°S.d) 7° - 12°N.

50.8.2.3 (3774)Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?a) In the vicinity of Dakarb) Near the Canary Islandsc) At the latitudes of Gibraltard) At the latitudes of Algeria

50.8.2.3 (3775)Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?a) SE trade winds and NE trade windsb) SW monsoon and NW monsoonc) SW monsoon and NW trade windsd) NW monsoon and SW trade winds

50.8.2.3 (3776)Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?a) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere.b) The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly trade winds over Africa.c) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.d) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.

50.8.2.3 (3777)The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affectsa) western Africa between 10° and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July.b) western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July.c) the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year.d) western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on the time of the year.

50.8.2.3 (3778)Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa?a) It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in Julyb) It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in Januaryc) It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.d) It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.

50.8.2.3 (3779)Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?a) There are frequent occurrences of CBb) It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in Januaryc) It does not change its position over the oceans during the yeard) It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity

50.8.2.3 (3780)(For this question use annex 050-10797A)The dotted line designated ""Z"" represents thea) mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during Julyb) mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during Januaryc) northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during Julyd) northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January

50.8.2.3 (3781)(For this question use annex 050-10798A)The dotted line labelled ""Y"" represents

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thea) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during Januaryb) axis of the subtropical jet stream during Januaryc) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during Julyd) mean position of the temperate/tropical front during July

50.8.2.3 (3782)(For this question use annex 050-10799A)What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July?a) Wet and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)b) Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure systemc) Generally clear skies - NW trade windsd) Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan

50.8.2.4 (3783)What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent ?a) Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.b) Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air.c) Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.d) Southeasterly winds carrying warm and humid air.

50.8.2.4 (3784)What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?a) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.b) Stratus clouds and drizzle.c) Sandstorms.d) Fog.

50.8.2.4 (3785)From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?a) SEb) NEc) SWd) N

50.8.2.4 (3786)What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?a) Trade winds.b) Doldrums.c) Westerly winds.d) Monsoon.

50.8.2.4 (3787)In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?a) In June.b) In October.c) In December.d) In March.

50.8.2.4 (3788)What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?a) South-west monsoon.b) South-east trade wind.c) Indian, maritime tropical air mass.d) Winter monsoon.

50.8.2.4 (3789)(For this question use annex 050-10800A)Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by thea) SW monsoonb) NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZc) passage of frontal system generated in the south indian oceand) high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf

50.8.2.4 (3790)(For this question use annex 050-10801A)Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by thea) NE monsoonb) SW monsoonc) NW monsoond) SE monsoon

50.8.2.4 (3791)The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs ina) September, October, Novemberb) July, August, Septemberc) December, January, Februaryd) February, March, April

50.8.2.4 (3792)The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is aa) SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winterb) SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summerc) NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winterd) NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer

50.8.2.4 (3793)Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are thea) SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in Januaryb) SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in Januaryc) NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in Januaryd) SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January

50.8.2.5 (3794)What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?a) Thunderstorms and rain.b) Continuous rain.

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c) Clear skies.d) Frontal weather.

50.8.2.5 (3795)An easterly wave is aa) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its troughb) wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its troughc) small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its troughd) disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough

50.8.3.1 (3796)(For this question use annex 050-4391A)Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for the area of Central Europe ?a) Westerly wavesb) Uniform pressure patternc) Cutting windd) Easterly waves

50.8.3.2 (3797)(For this question use annex 050-4392A)Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy?a) High pressureb) Warm southerly windc) Westerly windd) Easterly wind

50.8.3.2 (3798)(For this question use annex 050-4393A)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport?a) TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =b) TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =c) TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 =d) TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =

50.8.3.2 (3799)(For this question use annex 050-10802A)The weather most likely to be experienced at position ""R"" isa) fine and warm with little or no cloudb) early morning fog lifting to low stratusc) increasing high and medium cloud cover and generally good visibilityd) mainly overcast with anticyclonic gloom

50.8.3.3 (3800)(For this question use annex 050-2059A)Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa)a) Uniform pressure pattern.b) Cutting wind.c) West wind condition.d) Warm south wind condition (Foehn).

50.8.3.3 (3801)With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes?a) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.b) Increase rapidly.c) Show strong fluctuations.d) Decrease rapidly.

50.8.3.3 (3802)(For this question use annex 050-10803A)The weather most likely to be experienced at position ""R"" isa) fine and warm at first - AC Castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstormsb) early morning fog lifting to low stratusc) increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy raind) overcast with drizzle and hill fog

50.8.3.4 (3803)A cold poola) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chartb) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systemsc) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summerd) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream

50.8.4.1 (3804)Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south (Foehn)?a) Good visibility, turbulence.b) Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.c) Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.d) Icing, huge mass of clouds.

50.8.4.1 (3805)For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?a) Dust and poor visibility.b) Thunderstorms.

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c) Sand up to FL 150.d) Hail.

50.8.4.1 (3806)What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?a) Bora.b) Ghibli.c) Mistral.d) Scirocco.

50.8.4.1 (3807)What is characteristic of the pamperos?a) A marked advance of cold air in South Americab) Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountainsc) A marked advance of cold arctic air in North Americad) Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees

50.8.4.1 (3808)What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south?a) Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alpsb) Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alpsc) Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alpsd) Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps

50.8.4.1 (3809)Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?a) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.b) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.c) Frontal zones.d) Occlusions.

50.8.4.1 (3810)(For this question use annex 050-4305A)Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply?a) Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe.b) Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe.c) Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps.d) Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter.

50.8.4.1 (3811)(For this question use annex 050-4725A)Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is aa) NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust.b) SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast south of 15°N.c) warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa.d) localised depression giving squally winds.

50.8.4.1 (3812)The Bora is aa) cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gustsb) squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summerc) cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air massd) cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers

50.8.4.1 (3813)The Foehn wind is aa) warm fall windb) cold fall windc) warm anabatic windd) cold anabatic wind

50.8.4.1 (3814)Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?a) Chinookb) Sciroccoc) Harmattand) Bora

50.8.4.1 (3815)A Foehn wind occurs on thea) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloudb) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heatingc) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flowd) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side

50.8.4.1 (3816)The Chinook is aa) warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountainsb) very cold wind with blowing snowc) downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopesd) warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers

50.8.4.1 (3817)A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as aa) Foehnb) Harmattanc) Mistrald) Bora

50.8.4.1 (3818)A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as aa) Harmattanb) Scirocco

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c) Pamperod) Khamsin

50.8.4.1 (3819)What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?a) Mistral.b) Foehn.c) Bora.d) Typhoon.

50.8.4.1 (3820)What are the characteristics of the Bora ?a) It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland downwards to the Adriaticb) It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in the Mediterraneanc) It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation.d) It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust.

50.8.4.1 (3821)What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather situation.a) Foehn.b) Mistral.c) Bora.d) Scirocco.

50.9.1.1 (3822)In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?a) CIb) SCc) NSd) CU

50.9.1.1 (3823)In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?a) CSb) ASc) SCd) NS

50.9.1.1 (3824)Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?a) #NAME?b) GRc) SHSNd) PE

50.9.1.1 (3825)(For this question use annex 050-4314A)Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?a) Diagram d)b) Diagram c)c) Diagram b)d) Diagram a)

50.9.1.1 (3826)Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile :3000 FT +15°C6000 FT +8°C10000 FT +1°C14000 FT -6°C18000 FT -14°C24000 FT -26°CAt which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?a) FL 150b) FL 80c) FL 180d) FL 220

50.9.1.1 (3827)On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling.According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?a) Yes, between ground level and 3000 FT/AGL.b) Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL.c) No, flights clear of cloud experience no icing.d) No, absolutely no icing will occur.

50.9.1.1 (3828)In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ?a) Freezing rain.b) Cirrus clouds.c) Stratus clouds.d) Snow.

50.9.1.1 (3829)In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface?a) 0°C to -10°Cb) +10°C to 0°Cc) -20°C to -35°Cd) -35°C to -50°C

50.9.1.1 (3830)Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?a) It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloudb) It will occur in clear-sky conditionsc) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formationd) It always occurs in altostratus cloud

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50.9.1.1 (3831)Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?a) It will not occur in clear-sky conditionsb) It always occurs in altostratus cloudc) It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloudd) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation

50.9.1.1 (3832)You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25°C. Which of the following statements is true?a) Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditionsb) Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditionsc) If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloudd) In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5°C

50.9.1.1 (3833)Freezing fog exists if fog dropletsa) are supercooledb) are frozenc) are freezing very rapidlyd) freeze when temperature falls below zero

50.9.1.1 (3834)A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profilea) intersects the 0°C isotherm twiceb) coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse ratec) indicates temperatures below -40°Cd) indicates temperatures above 3°C

50.9.1.1 (3835)In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ?a) Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C.b) Flying in dense cirrus clouds.c) Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer.d) Flying in heavy drizzle.

50.9.1.1 (3836)Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets?a) Altocumulus and altostratus.b) Stratocumulus and cirrostratusc) Stratus and cumulonimbusd) Altostratus and cirrocumulus

50.9.1.1 (3837)A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:

a) A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets.b) Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.c) Reduced visibility and light icing in cloudsd) Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals

50.9.1.1 (3838)Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct ?a) A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icingb) Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds.c) Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C.d) Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud.

50.9.1.1 (3839)Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ?a) Cloud temperature and droplet sizeb) Aircraft speed and size of cloud dropletsc) Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoild) Relative humidity inside the cloud

50.9.1.2 (3840)Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces ofa) small supercooled water drops.b) large supercooled water drops.c) water vapour.d) snow.

50.9.1.2 (3841)Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?a) Between -2°C and -15°Cb) Between -20°C and -30°Cc) Close to the freezing leveld) Between -30°C and -40°C

50.9.1.2 (3842)Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :a) large supercooled water dropsb) water vapourc) small supercooled water dropsd) snow

50.9.1.2 (3843)During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freezea) rapidly and do not spread outb) slowly and do not spread outc) slowly and spread outd) rapidly and spread out

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50.9.1.2 (3844)Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets area) large and at a temperature just below freezingb) small and at a temperature just below freezingc) small and freeze rapidlyd) of any size at temperatures below -35°C.

50.9.1.2 (3845)Clear ice forms as a result ofa) supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing processb) water vapour freezing to the aircraftc) ice pellets splattering on the aircraftd) supercooled droplets freezing on impact

50.9.1.2 (3846)Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an aircraft, forma) clear iceb) rime icec) hoar frostd) cloudy ice

50.9.1.2 (3847)The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to bea) clear iceb) hoar frostc) rime iced) cloudy ice

50.9.1.2 (3848)Clear ice is dangerous because ita) is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfacesb) is translucent and only forms at the leading edgesc) is not translucent and forms at the leading edgesd) spreads out and contains many air particles

50.9.1.2 (3849)Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result ofa) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surfaceb) freezing rain striking the aircraftc) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezingd) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft

50.9.1.2 (3850)Hoar frost is most likely to form whena) taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion.b) flying inside convective clouds.c) flying inside stratiform clouds.d) flying in supercooled drizzle.

50.9.1.2 (3851)While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called:a) Rime ice.b) Clear ice.c) Mixed ice.d) Frost.

50.9.1.2 (3852)A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likelya) freeze immediately and create rime ice.b) freeze immediately and create clear ice.c) travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.d) travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.

50.9.1.3 (3853)How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land?a) He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.b) He descends to the warm air layer below.c) He ascends to the cold air layer above.d) He continues to fly at the same altitude.

50.9.1.3 (3854)At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude desirable"" recommendation be followed?a) Moderateb) Lightc) Severed) Extreme

50.9.1.3 (3855)At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude immediately"" instruction be followed?a) Severeb) Lightc) Moderated) Extreme

50.9.1.3 (3856)At what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude necessary"" recommendation be followed?a) Lightb) Moderatec) Severed) Extreme

50.9.1.3 (3857)The most dangerous form of airframe icing isa) clear ice.

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b) hoar frost.c) dry ice.d) rime ice.

50.9.1.3 (3858)Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ?a) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.b) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.c) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icingd) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.

50.9.2.1 (3859)How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?a) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.b) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.c) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily.d) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.

50.9.2.1 (3860)A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?a) Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.b) Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.c) Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.d) Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.

50.9.2.1 (3861)What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?a) Change of flight level.b) Change of course.c) Increase of speed.d) Decrease of speed.

50.9.2.1 (3862)An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by :a) Descendingb) Climbingc) Turn rightd) Maintain FL 270

50.9.2.1 (3863)A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05, an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure ?a) Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.b) Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.c) Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.d) Take-off is not possible under these conditions.

50.9.2.2 (3864)The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to thea) intensity of vertical and horizontal windshearb) height of the aircraftc) stability of the aird) intensity of the solar radiation

50.9.2.2 (3865)The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?a) The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant.b) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.c) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.d) The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.

50.9.3.1 (3866)What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ?a) It promotes vertical windshear.b) It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.c) It prevents vertical windshear.d) It results in good visual conditions.

50.9.3.1 (3867)Low level wind shear is likely to be greatesta) at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.b) at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.c) at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.d) at the top of the friction layer.

50.9.3.1 (3868)Vertical wind shear isa) vertical variation in the horizontal windb) vertical variation in the vertical windc) horizontal variation in the horizontal windd) horizontal variation in the vertical wind

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50.9.3.2 (3869)Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the nighta) in association with radiation inversionsb) in unstable atmospheresc) and early morning only in winterd) and early morning only in summer

50.9.3.2 (3870)The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountereda) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstormsb) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 ktc) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleysd) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.

50.9.3.2 (3871)Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely toa) change significantly in speed and directionb) change in speed but not in directionc) change in direction but not in speedd) experience little or no change in speed and direction

50.9.4.1 (3872)Where is a squall line to be expected?a) In front of an active cold front.b) Behind a cold front.c) In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.d) At the surface position of a warm front.

50.9.4.1 (3873)What are squall lines?a) Bands of intensive thunderstorms.b) Unusual intensive cold fronts.c) The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.d) The paths of tropical revolving storms.

50.9.4.1 (3874)What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?a) Thunderstormsb) Strong steady rainc) Fogd) Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels

50.9.4.1 (3875)At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB?a) From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.b) From the ground up to about FL 200.c) From the ground up to about FL 100.d) From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.

50.9.4.1 (3876)A squall line usually is most likely to be encountereda) ahead of a cold frontb) at an occluded frontc) in an airmass with cold mass propertiesd) behind of a stationary front

50.9.4.1 (3877)In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?a) Mature stageb) Cumulus stagec) Dissipating staged) In all stages

50.9.4.1 (3878)During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?a) Dissipating stageb) Cumulus stagec) Mature staged) Anvil stage

50.9.4.1 (3879)What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?a) Continuous updraftb) Roll cloudc) Frequent lightningd) Rain or hail at the surface

50.9.4.1 (3880)A gustfront isa) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstormb) normally encountered directly below a thunderstormc) characterized by heavy lightningd) another name for a cold front

50.9.4.2 (3881)In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts?a) Mid - afternoon.b) Around midnight.c) Early morning.d) Late morning.

50.9.4.2 (3882)During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ?a) Mature stage.b) Cumulus stage.

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c) Dissipating stage.d) Cumulus stage and mature stage.

50.9.4.2 (3883)What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over land?a) High temperatures, high humidity.b) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.c) Low temperatures, low humidity.d) Subsidence, inversion.

50.9.4.2 (3884)Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ?a) AC castellanus.b) AC lenticularis.c) Halo.d) Red cirrus.

50.9.4.2 (3885)Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused bya) thermal triggering.b) frontal lifting (warm front).c) frontal lifting (cold front).d) frontal occlusion.

50.9.4.2 (3886)Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?a) Frontal thunderstorms.b) Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.c) Thermal thunderstorms.d) Orographic thunderstorms.

50.9.4.2 (3887)The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized bya) continuous updraughtsb) continuous downdraughtsc) frequent lightningd) rain starting at surface

50.9.4.2 (3888)In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation ?a) Unstable conditions and high moisture contentb) Stable conditions and high moisture contentc) Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressured) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure

50.9.4.2 (3889)Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the

a) cumulus stage.b) mature stage.c) dissipating stage.d) period in which precipitation is falling.

50.9.4.2 (3890)Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during thea) mature stage.b) cumulus stage.c) dissipating stage.d) period in which precipitation is not falling.

50.9.4.2 (3891)What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?a) An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting actionb) Water vapour and high pressurec) A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moistured) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion

50.9.4.2 (3892)Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes?a) Airmass thunderstormsb) Warm front thunderstormsc) Cold mass thunderstormsd) Occlusion thunderstorms

50.9.4.2 (3893)In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered ?a) Tropicalb) Polarc) Subtropicald) Temperate

50.9.4.2 (3894)Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if thea) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rateb) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse ratec) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rated) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate

50.9.4.3 (3895)The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight isa) cumulonimbusb) stratocumulus

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c) cumulusd) cirrus

50.9.4.4 (3896)What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ?a) 4 kmb) 400 mc) 20 kmd) 50 km

50.9.4.4 (3897)What is a microburst?a) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.b) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air.c) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.

50.9.4.4 (3898)How long does a typical microburst last?a) 1 to 5 minutes.b) Less than 1 minute.c) 1 to 2 hours.d) About 30 minutes.

50.9.4.4 (3899)A microburst phenomenon can arise in thea) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.b) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.c) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.d) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage.

50.9.4.4 (3900)Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?a) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundingsb) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundingsc) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving stormd) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed

50.9.4.4 (3901)The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order ofa) 4 km and 1-5 minutesb) 4 km and 30-40 minutesc) 8 km and 5-15 minutesd) 12 km and 5-10 minutes

50.9.4.4 (3902)A microburst

a) has a diameter up to 4 kmb) has a life time of more than 30 minutesc) is always associated with thunderstormsd) occurs only in tropical areas

50.9.4.5 (3903)Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct?a) Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.b) An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.c) An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock.d) Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.

50.9.5.1 (3904)At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?a) Spring, summer.b) Summer, autumn.c) Autumn, winter.d) Winter.

50.9.5.1 (3905)With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated ?a) Cumulonimbusb) Cumulusc) Stratusd) Nimbostratus

50.9.5.1 (3906)The diameter of a typical tornado isa) 100 to 150 metresb) only a few metresc) about 2 to 6 kmd) in the order of 10 km

50.9.6.1 (3907)A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due toa) a very strong temperature inversionb) sand/dust in the enginesc) very pronounced downdraftsd) low relative humidity

50.9.8.1 (3908)Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a mountain range ?

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a) Stratified cloudsb) Inversionsc) Showers and thunderstormsd) Areas of severe turbulence

50.9.8.2 (3909)You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?a) Morning.b) Mid-day.c) Afternoon.d) Early evening.

50.9.8.2 (3910)You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?a) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.b) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice.c) Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.d) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost.

50.9.9.1 (3911)In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle isa) greaterb) the samec) lessd) in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km

50.9.9.1 (3912)Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimala) tens of metresb) about 200 metresc) about 500 metresd) about 1000 metres

50.9.9.1 (3913)Visibility is reduced by haze whena) dust particles are trapped below an inversionb) a light drizzle fallsc) a cold front just passedd) small waterdroplets are present

50.9.9.1 (3914)In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted bya) showers of rain or snowb) hazec) drizzled) low stratus

50.9.9.1 (3915)In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility whena) there is a low level inversionb) the surface wind is strong and gustyc) cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoond) a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area

50.9.9.1 (3916)Below a low level inversion visibility is oftena) moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchangeb) very good at nightc) very good in the early morningd) moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.

50.10.1.1 (3917)What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog?a) The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR.b) The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR.c) The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR.d) There is no specific relationship between the two.

50.10.1.1 (3918)The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?a) On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.b) 1 m above the runway.c) Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.d) On the roof of the weather station.

50.10.1.1 (3919)What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?a) 5 - 7 oktas.b) 3 - 4 oktas.c) 6 - 8 oktas.d) 8 oktas.

50.10.1.1 (3920)When is the RVR reported at most airports?a) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.b) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.c) When the RVR decreases below 800 m.d) When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.

50.10.1.1 (3921)When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?a) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speedb) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speedc) With gusts of at least 25 knotsd) With gusts of at least 35 knots

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50.10.1.1 (3922)While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400mThis information indicates thea) length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.b) meteorological visibility on runway 23.c) portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service.d) minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.

50.10.1.1 (3923)Runway Visual Range (RVR) isa) usually better than meteorological visibilityb) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000mc) reported in TAF and METARd) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway

50.10.1.1 (3924)The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative toa) true northb) magnetic northc) the 0-meridiand) grid north

50.10.1.1 (3925)The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height abovea) airfield levelb) mean sea levelc) the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observationd) the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station

50.10.1.2 (3926)(For this question use annex 050-2056A)Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:a) 2b) 1c) 3d) 4

50.10.1.2 (3927)(For this question use annex 050-4319A)Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:a) 3b) 1c) 2d) 4

50.10.1.3 (3928)What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?a) To locate fronts in areas with few observation stationsb) To measure wind currents on the ground

c) To help provide 14-day forecastsd) To locate precipitation zones

50.10.1.4 (3929)Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?a) Hailb) Water vapourc) Fogd) Any cloud

50.10.1.4 (3930)An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location ofa) zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensityb) all cloudsc) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of haild) stratocumulus and its vertical development

50.10.2.1 (3931)In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?a) Significant Weather Chart.b) 24 hour surface forecast.c) 500 hPa chart.d) 300 hPa chart.

50.10.2.1 (3932)On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream?a) Significant weather chart.b) Wind / temperature chart.c) Surface chart.d) Upper air chart.

50.10.2.1 (3933)Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level ?a) Significant weather chartb) 500 hPa chartc) 700 hPa chartd) Surface chart

50.10.2.1 (3934)What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?a) The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chartb) The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chartc) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chartd) The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart

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50.10.2.3 (3935)How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ?a) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.b) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots.c) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour.d) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour.

50.10.2.3 (3936)What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?a) Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.b) Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels.c) Positions with the same air density.d) Positions with the same wind velocity.

50.10.2.3 (3937)Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level (FL50)?a) 850 hPa.b) 700 hPa.c) 500 hPa.d) 300 hPa.

50.10.2.3 (3938)Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 9882 FT pressure level (FL 100) ?a) 700 hPab) 850 hPac) 500 hPad) 300 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3939)Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 18289 FT pressure level (FL 180) ?a) 500 hPab) 300 hPac) 200 hPad) 700 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3940)Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30065 FT pressure level (FL 300)?a) 300 hPab) 200 hPac) 700 hPad) 500 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3941)Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 38662 FT pressure level (FL 390) ?a) 200 hPab) 300 hPa

c) 500 hPad) 700 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3942)If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ?a) 500 hPab) 300 hPac) 850 hPad) 700 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3943)If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ?a) 300 hPab) 500 hPac) 700 hPad) 850 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3944)When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?a) 850 hPab) 700 hPac) 500 hPad) 300 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3945)When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?a) 700 hPab) 850 hPac) 300 hPad) 500 hPa

50.10.2.3 (3946)The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to abouta) 34 000 FTb) 39 000 FTc) 30 000 FTd) 32 000 FT

50.10.2.3 (3947)An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This means that for all points on the isohypse thea) topography is 552 decameters above MSLb) pressure is 552 hPac) topography is 552 meters above MSLd) pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT

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50.10.2.4 (3948)(For this question use annex 050-2422A) Which of the following symbols represents a tropical revolving storm?a) Symbol a)b) Symbol b)c) Symbol c)d) Symbol d)

50.10.2.4 (3949)(For this question use annex 050-2539A) The front labelled ""Z"" is a:a) Warm frontb) Cold frontc) Warm front occlusiond) Cold front occlusion

50.10.2.4 (3950)How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?a) OCNL CB.b) EMBD CB.c) FREQ CB.d) ISOL CB.

50.10.2.4 (3951)(For this question use annex 050-2421A)Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?a) Symbol a)b) Symbol b)c) Symbol c)d) Symbol d)

50.10.2.4 (3952)(For this question use annex 050-2055A)The cold front is indicated with a number at position:a) 2b) 1c) 3d) 4

50.10.2.4 (3953)(For this question use annex 050-2058A)What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?a) The center of a tropopause ""high"", where the tropopause is at FL 400.b) The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.c) The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.d) The lower limit of the tropopause.

50.10.2.4 (3954)(For this question use annex 050-4331A)A trough is indicated by letter:a) Ab) B

c) Cd) D

50.10.2.4 (3955)(For this question use annex 050-4332A)The warm sector is indicated by letter:a) Cb) Bc) Dd) A

50.10.2.4 (3956)(For this question use annex 050-4333A)Which of the following best describes Zone A?a) Trough of low pressureb) Colc) Ridge of high pressured) Depression

50.10.2.4 (3957)(For this question use annex 050-4334A)Which of the following best describes Zone B?a) Colb) Ridge of high pressurec) Depressiond) Trough of low pressure

50.10.2.4 (3958)(For this question use annex 050-4335A)Which of the following best describes Zone C?a) Ridge of high pressureb) Colc) Trough of low pressured) Depression

50.10.2.4 (3959)(For this question use annex 050-4336A)Which of the following best describes Zone D?a) Depressionb) Ridge of high pressurec) Anticycloned) Trough of low pressure

50.10.2.4 (3960)(For this question use annex 050-4337A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing ?a) Symbol a)b) Symbol b)c) Symbol c)d) Symbol d)

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50.10.2.4 (3961)(For this question use annex 050-4338A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revolving storm?a) Symbol d)b) Symbol c)c) Symbol b)d) Symbol a)

50.10.2.4 (3962)(For this question use annex 050-4339A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?a) Symbol b)b) Symbol d)c) Symbol a)d) Symbol c)

50.10.2.4 (3963)(For this question use annex 050-4340A)According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?a) Symbol c)b) Symbol d)c) Symbol a)d) Symbol b)

50.10.3.1 (3964)What is a trend forecast?a) A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hoursb) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hoursc) A route forecast valid for 24 hoursd) A routine report

50.10.3.1 (3965)What does the expression ""Broken (BKN)"" mean?a) 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud coveredb) 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud coveredc) 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud coveredd) Nil significant cloud cover

50.10.3.1 (3966)What does the abbreviation ""nosig"" mean?a) No significant changesb) No report receivedc) No weather related problemsd) Not signed by the meteorologist

50.10.3.1 (3967)In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway?a) METARb) SIGMET

c) GAFORd) TAF

50.10.3.1 (3968)In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest?a) VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =b) 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =c) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =d) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (3969)Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)a) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =b) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =c) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =d) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (3970)Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)a) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =b) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =c) LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =d) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (3971)Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?a) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMETb) The airspace in question, will be temporarily closedc) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECId) The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning

50.10.3.1 (3972)Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ?a) Heavy rain showersb) Continuous moderate rainc) Light drizzle and fogd) Moderate snow showers

50.10.3.1 (3973)Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA

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=Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?a) 8 kmb) 8 NMc) 10 NMd) 10 or more km

50.10.3.1 (3974)Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ?a) 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 ktb) 140° / 10 ktc) 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 ktd) 250° / 20 kt

50.10.3.1 (3975)Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam ?a) 3 kmb) 5 kmc) 5 NMd) 6 km

50.10.3.1 (3976)In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ?a) 60 minutes.b) 120 minutes.c) 10 minutes.d) 20 minutes.

50.10.3.1 (3977)Does the following report make sense?LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIGa) The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level.b) The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km.c) The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported.d) The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew point of 2°C there must be uniform fog.

50.10.3.1 (3978)You receive the following METAR :LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG =What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?a) The RVR is unknown, because the ""NOSIG"" does not refer to RVR.b) 300 m.c) 700 m.d) 900 m.

50.10.3.1 (3979)Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR ?16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 =a) Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m, dew point -2°C, freezing fog.b) RVR for runway 16 1000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C.c) RVR for runway 14 1500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kt.d) Meteorological visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2°C.

50.10.3.1 (3980)Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam?a) 500 FTb) 250 FTc) 500 md) 800 FT

50.10.3.1 (3981)In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =Which decision is correct?a) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.b) You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown.c) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).d) You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers.

50.10.3.1 (3982)Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?

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a) 500 m.b) 2000 m.c) Between 500 m and 2000 m.d) Between 0 m and 1000 m.

50.10.3.1 (3983)Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""VV001"" mean?a) Vertical visibility 100 FT.b) RVR less than 100 m.c) RVR greater than 100 m.d) Vertical visibility 100 m.

50.10.3.1 (3984)What does the term METAR signify?a) A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.b) A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.c) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.d) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.

50.10.3.1 (3985)How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?a) 2 hours.b) 9 hours.c) 1 hour.d) 30 minutes.

50.10.3.1 (3986)What is a SPECI?a) A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed.b) A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.c) A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.d) An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.

50.10.3.1 (3987)Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must you consider when making performance calculations?a) The friction coefficient is 0.28.b) The braking action will be medium to good.c) The runway will be wet.d) Aquaplaning conditions.

50.10.3.1 (3988)Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the ""BECMG"" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?a) The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTCb) A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.

c) Many short term changes in the original weather.d) Many long term changes in the original weather.

50.10.3.1 (3989)Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""BKN004"" mean?a) 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.b) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.c) 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.d) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.

50.10.3.1 (3990)Refer to the following TAF extract,BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""PROB30"" mean?a) Probability of 30%.b) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.c) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.d) Change expected in less than 30 minutes.

50.10.3.1 (3991)What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?a) The average speed of the previous 10 minutesb) The average speed of the previous 30 minutesc) The strongest gust in the previous hourd) The actual speed at the time of recording

50.10.3.1 (3992)What does the term SIGMET signify?a) A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditionsb) A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times dailyc) A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather reportd) A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals

50.10.3.1 (3993)What does the term TREND signify?a) It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather reportb) It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervalsc) It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditionsd) It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

50.10.3.1 (3994)Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?a) SNb) BCFGc) FZFGd) HZ

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50.10.3.1 (3995)Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?a) #NAME?b) VAc) BRd) MIFG

50.10.3.1 (3996)Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed?a) DZb) SAc) TSd) SQ

50.10.3.1 (3997)Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf =a) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380b) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260c) Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380d) Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps

50.10.3.1 (3998)Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =a) Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constantb) Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving westc) Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTCd) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR

50.10.3.1 (3999)Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:a) 6 km.b) 6 NM.c) 4 km.d) 10 km.

50.10.3.1 (4000)Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:a) 1500 FT.b) 1000 FT.c) 1500 m.d) 5000 FT.

50.10.3.1 (4001)The following weather reportEDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001is a :a) 9 hour TAF.b) 24 hour TAF.c) SPECI.d) METAR.

50.10.3.1 (4002)In METAR messages, the pressure group represents thea) QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa.b) QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.c) QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.d) QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa.

50.10.3.1 (4003)What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?a) 3 - 4 oktasb) 1 - 2 oktasc) 5 - 7 oktasd) 1 - 4 oktas

50.10.3.1 (4004)Refer to TAF below.EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KTFrom the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :a) not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.b) a maximum 5 km.c) a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.d) more than 10 km

50.10.3.1 (4005)Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway?a) #NAME?b) MIFGc) FGd) HZ

50.10.3.1 (4006)Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?

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a) #NAME?b) FGc) BCFGd) SA

50.10.3.1 (4007)Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours?a) 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =b) 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =c) 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =d) 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (4008)Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?a) 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =b) 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =c) 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =d) 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =

50.10.3.1 (4009)In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest?a) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =b) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =c) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =d) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =

50.10.3.1 (4010)Look at this TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?a) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C.b) Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.c) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.d) Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots.

50.10.3.1 (4011)Refer to the TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?a) Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knotsb) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feetc) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calmd) Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots

50.10.3.1 (4012)Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?a) 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =b) 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 =c) 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG =d) 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (4013)Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?a) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =b) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =c) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =d) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =

50.10.3.1 (4014)Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW =a) Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°Cb) Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23°Cc) Broken, cloudbase 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18°Cd) Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa

50.10.3.1 (4015)Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =a) RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hoursb) Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metresc) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frostd) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres

50.10.3.1 (4016)Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIGa) Visibility is reduced by water dropletsb) There is a distinct change in RVR observedc) Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVRd) RVR on runway 26R is increasing

50.10.3.1 (4017)Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ?a) For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issuedb) Severe squall lines only occur in the tropicsc) For severe squall lines a TAF is issuedd) Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast

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50.10.3.1 (4018)The validity of a TAF isa) stated in the TAFb) 2 hoursc) between 6 and 9 hoursd) 9 hours from the time of issue

50.10.3.1 (4019)If CAVOK is reported thena) no low drifting snow is presentb) no clouds are presentc) low level windshear has not been reportedd) any CB's have a base above 5000 FT

50.10.3.1 (4020)Runway visual range can be reported ina) a METARb) a TAFc) a SIGMETd) both a TAF and a METAR

50.10.3.1 (4021)SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather toa) all aircraftb) light aircraft onlyc) VFR operations onlyd) heavy aircraft only

50.10.3.1 (4022)A SPECI isa) an aviation selected special weather reportb) an aviation routine weather reportc) a warning for special weather phenomenad) a forecast for special weather phenomena

50.10.3.1 (4023)On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals ofa) 0.5 hourb) 1 hourc) 2 hoursd) 3 hours

50.10.3.1 (4024)The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always thea) value representative of the touchdown zoneb) average value of the A-, B- and C-positionc) highest value of the A-, B- and C-positiond) lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position

50.10.3.1 (4025)At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the ""temperature group"" will be:a) M00/M01b) M01/M02c) 00/M01d) M01/M01

50.10.3.2 (4026)Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK =0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS =What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports ?a) That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morningb) That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAFc) That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAFd) That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF

50.10.3.2 (4027)Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 1600 UTC :Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.Calvi: wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore:a) 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvib) 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 500 FT at Calvic) 8000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvid) 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 2000 FT at Calvi

50.10.3.2 (4028)ATIS information containsa) meteorological and operational informationb) only meteorological informationc) operational information and if necessary meteorological informationd) only operational information

50.10.3.3 (4029)(For this question use annex 050-2432A)At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =a) EDDLb) LFPOc) LOWWd) LEMD

50.10.3.3 (4030)(For this question use annex 050-2545A)What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris

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?a) 210/40b) 240/20c) 030/40d) 190/40

50.10.3.3 (4031)(For this question use annex 050-2547A)What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris ?a) -19°Cb) -23°Cc) -15°Cd) -25°C

50.10.3.3 (4032)(For this question use annex 050-2548A)What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt ?a) ISA -4°Cb) ISA -12°Cc) ISA +12°Cd) ISA +4°C

50.10.3.3 (4033)(For this question use annex 050-2549A)What is the speed of the front located over France ?a) 15 ktb) 25 ktc) 10 ktd) 30 kt

50.10.3.3 (4034)(For this question use annex 050-2550A)Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London ?a) 220° / 120 ktb) 050° / 120 km/hc) 050° / 120 ktd) 230° / 120 m/sec

50.10.3.3 (4035)(For this question use annex 050-2554A)Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220 ?a) Well separated cumulonimbusb) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbusc) Scattered towering cumulusd) Scattered castellanus

50.10.3.3 (4036)(For this question use annex 050-2510A)In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2?

a) From FL 220 to FL 400, moderateb) From FL 240 to FL 370, lightc) From below FL 130 to FL 270, lightd) From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate

50.10.3.3 (4037)(For this question use annex 050-2511A)At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over nothern Scandinavia ?a) FL 280b) FL 330c) FL 360d) FL 300

50.10.3.3 (4038)(For this question use annex 050-2512A)At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds?a) Position B, FL 270.b) Position A, FL 200.c) Position C, FL 200.d) Position D, FL 290.

50.10.3.3 (4039)(For this question use annex 050-2513A)At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt?a) FL 330b) FL 300c) FL 350d) FL 240

50.10.3.3 (4040)(For this question use annex 050-2522A)Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL 280.a) 220 / 60b) 250 / 80c) 040 / 60d) 160 / 90

50.10.3.3 (4041)(For this question use annex 050-2523A)What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome ?a) 020/50b) 050/40c) 200/45d) 350/40

50.10.3.3 (4042)(For this question use annex 050-2529A)The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will bea) -45°Cb) -39°C

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c) -33°Cd) -57°C

50.10.3.3 (4043)How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available).a) By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart.b) By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts.c) By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart.d) By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.

50.10.3.3 (4044)Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?a) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.b) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.c) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important.d) Tropopause informations are of no value.

50.10.3.3 (4045)(For this question use annex 050-2493A)Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200 ?a) Moderate turbulence, moderate icingb) Moderate turbulence, light icingc) Severe turbulence, moderate icingd) Severe turbulence, severe icing

50.10.3.3 (4046)(For this question use annex 050-2496A)Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?a) LSZHb) ESSAc) ENFBd) EFHK

50.10.3.3 (4047)(For this question use annex 050-2503A)Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map?a) 30000 FTb) 33000 FTc) 15000 FTd) 28000 FT

50.10.3.3 (4048)(For this question use annex 050-2504A)What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart?a) FL 220

b) FL 340c) FL 160d) FL 360

50.10.3.3 (4049)(For this question use annex 050-2505A)Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?a) FL 220b) FL 160c) FL 320d) FL 140

50.10.3.3 (4050)(For this question use annex 050-2506A)What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Munich and Helsinki?a) FL 340b) FL 280c) FL 300d) FL 390

50.10.3.3 (4051)(For this question use annex 050-2509A)You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?a) FL 260b) FL 320c) FL 180d) FL 140

50.10.3.3 (4052)(For this question use annex 050-2053A)What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT overhead position ""Q"" at 0600 UTC?a) 270° 30 kt.b) 270° 15 kt.c) 240° 25 kt.d) 240° 20 kt.

50.10.3.3 (4053)(For this question use annex 050-2433A) What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC?a) 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =b) 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =c) 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW =d) 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =

50.10.3.3 (4054)(For this question use annex 050-2555A)Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160 ?a) Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layersb) 4 oktas broken cumulus

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c) Isolated cumulonimbus onlyd) 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence

50.10.3.3 (4055)(For this question use annex 050-2556A)To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ?a) 5 to 8 oktasb) 1 to 4 oktasc) 5 to 7 oktasd) 3 to 5 oktas

50.10.3.3 (4056)(For this question use annex 050-2558A)What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ?a) -24°Cb) -20°Cc) -16°Cd) -28°C

50.10.3.3 (4057)(For this question use annex 050-3030A)To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable ?TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030a) LOWWb) LFPGc) LEMDd) EKCH

50.10.3.3 (4058)(For this question use annex 050-4362A)At which airport is the following weather development taking place?TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 =a) EINNb) ESSAc) LSZHd) EKCH

50.10.3.3 (4059)(For this question use annex 050-4363A)Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?a) 21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG =b) 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 =c) 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =d) 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =

50.10.3.3 (4060)(For this question use annex 050-4364A)Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?a) LSZH

b) ENFBc) EKCHd) ESSA

50.10.3.3 (4061)(For this question use annex 050-4365A)Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110.a) 230/10b) 200/30c) 040/10d) 250/20

50.10.3.3 (4062)(For this question use annex 050-4366A)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.a) -9°Cb) -12°Cc) -6°Cd) +5°C

50.10.3.3 (4063)(For this question use annex 050-4367A)Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Shannon be found?a) FL 60b) FL 20c) FL 140d) FL 120

50.10.3.3 (4064)(For this question use annex 050-4368A)Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170.a) 230/40b) 200/50c) 050/40d) 030/35

50.10.3.3 (4065)(For this question use annex 050-4369A)Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found?a) FL 100b) FL 20c) FL 180d) FL 260

50.10.3.3 (4066)(For this question use annex 050-4370A)What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt - Rome route?a) 4°C colder than ISAb) 4°C warmer than ISA

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c) 10°C colder than ISAd) 10°C warmer than ISA

50.10.3.3 (4067)(For this question use annex 050-4371A)Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 160.a) 240/40b) 210/25c) 260/40d) 050/35

50.10.3.3 (4068)(For this question use annex 050-4372A)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.a) -14°Cb) -21°Cc) -11°Cd) -27°C

50.10.3.3 (4069)(For this question use annex 050-4373A)What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?a) 8°C colder than ISAb) 4°C warmer than ISAc) 8°C warmer than ISAd) 12°C colder than ISA

50.10.3.3 (4070)(For this question use annex 050-4374A)Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.a) 230/20b) 020/20c) 200/15d) 260/25

50.10.3.3 (4071)(For this question use annex 050-4375A)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200.a) -33°Cb) -30°Cc) -41°Cd) -49°C

50.10.3.3 (4072)(For this question use annex 050-4376A)Select from the map the average wind for the route Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.a) 360/80b) 030/70c) 190/75d) 340/90

50.10.3.3 (4073)(For this question use annex 050-4377A)Select from the map the average temperature for the route Geneva -Stockholm at FL 260.a) -47°Cb) -51°Cc) -55°Cd) -63°C

50.10.3.3 (4074)(For this question use annex 050-4378A)On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?a) Rome - Frankfurtb) Hamburg - Osloc) Tunis - Romed) Copenhagen - Helsinki

50.10.3.3 (4075)8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France, the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt.What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?a) Winter: OVC base 500 FT/AGL, summer SCT base 3000 FT/AGL.b) Winter: clear sky, summer BKN CB base 1500 FT/AGL.c) Winter: BKN base 2500 FT/AGL, summer BKN base 3500 FT/AGL.d) Winter: SCT base 3000 FT/AGL, summer OVC base 500 FT/AGL.

50.10.3.3 (4076)(For this question use annex 050-4379A)Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located?a) FL 310b) FL 350c) FL 250d) FL 280

50.10.3.3 (4077)(For this question use annex 050-4380A)If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?a) Scattered thunderstormsb) Flight largely in cloud, no turbulencec) Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flightd) CAT for the first half of the flight

50.10.3.3 (4078)(For this question use annex 050-4381A)Which of the following statements is true?a) The front to the north of Frankfurt is moving north-east at about 5 ktb) The jet stream above Italy has a maximum speed of 120 km/hc) Thunderclouds have formed over the Iberian peninsula extending to some 25000 metersd) There is no significant cloud above Rome

50.10.3.3 (4079)(For this question use annex 050-4382A)On which of these routes would you not

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have to worry about turbulence at FL 340?a) Shannon - Hamburgb) Zurich - Romec) Zurich - Athensd) Rome - Berlin

50.10.3.3 (4080)(For this question use annex 050-4383A)If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?a) Largely free of cloud, moderate icing half way along the routeb) Cloud most of the way, little chance of CATc) Scattered thunderstormsd) Out of cloud throughout the flight

50.10.3.3 (4081)(For this question use annex 050-4384A)Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?a) 145 ktb) 340 ktc) 95 ktd) 140 km/h

50.10.3.3 (4082)(For this question use annex 050-4385A)Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at FL 300?a) Zurich - Romeb) London - Zurichc) Zurich - Copenhagend) Paris - Bordeaux

50.10.3.3 (4083)(For this question use annex 050-4386A)If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?a) Constantly in the stratosphereb) Constantly in the troposherec) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphered) In the stratosphere for part of time

50.10.3.3 (4084)(For this question use annex 050-4387A)Which of these statements is true?a) Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over Franceb) Freezing level above Madrid is higher than FL 120c) The front to the north of London is moving southd) Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid

50.10.3.3 (4085)(For this question use annex 050-4388A)On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 180?a) Hamburg - Stockholmb) Zurich - Madrid

c) Zurich - Hamburgd) Zurich - Vienna

50.10.3.3 (4086)A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied ina) SWC and SIGMETb) TAF and METARc) METAR and SIGMETd) TAF and SIGMET

50.10.3.5 (4087)What units are used to report vertical wind shear?a) kt/100 FT.b) kt.c) m/100 FT.d) m/sec.

50.10.3.6 (4088)Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?a) SIGMET.b) ATIS.c) SPECI.d) TAF.

50.10.3.6 (4089)In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?a) Marked mountain waves.b) Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.c) Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.d) A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.

61.1.1.0 (4090)The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately :a) 23.5°b) 25.3°c) 27.5°d) 66.5°

61.1.1.0 (4091)Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day?a) 66°b) 68°c) 72°d) 62°

61.1.1.0 (4092)In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the

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Apparent Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?a) February and Novemberb) March and Septemberc) June and Decemberd) April and August

61.1.1.0 (4093)What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the horizon at some time during the year?a) 23°b) 45°c) 66°d) 0°

61.1.1.0 (4094)Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S).At which time of year is the relationship between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?a) Spring equinox and autumn equinoxb) Summer solstice and spring equinoxc) summer solstice and winter solsticed) Winter solstice and autumn equinox

61.1.1.0 (4095)At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)?a) Beginning of Januaryb) End of Marchc) Beginning of Julyd) End of June

61.1.1.0 (4096)At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?a) Beginning of Julyb) End of Decemberc) Beginning of Januaryd) End of September

61.1.1.0 (4097)Seasons are due to the:a) inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic planeb) Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sunc) Earth's rotation on its polar axisd) variable distance between Earth and Sun

61.1.2.0 (4098)An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are?a) 45°00'N 172°38'Eb) 53°20'N 169°22W

c) 45°00'N 169°22Wd) 53°20'N 172°38'E

61.1.2.0 (4099)The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is:a) 7.8°b) 9°c) 15.6°d) 5.2°

61.1.2.0 (4100)Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°WWhat will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025°W?a) 060°06'Sb) 060°11'Sc) 059°49'Sd) 060°00'S

61.1.2.0 (4101)What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?a) 2 HR 30 MINb) 1 HR 15 MINc) 1 HR 45 MINd) 5 HR 00 MIN

61.1.2.0 (4102)A Rhumb line is :a) a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angleb) the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projectionc) any straight line on a Lambert projectiond) a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection

61.1.2.0 (4103)A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B (61°S 148°W). What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B?a) It increases by 6°b) It decreases by 6°c) It increases by 3°d) It decreases by 3°

61.1.2.0 (4104)What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W?a) 093°48.5'Wb) 093°54.0'Wc) 093°53.1'Wd) 094°12.0'W

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61.1.2.0 (4105)Given: value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the Poles?a) 6 356.9b) 6 378.4c) 6 367.0d) 6 399.9

61.1.2.0 (4106)Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E. Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of 225°(T).The coordinates of position B are:a) 01°11'S 128°49'Eb) 01°11'N 131°11'Ec) 01°11'S 131°11'Ed) 01°11'N 128°49'E

61.1.2.0 (4107)In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N, 050°00'W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly:a) a rhumb line trackb) the constant average drift routec) the great-circle routed) a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart

61.1.2.0 (4108)The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N, 010°00'W) and position B (48°30'N, 015°00'W) is approximately:a) 315b) 330c) 300d) 345

61.1.2.0 (4109)The diameter of the Earth is approximately:a) 12 700 kmb) 6 350 kmc) 18 500 kmd) 40 000 km

61.1.2.0 (4110)The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:a) 45° North and Southb) 60° North and Southc) 90° North and Southd) 0° North and South (equator)

61.1.2.0 (4111)The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:

a) 5 400 NMb) 10 800 kmc) 2 700 NMd) 10 800 NM

61.1.2.0 (4112)Given:Position A 45°N, ?°EPosition B 45°N, 45°15'EDistance A-B = 280 NMB is to the East of ARequired: longitude of position A?a) 38°39'Eb) 49°57'Ec) 51°51'Ed) 40°33'E

61.1.2.0 (4113)If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:a) 960 ktb) 240 ktc) 550 ktd) 480 kt

61.1.2.0 (4114)An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on route to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?a) 279°b) 288°c) 261°d) 270°

61.1.2.0 (4115)An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active.On route AB, the true track:a) increases by 5°b) varies by 10°c) decreases by 6°d) varies by 4°

61.1.2.0 (4116)The circumference of the earth is approximately:a) 21600 NMb) 43200 NMc) 5400 NMd) 10800 NM

61.1.2.0 (4117)The Great Circle bearing of 'B' (70°S 060°E), from 'A' (70° S 030° W), is approximately:a) 135°(T)b) 150°(T)

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c) 090°(T)d) 315°(T)

61.1.2.0 (4118)At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian equal to one NM (1852 m) correct?a) 45°b) 0°c) 90°d) 30°

61.1.2.0 (4119)An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total distance travelled is?a) 3720 NMb) 5420 NMc) 1788 NMd) 2040 NM

61.1.2.0 (4120)Given :A is N55° 000°B is N54° E010°The average true course of the great circle is 100°.The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:a) 100°b) 096°c) 104°d) 107°

61.1.2.0 (4121)The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately:a) 10 800 NMb) 18 706 NMc) 20 000 NMd) 34 641 NM

61.1.2.0 (4122)Given:The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are:N48°50' E002°16.5'The coordinates of the antipodes are :a) S48°50' W177°43.5'b) S48°50' E177°43.5'c) S41°10' W177°43.5'd) S41°10' E177°43.5'

61.1.2.0 (4123)Given:Position 'A' is N00° E100°, Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'.What is the position of 'B'?a) S01°40' E097°07'b) N01°40' E097°07'c) S01°40' E101°40'd) N01°40' E101°40'

61.1.3.0 (4124)The duration of civil twilight is the time:a) between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizonb) agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutesc) needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°d) between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizon

61.1.3.0 (4125)On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:a) 0743 UTCb) 0243 UTCc) 2143 UTCd) 0523 UTC

61.1.3.0 (4126)What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W at 2200 UTC?a) 1345b) 2200c) 615d) 815

61.1.3.0 (4127)The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 UTC, is :a) 1738:40 previous dayb) 0621:20 previous dayc) 1738:40 same dayd) 0621:20 same day

61.1.3.0 (4128)5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of:a) 80°05'b) 81°10'c) 75°00'd) 78°45'

61.1.3.0 (4129)(For this question use annex 061-2304A)The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG (Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is:a) 1413b) 930c) 113d) 2230

61.1.3.0 (4130)(For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061-2305B) When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard Time in Algeria is:a) 800b) 1200c) 1300d) 700

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61.1.3.0 (4131)(For this question use annex 061-2325A to 061-2325D)An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 Standard Time on 30 April local date. After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN it lands at Los Angeles (California). What is the Standard Time and local date of arrival (assume summer time rules apply)?a) 1715 on 30 Aprilb) 1215 on 1 Mayc) 1315 on 1 Mayd) 1615 on 30 April

61.1.3.0 (4132)(For this question use annex 061-2326A to 061-2326D)When it is 0600 Standard Time in Queensland (Australia) the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is:a) 1000b) 1200c) 200d) 600

61.1.3.0 (4133)The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the:a) inclination of the ecliptic to the equatorb) earth's rotationc) relative speed of the sun along the eclipticd) gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth

61.1.3.0 (4134)What is the meaning of the term ""standard time"" ?a) It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a countryb) It is the time zone system applicable only in the USAc) It is an expression for local mean timed) It is another term for UTC

61.1.3.0 (4135)Civil twilight is defined by :a) sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizonb) sun altitude is 12° below the celestial horizonc) sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizond) sun upper edge tangential to horizon

61.1.4.0 (4136)Given: true track is 348°, drift 17° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4°E. What is the compass heading?a) 033°b) 007°c) 359°d) 337°

61.1.4.0 (4137)An Agonic line is a line that connects:a) positions that have 0° variation

b) positions that have the same variationc) points of equal magnetic dipd) points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength

61.1.4.0 (4138)Isogonic lines connect positions that have:a) the same variationb) 0° variationc) the same elevationd) the same angle of magnetic dip

61.1.4.0 (4139)Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:a) Magnetic North and Compass Northb) True North and Magnetic Northc) True North and Compass Northd) the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field

61.1.4.0 (4140)The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called :a) variationb) deviationc) compass errord) drift

61.1.4.0 (4141)Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:a) compass headingb) true headingc) magnetic coursed) magnetic track

61.1.4.0 (4142)Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have:a) the same grivationb) the same horizontal magnetic field strengthc) the same variationd) O° magnetic dip

61.1.4.0 (4143)The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called:a) isogonalsb) isotachsc) isogrivesd) isoclines

61.1.4.0 (4144)A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that :a) True North is East of Magnetic North

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b) True North is West of Magnetic Northc) Compass North is East of Magnetic Northd) Compass North is West of Magnetic North

61.1.4.0 (4145)The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called:a) compass deviationb) compass errorc) magnetic variationd) alignment error

61.1.4.0 (4146)The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface where:a) a freely suspended compass needle will stand verticalb) isogonals convergec) a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontald) the value of magnetic variation equals 90°

61.1.5.0 (4147)The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is:a) 300 NMb) 450 NMc) 600 NMd) 150 NM

61.1.5.0 (4148)An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04°00'N 030°00'W :600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West.The final position of the aircraft is:a) 04°00'N 029°58'Wb) 04°00'N 030°02'Wc) 04°00'N 030°00'Wd) 03°58'N 030°02'W

61.1.5.0 (4149)What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60°00'N 030°00'W?South for 3600 NM, East for 3600 NM, North for 3600 NM, West for 3600 NM.The final position of the aircraft is:a) 60°00'N 090°00'Wb) 60°00'N 030°00'Ec) 59°00'N 060°00'Wd) 59°00'N 090°00'W

61.1.5.0 (4150)An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a constant true track of 270º at a ground speed of 120 kt. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 HR?a) N40º 00´ E064º 20´b) N40º 00´ E070º 30´

c) N40º 00´ E060º 00´d) N40º 00´ E068º 10´

61.1.5.0 (4151)A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 180°E/W.The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately:a) 1000b) 1222c) 540d) 804

61.1.5.0 (4152)An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km.On completion of the flight the longitude will be:a) 000°40'Eb) 005°15'Ec) 002°10'Wd) 000°15'E

61.1.5.0 (4153)The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 'x' is 900 NM.What is the longitude of 'x'?a) 170°Wb) 140°Wc) 145°Ed) 175°E

61.1.5.0 (4154)An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km.On completion of the flight the latitude will be:a) 03°50'Sb) 04°10'Sc) 04°30'Sd) 09°05'S

61.1.5.0 (4155)An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/HR. What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR?a) 02°00'Nb) 12°15'Nc) 22°00'Nd) 03°50'N

61.1.5.0 (4156)An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/HR.What will be its latitude after 3 HR?a) 02°00'Sb) 12°15'Sc) 22°00'Sd) 03°50'S

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61.1.5.0 (4157)Given : Position 'A' N60 W020,Position 'B' N60 W021, Position 'C' N59 W020. What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?a) 30 NM and 60 NMb) 52 NM and 60 NMc) 60 NM and 30 NMd) 60 NM and 52 NM

61.2.1.0 (4158)An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), where YYR VOR (53°30'N 060°15'W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at YYR.What is the radial from YYR?a) 028°b) 208°c) 031°d) 332°

61.2.1.0 (4159)When is the magnetic compass most effective?a) About midway between the magnetic polesb) In the region of the magnetic South Pole.c) In the region of the magnetic North Pole.d) On the geographic equator

61.2.1.0 (4160)What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ?a) 90°b) 45°c) 60°d) 0°

61.2.1.0 (4161)The value of magnetic variation:a) has a maximum of 180°b) must be 0° at the magnetic equatorc) varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° Westd) cannot exceed 90°

61.2.1.0 (4162)Isogonals converge at the:a) North and South geographic and magnetic polesb) Magnetic equatorc) North magnetic pole onlyd) North and South magnetic poles only

61.2.1.0 (4163)A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an:a) agonic lineb) aclinic line

c) isogonald) isotach

61.2.1.0 (4164)The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field:a) is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50°N and 50°Sb) weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic polesc) weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic poled) is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°

61.2.1.0 (4165)Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation. The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to:a) magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or decreaseb) magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase.c) a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease.d) an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase.

61.2.1.0 (4166)The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the:a) blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth's surfaceb) red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth's surfacec) blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth's surfaced) red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth's surface

61.2.1.0 (4167)Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct?a) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dipb) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the agonic line is the line of zero magnetic dipc) An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip, the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dipd) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the aclinic connects places with the same magnetic field strength

61.2.1.0 (4168)Which of the following statements concerning the earth's magnetic field is completely correct?a) The blue pole of the earth's magnetic field is situated in North Canadab) At the earth's magnetic equator, the inclination varies depending on whether the geograhic equator is north or south of the magnetic equatorc) The earth's magnetic field can be classified as transient, semi-permanent or permanentd) Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component

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61.2.1.0 (4169)The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies:a) directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic fieldb) directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic fieldc) inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic fieldd) inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field

61.2.1.0 (4170)Isogonals are lines of equal :a) magnetic variation.b) compass deviation.c) pressure.d) wind velocity.

61.2.1.0 (4171)At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:a) varies slowly over timeb) depends on the type of compass installedc) depends on the magnetic headingd) depends on the true heading

61.2.2.0 (4172)When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to:a) indicate a turn towards the northb) lag behind the turning rate of the aircraftc) indicate a turn towards the southd) to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft

61.2.2.0 (4173)When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn :a) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the southb) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the southc) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the northd) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

61.2.2.0 (4174)An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read:a) less than 060°b) 060°c) more than 060°d) more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used

61.2.2.0 (4175)When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will:a) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effectb) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect

c) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effectd) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect

61.2.2.0 (4176)When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn :a) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the northb) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the southc) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the northd) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south

61.2.2.0 (4177)An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read:a) more than 225°b) 225°c) less than 225°d) more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used

61.2.2.0 (4178)When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:a) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the northb) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the southc) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the northd) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south

61.2.2.0 (4179)Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass?a) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudesb) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudesc) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudesd) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes

61.2.2.0 (4180)At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a direct reading compass :a) indicates the correct headingb) overreads the headingc) underreads the headingd) indicates a turn to the south

61.2.2.0 (4181)Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from:a) hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field, whilst under constructionb) exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal operation

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c) the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth's magnetic fieldd) the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms

61.2.2.0 (4182)Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere, it can be said that :a) on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the Northb) on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the Southc) on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the Southd) on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent turn to the North

61.2.2.0 (4183)In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:a) a decrease in headingb) an increase in headingc) an apparent turn to the Southd) a heading of East

61.2.2.0 (4184)The purpose of compass check swing is to:a) measure the angle between Magnetic North and Compass Northb) cancel out the vertical component of the earth's magnetic fieldc) cancel out the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic fieldd) cancel out the effects of the magnetic fields found on board the aeroplane

61.2.3.0 (4185)In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimised by:a) mounting the detector unit in the wingtipb) the use of repeater cardsc) positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraftd) using a vertically mounted gyroscope

61.2.3.0 (4186)A direct reading compass should be swung when:a) there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitudeb) there is a large change in magnetic longitudec) the aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently movedd) the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings

61.2.3.0 (4187)The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:a) keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wiresb) using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquidc) using long magnetsd) pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly

61.2.3.0 (4188)The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when:a) synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elementsb) compensating for deviationc) setting local magnetic variationd) setting the 'heading' pointer

61.2.3.0 (4189)Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as compared with a standby compass?a) It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass sensitivityb) It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from the detector unit, existing aircraft equipmentc) It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously suspending the detector unitd) It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and power is always available from sources within the aircraft

61.2.3.0 (4190)Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass?a) After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has been struck by lightningb) Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitudec) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceabilityd) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content

61.2.3.0 (4191)The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is:a) to minimise the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuitsb) to maximise the units exposure to the earth's magnetic fieldc) to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft for ease of maintenanced) by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by the aircraft strucure

61.2.3.0 (4192)The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to:a) reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuitsb) facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth's magnetic fieldc) place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errorsd) place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft

61.2.3.0 (4193)The main advantage of a remote indicating compass over a direct reading compass

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is that it:a) senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridianb) has less moving partsc) requires less maintenanced) is able to magnify the earth's magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy

61.3.1.0 (4194)A chart has the scale 1 : 1 000 000. From A to B on the chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch equals 2.54 centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is :a) 20.6b) 38.1c) 44.5d) 54.2

61.3.1.0 (4195)The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the:a) scale at the standard parallelsb) mean scale between pole and equatorc) mean scale between the parallels of the secant coned) scale at the equator

61.3.1.0 (4196)The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:a) Stereographical projectionb) Direct Mercator projectionc) Gnomonic projectiond) Lambert conformal projection

61.3.1.0 (4197)A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1 : 3 704 000. What is the scale at latitude 60° S?a) 1 : 1 852 000b) 1 : 7 408 000c) 1 : 3 208 000d) 1 : 185 200

61.3.1.0 (4198)The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the chart is 1:1 600 000.The actual distance between these two point is approximately:a) 36.30 NMb) 370.00 NMc) 67.20 NMd) 3.69 NM

61.3.1.0 (4199)The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20' N.The constant of the cone for this chart is:a) 0.39b) 0.60

c) 0.92d) 0.42

61.3.1.0 (4200)On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians:a) is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of originb) is zero throughout the chartc) varies as the secant of the latituded) equals earth convergency at the standard parallels

61.3.1.0 (4201)A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is:a) 1 : 6 000 000b) 1 : 3 000 000c) 1 : 5 000 000d) 1 : 1 000 000

61.3.1.0 (4202)On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a certain length represents 70 NM. At latitude 30° North, the same length represents approximately:a) 86 NMb) 57 NMc) 70 NMd) 81 NM

61.3.1.0 (4203)On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N is 8 cm.The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:a) 1 : 3 500 000b) 1 : 4 750 000c) 1 : 7 000 000d) 1 : 6 000 000

61.3.1.0 (4204)On a Mercator chart, the scale:a) varies as 1/cosine of latitude (1/cosine= secant)b) varies as the sine of the latitudec) is constant throughout the chartd) varies as 1/2 cosine of the co-latitude

61.3.1.0 (4205)In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:a) 1 : 1 300 000b) 1 : 700 000c) 1 : 130 000d) 1 : 7 000 000

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61.3.1.0 (4206)At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000 000.What is the scale at the equator?a) 1 : 6 000 000b) 1 : 3 000 000c) 1 : 3 500 000d) 1 : 1 500 000

61.3.1.0 (4207)What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 5 000 000 at the equator?a) 133 mmb) 106 mmc) 167 mmd) 72 mm

61.3.1.0 (4208)The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?a) 1 : 25 000 000b) 1 : 30 000 000c) 1 : 18 000 000d) 1 : 21 000 000

61.3.1.0 (4209)A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels:a) the scale is only correct along the standard parallelsb) shows all great circles as straight linesc) the scale is only correct at parallel of origind) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines

61.3.1.0 (4210)The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle between longitudes 010°E and 030°W is 30°, is:a) 0.75b) 0.40c) 0.50d) 0.64

61.3.1.0 (4211)The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?a) 23°18'b) 66°42'c) 68°25'd) 21°35'

61.3.1.0 (4212)On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:a) 1 : 5 000 000

b) 1 : 3 750 000c) 1 : 2 000 000d) 1 : 6 000 000

61.3.1.0 (4213)The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at latitude 65° North is 3.75 inches. The chart scale at this latitude approximates:a) 1 : 5 000 000b) 1 : 6 000 000c) 1 : 2 500 000d) 1 : 3 000 000

61.3.1.0 (4214)On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted scale is correct:a) along the two standard parallelsb) in the area between the standard parallelsc) along the parallel of origind) along the prime meridian

61.3.1.0 (4215)The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?a) 51°45'b) 52°05'c) 80°39'd) 38°15'

61.3.1.0 (4216)At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° apart is 5 inches. The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates:a) 1 : 6 000 000b) 1 : 8 000 000c) 1 : 3 000 000d) 1 : 2 500 000

61.3.1.0 (4217)On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:a) parallel of originb) north and south limits of the chartc) standard parallelsd) Equator

61.3.1.0 (4218)On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the:a) meridian of tangencyb) Equator, parallel of origin and prime verticalc) datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to itd) prime meridian and the equator

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61.3.1.0 (4219)Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000?a) 130b) 150c) 329d) 43

61.3.1.0 (4220)Transverse Mercator projections are used for:a) maps of large north/south extentb) maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areasc) radio navigation charts in equatorial areasd) plotting charts in equatorial areas

61.3.1.0 (4221)On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10°N, a distance of :a) 122.3 NMb) 117.7 NMc) 124.2 NMd) 118.2 NM

61.3.1.0 (4222)On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance of :a) 110 NMb) 73.5 NMc) 78 NMd) 45 NM

61.3.1.0 (4223)On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the:a) meridians of tangencyb) equator and parallel of originc) meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to itd) prime meridian and the equator

61.3.1.0 (4224)On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as:a) ellipsesb) straight linesc) hyperbolic linesd) parabolas

61.3.1.0 (4225)An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce:a) charts of the great circle route between two points

b) radio navigational charts in equatorial regionsc) topographical maps of large east/ west extentd) plotting charts in equatorial regions

61.3.1.0 (4226)The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'.The cone constant of this chart is approximatively :a) 0.44b) 0.90c) 0.66d) 0.18

61.3.1.0 (4227)On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:a) 1 : 1 850 000b) 1 : 1 000 000c) 1 : 185 000d) 1 : 18 500 000

61.3.1.0 (4228)Given:Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000. The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately :a) 40 NMb) 74 NMc) 100 NMd) 4 NM

61.3.1.0 (4229)On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:a) 1 : 2 780 000b) 1 : 278 000c) 1 : 5 560 000d) 1 : 556 000

61.3.1.0 (4230)At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1 : 5 000 000. The length on the chart between 'C' N60° E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is:a) 17.8 cmb) 16.2 cmc) 35.6 cmd) 19.2 cm

61.3.1.0 (4231)Assume a Mercator chart.The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1 : 9 260 000.What is the latitude of A and B?a) 60° N or Sb) 30° N or S

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c) 0°d) 45° N or S

61.3.1.0 (4232)A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM.The scale of this chart is approximately :a) 1 : 7 000 000b) 1 : 3 500 000c) 1 : 6 000 000d) 1 : 5 000 000

61.3.1.0 (4233)The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart :a) is constant along a parallel of latitudeb) is constant along a meridian of longitudec) is constant across the whole mapd) varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude

61.3.1.0 (4234)A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is :a) cylindricalb) conicalc) sphericald) concentric

61.3.2.0 (4235)Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are :a) parallel straight lines unequally spacedb) parallel straight lines equally spacedc) arcs of concentric circles equally spacedd) straight lines converging above the pole

61.3.2.0 (4236)A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes:a) is approximately a Great Circleb) is a Loxodromic linec) is a Rhumb lined) can only be a parallel of latitude

61.3.2.0 (4237)On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:a) straight lineb) small circle concave to the nearer polec) spiral curved) curve convex to the nearer pole

61.3.2.0 (4238)On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:a) curves concave to the parallel of origin

b) straight lines regardless of distancec) curves concave to the pole of projectiond) straight lines within the standard parallels

61.3.2.0 (4239)On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:a) curve concave to the equatorb) complex curvec) curve convex to the equatord) straight line

61.3.2.0 (4240)The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal to:a) map convergenceb) earth convergencec) conversion angled) difference in longitude

61.3.2.0 (4241)The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:a) arcs of concentric circlesb) straight linesc) parabolic linesd) hyperbolic lines

61.3.2.0 (4242)Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:a) Rhumb linesb) Great circlesc) both Rhumb lines and Great circlesd) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

61.3.2.0 (4243)On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), with respect to the straight line drawn on the map between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°), the:a) great circle and rhumb line are to the southb) great circle and rhumb line are to the northc) great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the southd) rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south

61.3.2.0 (4244)On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are:a) parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight linesb) inclined, equally spaced, straight lines that meet at the nearer polec) parallel, unequally spaced, vertical straight linesd) inclined, unequally spaced, curved lines that meet at the nearer pole

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61.3.2.0 (4245)On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north or south poles?a) Direct Mercatorb) Lambert's conformalc) Transverse Mercatord) Polar stereographic

61.3.2.0 (4246)Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct?a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equatorb) They are all curves concave to the equatorc) They approximate to straight lines between the standard parallelsd) They are all curves convex to the equator

61.3.2.0 (4247)On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart :a) reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallelsb) is constant between, and expands outside, the standard parallelsc) expands between, and reduces outside, the standard parallelsd) is constant throughout the chart

61.3.2.0 (4248)Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole ?a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight lineb) Any straight line is a great circlec) They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Poled) They are curves convex to the Pole

61.3.2.0 (4249)Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart?a) Curves concave to the Poleb) Ellipses around the Polec) Curves convex to the Poled) Straight lines

61.3.2.0 (4250)What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?a) 1.0b) 0.866c) 0.5d) 0.0

61.3.2.0 (4251)On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are:

a) straight linesb) curves concave to the equatorc) ellipsesd) curves convex to the equator

61.3.3.0 (4252)Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points :a) having the same elevation above sea levelb) with the same variationc) having the same longituded) of equal latitude

61.3.3.0 (4253)On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is approximately:a) 030° (T)b) 330° (T)c) 150° (T)d) 210° (T)

61.3.3.0 (4254)On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S 065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W).The true course on departure from position A is approximately:a) 225°b) 250°c) 135°d) 315°

61.3.3.0 (4255)Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80°N 000°) and B (70°N 102°W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035°W.At point B, the true course is:a) 203°b) 023°c) 247°d) 305°

61.3.3.0 (4256)Given:Magnetic heading 311°Drift angle 10° leftRelative bearing of NDB 270°What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?a) 221°b) 208°c) 211°d) 180°

61.3.3.0 (4257)A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A, course at B is 055°(T). What is the longitude of B?a) 34°W

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b) 36°Wc) 38°Wd) 41°W

61.3.3.0 (4258)A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A, course at B is 092°(T). What is the longitude of B?a) 011°Eb) 009°36'Ec) 008°Ed) 019°E

61.3.3.0 (4259)(For this question use annex 061-12400A)What are the average magnetic course and distance between INGO VOR (N6350 W01640) and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W 00115)?a) 131° - 494 NMb) 118° - 440 NMc) 117° - 494 NMd) 130° - 440 NM

61.3.3.0 (4260)(For this question use annex 061-12401A)What are the average magnetic course and distance between position N6000 W02000 and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W 00115)?a) 105° - 562 NMb) 091° - 480 NMc) 091° - 562 NMd) 105° - 480 NM

61.3.3.0 (4261)(For this question use annex 061-12402A)What are the initial true course and distance between positions N5800 W01300 and N6600 E00200?a) 036° - 638 NMb) 029° - 570 NMc) 042° - 635 NMd) 032° - 470 NM

61.3.3.0 (4262)(For this question use annex 061-12403A)An aircraft on radial 315° at a range of 150 NM from MYGGENES NDB (N6206 W00732) is at position:a) N6320 W01205b) N6020 W00405c) N6345 W01125d) N6040 W00320

61.3.3.0 (4263)(For this question use annex 061-12404A)An aircraft on radial 110° at a range of 120 NM from SAXAVORD VOR (N6050 W00050) is at position:a) N6027 E00307

b) N6127 W00443c) N6010 E00255d) N6109 E00255

61.3.3.0 (4264)(For this question use annex 061-12405A)Which of the following beacons is 185 NM from AKRABERG (N6124 W00640)?a) SUMBURGH (N5955 W00115)b) SAXAVORD (N6050 W00050)c) KIRKWALL (N5858 W 00254)d) STORNOWAY (N5815 W00617)

61.3.3.0 (4265)(For this question refer to annex 061-12608A)What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417 W01005?a) EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDBb) Belmullet aerodromec) Carnmore aerodromed) Clonbullogue aerodrome

61.3.3.0 (4266)(For this question refer to annex 061-12609A)Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7?a) civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting pointb) civil airport: VOR: non-compulsory reporting pointc) VOR: DME: NDB:compulsory reporting pointd) VOR: DME: NDB: ILS

61.3.3.0 (4267)(For this question refer to annex 061-12610A)Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5318.0 W00626.9?a) military airport: VOR: DMEb) civil airport: VOR: DMEc) military airport: VOR: NDBd) VOR: DME: danger area

61.3.3.0 (4268)(For this question refer to annex 061-12611A)Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5416.7 W00836.0?a) civil airport: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting pointb) VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting pointc) civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting pointd) VOR: DME: NDB: non-compulsory reporting point

61.3.3.0 (4269)(For this question refer to annex 061-12612A)Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5318.1 W00856.5?a) civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting pointb) VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting pointc) civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting pointd) VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point

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61.3.3.0 (4270)(For this question refer to annex 061-12613A)Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5211 W00705?a) civil airport: NDBb) VOR: NDBc) civil airport: ILSd) NDB: ILS

61.3.3.0 (4271)(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR/DME?a) 1b) 2c) 6d) 7

61.3.3.0 (4272)(For this question refer to annex 061-12615A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a DME?a) 2b) 3c) 5d) 6

61.3.3.0 (4273)(For this question refer to annex 061-12616A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?a) 3b) 5c) 6d) 2

61.3.3.0 (4274)(For this question refer to annex 061-12617A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an NDB?a) 4b) 6c) 2d) 3

61.3.3.0 (4275)(For this question use annex 061-12576A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?a) 270° - 90 NMb) 278° - 89 NMc) 268° - 91 NMd) 272° - 89 NM

61.3.3.0 (4276)(For this question use annex 061-12577A)What is the average track (°T) and

distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)?a) 327° - 124 NMb) 335° - 128 NMc) 325° - 126 NMd) 320° - 127 NM

61.3.3.0 (4277)(For this question use annex 061-12578A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6 W00738.7)?a) 035° - 80 NMb) 042° - 83 NMc) 036° - 81 NMd) 044° - 82 NM

61.3.3.0 (4278)(For this question use annex 061-12579A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°.What is the aircraft position?a) N5220 W00920b) N5230 W00910c) N5210 W00910d) N5210 W00930

61.3.3.0 (4279)(For this question use annex 061-12580A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317°.What is the aircraft position?a) N5210 W00910b) N5118 W00913c) N5205 W00915d) N5215 W00917

61.3.3.0 (4280)(For this question use annex 061-12590A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7Aircraft position N5230 W00820Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?a) SHA 131°CRK 017°b) SHA 304°CRK 189°c) SHA 312°CRK 197°d) SHA 124°CRK 009°

61.3.3.0 (4281)(For this question use annex 061-12591A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7Aircraft position N5230 W00930Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?a) SHA 248°CRK 325°b) SHA 068°CRK 145°c) SHA 060°CRK 138°d) SHA 240°CRK 137°

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61.3.3.0 (4282)(For this question use annex 061-12592A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1Aircraft position N5330 W00800Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?a) SHA 042°CON 138°b) SHA 213°CON 310°c) SHA 033°CON 130°d) SHA 221°CON 318°

61.3.3.0 (4283)(For this question use annex 061-12593A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1Aircraft position N5320 W00950Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?a) SHA 325°CON 235°b) SHA 137°CON 046°c) SHA 317°CON 226°d) SHA 145°CON 055°

61.3.3.0 (4284)(For this question use annex 061-12594A)Given:SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM,Aircraft heading 270°(M),Both DME distances increasing.What is the aircraft position?a) N5200 W00935b) N5215 W00940c) N5215 W00745d) N5235 W00750

61.3.3.0 (4285)(For this question use annex 061-12595A)Given:SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM,Aircraft heading 270°(M),Both DME distances decreasing.What is the aircraft position?a) N5215 W00805b) N5205 W00915c) N5215 W00915d) N5225 W00810

61.3.3.0 (4286)(For this question use annex 061-12596A)Given:CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM,SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM,Aircraft heading 270°(M),Both DME distances decreasing.What is the aircraft position?a) N5310 W00830b) N5252 W00923c) N5307 W00923d) N5355 W00825

61.3.3.0 (4287)(For this question use annex 061-12597A)Given:CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM,SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM,Aircraft heading 090°(M),Both DME distances increasing.What is the aircraft position?a) N5255 W00815b) N5250 W0030

c) N5305 W00930d) N5310 W00820

61.3.3.0 (4288)(For this question use annex 061-12598A)Given:CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM,CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM,Aircraft heading 270°(M),Both DME distances decreasing.What is the aircraft position?a) N5330 W00820b) N5343 W00925c) N5335 W00925d) N5337 W00820

61.3.3.0 (4289)(For this question refer to annex 061-12599A)Given:CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7)Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4)What is the CRK radial and DME distance when overhead Kerry aerodrome?a) 307° - 43 NMb) 119° - 44 NMc) 127° - 45 NMd) 299° - 42 NM

61.3.3.0 (4290)(For this question refer to annex 061-12600A)Given:SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754)What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Birr aerodrome?a) 068° - 41 NMb) 248° - 42 NMc) 060° - 42 Nmd) 240° - 41 NM

61.3.3.0 (4291)(For this question refer to annex 061-12601A)Given:SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928)What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Connemara aerodrome?a) 333° - 37 NMb) 154° - 38 NMc) 326° - 37 NMd) 146° - 38 NM

61.3.3.0 (4292)(For this question refer to annex 061-12602A)Given:CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917)What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome?a) 265° - 17 NMb) 077° - 18 NMc) 257° - 17 NMd) 086° - 18 NM

61.3.3.0 (4293)(For this question use annex 061-12560A)What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330 W00930?

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a) 233° - 35 NMb) 165° - 27 NMc) 335° - 43 NMd) 025° - 38 NM

61.3.3.0 (4294)(For this question use annex 061-12561A)What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710?a) 236° - 44 NMb) 223° - 36 NMc) 320° - 44 NMd) 333° - 36 NM

61.3.3.0 (4295)(For this question use annex 061-12562A)What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5440 W00730?a) 278° - 44 NMb) 090° - 46 NMc) 278° - 10 NMd) 098° - 45 NM

61.3.3.0 (4296)(For this question use annex 061-12563A)What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500 W00700?a) 315° - 34 NMb) 296° - 65 NMc) 126° - 33 NMd) 222° - 48 NM

61.3.3.0 (4297)(For this question use annex 061-12564A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5)?a) 278° - 90 NMb) 090° - 91 NMc) 270° - 89 NMd) 098° - 90 NM

61.3.3.0 (4298)(For this question use annex 061-12565A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?a) 357° - 89 NMb) 169° - 91 NMc) 349° - 90 NMd) 177° - 92 NM

61.3.3.0 (4299)(For this question use annex 061-12566A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0)?

a) 142° - 95 NMb) 315° - 94 NMc) 135° - 96 NMd) 322° - 95 NM

61.3.3.0 (4300)(For this question refer to annex 061-12635A)What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 15?a) Aeronautical ground lightb) Visual reference pointc) Hazard to aerial navigationd) Lighthouse

61.3.3.0 (4301)(For this question refer to annex 061-12636A)What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 16?a) Lightshipb) Off-shore helicopter landing platformc) Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tided) Off-shore lighthouse

61.3.3.0 (4302)(For this question refer to annex 061-12637A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light?a) 15b) 16c) 10d) 14

61.3.3.0 (4303)(For this question refer to annex 061-12638A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship?a) 16b) 10c) 12d) 14

61.3.3.0 (4304)(For this question refer to annex 061-12624A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an uncontrolled route?a) 4b) 5c) 2d) 3

61.3.3.0 (4305)(For this question refer to annex 061-12625A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary of advisory airspace?a) 5b) 2

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c) 3d) 4

61.3.3.0 (4306)(For this question refer to annex 061-12626A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-compulsory reporting point?a) 6b) 7c) 8d) 15

61.3.3.0 (4307)(For this question refer to annex 061-12627A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory reporting point?a) 7b) 8c) 15d) 6

61.3.3.0 (4308)(For this question refer to annex 061-12628A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point?a) 8b) 15c) 6d) 7

61.3.3.0 (4309)(For this question refer to annex 061-12629A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted obstacle?a) 9b) 10c) 11d) 12

61.3.3.0 (4310)(For this question refer to annex 061-12630A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted obstacle?a) 10b) 11c) 12d) 9

61.3.3.0 (4311)(For this question refer to annex 061-12631A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles?a) 11b) 12c) 13d) 9

61.3.3.0 (4312)(For this question refer to annex 061-12632A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of lighted obstacles?a) 12b) 9c) 10d) 11

61.3.3.0 (4313)(For this question refer to annex 061-12633A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high unlighted obstacle?a) 13b) 14c) 9d) 11

61.3.3.0 (4314)(For this question refer to annex 061-12634A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high lighted obstacle?a) 14b) 10c) 12d) 13

61.3.3.0 (4315)(For this question use annex 061-12567A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9)?a) 026° - 71 NMb) 018° - 153 NMc) 206° - 71 NMd) 198° - 72 NM

61.3.3.0 (4316)(For this question use annex 061-12568A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)?a) 025° - 70 NMb) 197° - 71 NMc) 205° - 71 NMd) 017° - 70 NM

61.3.3.0 (4317)(For this question use annex 061-12569A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)?a) 316° - 96 NMb) 262° - 86 NMc) 128° - 99 NMd) 308° - 98 NM

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61.3.3.0 (4318)(For this question use annex 061-12570A)What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)?a) 057° - 126 NMb) 089° - 95 NMc) 229° - 125 NMd) 237° - 130 NM

61.3.3.0 (4319)(For this question use annex 061-12571A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)?a) 063° - 101 NMb) 071° - 100 NMc) 113° - 97 NMd) 293° - 98 NM

61.3.3.0 (4320)(For this question use annex 061-12572A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)?a) 011° - 47 NMb) 020° - 46 NMc) 348° - 46 NMd) 191° - 45 NM

61.3.3.0 (4321)(For this question use annex 061-12573A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7)?a) 286° - 81 NMb) 294° - 80 NMc) 075° - 81 NMd) 277° - 83 NM

61.3.3.0 (4322)(For this question use annex 061-12574A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)?a) 336° - 137 NMb) 344° - 139 NMc) 156° - 136 NMd) 164° - 138 NM

61.3.3.0 (4323)(For this question use annex 061-12575A)What is the average track (°T) and distance between SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1)?a) 002° - 72 NMb) 010° - 71 NM

c) 358° - 72 NMd) 006° - 71 NM

61.3.3.0 (4324)(For this question refer to annex 061-12603A)Given:CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?a) 124° - 46 NMb) 116° - 47 NMc) 296° - 46 NMd) 304° - 47 NM

61.3.3.0 (4325)(For this question refer to annex 061-12604A)What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 W00931?a) KERRY/Farranfore aerodromeb) Waterford NDBc) Connemara aerodromed) Punchestown aerodrome

61.3.3.0 (4326)(For this question refer to annex 061-12605A)What feature is shown on the chart at position N5212 W00612?a) TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDBb) WTD NDBc) KERRY/Farranfore aerodromed) Clonbullogue aerodrome

61.3.3.0 (4327)(For this question refer to annex 061-12606A)What feature is shown on the chart at position N5311 W00637?a) Punchestown aerodromeb) Connemara aerodromec) KERRY/Farranfore aerodromed) Clonbullogue aerodrome

61.3.3.0 (4328)(For this question refer to annex 061-12607A)What feature is shown on the chart at position N5351 W00917?a) Castlebar aerodromeb) Connaught aerodromec) Connemara aerodromed) Brittas Bay aerodrome

61.3.3.0 (4329)(For this question refer to annex 061-12618A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a basic, non-specified, navigation aid?a) 5b) 6c) 2d) 3

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61.3.3.0 (4330)(For this question refer to annex 061-12619A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a TACAN?a) 6b) 7c) 1d) 2

61.3.3.0 (4331)(For this question refer to annex 061-12620A)Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC?a) 7b) 1c) 3d) 6

61.3.3.0 (4332)(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight Information Region (FIR) boundary?a) 1b) 3c) 4d) 5

61.3.3.0 (4333)(For this question refer to annex 061-12623A)Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control Zone boundary?a) 3b) 4c) 5d) 2

61.3.3.0 (4334)At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME station.At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 NM.Magnetic variation is zero.The true track and ground speed are :a) 085° - 226 ktb) 090° - 232 ktc) 080° - 226 ktd) 088° - 232 kt

61.3.3.0 (4335)Given:An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M),2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station, 2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station.At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the station is :a) the same as it was at 2254 UTCb) greater than it was at 2254 UTCc) randomly different than it was at 2254 UTCd) less than it was at 2254 UTC

61.3.3.0 (4336)(For this question use annex 061-12581A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033°.What is the aircraft position?a) N5230 W00800b) N5225 W00805c) N5220 W00750d) N5240 W00750

61.3.3.0 (4337)(For this question use annex 061-12582A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047°.What is the aircraft position?a) N5220 W00750b) N5215 W00755c) N5210 W00750d) N5205 W00755

61.3.3.0 (4338)(For this question use annex 061-12583A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050°.What is the aircraft position?a) N5210 W00800b) N5155 W00810c) N5205 W00805d) N5200 W00800

61.3.3.0 (4339)(For this question use annex 061-12584A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°/35 NM.What is the aircraft position?a) N5230 W00800b) N5300 W00945c) N5225 W00805d) N5250 W00950

61.3.3.0 (4340)(For this question use annex 061-12585A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 165°/36 NM.What is the aircraft position?a) N5210 W00830b) N5208 W00840c) N5315 W00915d) N5317 W00908

61.3.3.0 (4341)(For this question use annex 061-12586A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 232°/32 NM.What is the aircraft position?a) N5220 W00930b) N5305 W00815c) N5228 W00935d) N5303 W00810

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61.3.3.0 (4342)(For this question use annex 061-12587A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 025°/49 NM.What is the aircraft position?a) N5330 W00830b) N5328 W00820c) N5155 W00915d) N5200 W0925

61.3.3.0 (4343)(For this question use annex 061-12588A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 048°/22 NM.What is the aircraft position?a) N5300 W0830b) N5258 W00825c) N5225 W00917d) N5228 W00920

61.3.3.0 (4344)(For this question use annex 061-12589A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7Aircraft position N5220 W00910Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?a) SHA 212°CRK 328°b) SHA 025°CRK 141°c) SHA 205°CRK 321°d) SHA 033°CRK 149°

61.3.3.0 (4345)A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1 : 1 000 000 at 60°N. The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:a) 66.7 cmb) 33.4 cmc) 38.5 cmd) 36.0 cm

61.3.3.0 (4346)Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an angle of 35° with longitude 026°E. Average magnetic variation between 'A' and 'B' is 3°E.What is the average magnetic course from 'A' to 'B'?a) 322°b) 328°c) 032°d) 038°

61.3.3.0 (4347)Given:Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at equator,Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm.What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'?a) 12 NMb) 21 NMc) 22 NMd) 14 NM

61.3.3.0 (4348)(For this question use annex 061-12549A)What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220 W00810?a) 030° - 33 NMb) 048° - 40 NMc) 014° - 33 NMd) 220° - 40 NM

61.3.3.0 (4349)(For this question use annex 061-12550A)What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210 W00920?a) 311° - 38 NMb) 350° - 22 NMc) 295° - 38 NMd) 170° - 22 NM

61.3.3.0 (4350)(For this question use annex 061-12551A)What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230 W00750?a) 039° - 48 NMb) 024° - 43 NMc) 023° - 48 NMd) 017° - 43 NM

61.3.3.0 (4351)(For this question use annex 061-12552A)What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140 W00730?a) 113° - 38 NMb) 104° - 76 NMc) 293° - 39 NMd) 106° - 38 NM

61.3.3.0 (4352)(For this question use annex 061-12553A)What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300 W00940?a) 309° - 33 NMb) 057° - 27 NMc) 293° - 33 NMd) 324° - 17 NM

61.3.3.0 (4353)(For this question use annex 061-12554A)What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5310 W00830?a) 035° - 30 NMb) 070° - 58 NMc) 207° - 31 NMd) 019° - 31 NM

61.3.3.0 (4354)(For this question use annex 061-12555A)What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220 W00810?

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a) 139° - 35 NMb) 129° - 46 NMc) 132° - 36 NMd) 212° - 26 NM

61.3.3.0 (4355)(For this question use annex 061-12556A)What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)to position N5210 W00920?a) 214° - 37 NMb) 354° - 34 NMc) 198° - 37 NMd) 346° - 34 NM

61.3.3.0 (4356)(For this question use annex 061-12557A)What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430 W00900?a) 358° - 36 NMb) 214° - 26 NMc) 049° - 45 NMd) 169° - 35 NM

61.3.3.0 (4357)(For this question use annex 061-12558A)What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5400 W00800?a) 088° - 29 NMb) 320° - 8 NMc) 094° - 64 NMd) 260° - 30 NM

61.3.3.0 (4358)(For this question use annex 061-12559A)What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340 W00820?a) 140° - 23 NMb) 119° - 42 NMc) 311° - 22 NMd) 240° - 24 NM

61.4.1.0 (4359)Given the following:True track: 192°Magnetic variation: 7°EDrift angle: 5° leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track?a) 190°b) 194°c) 204°d) 180°

61.4.1.0 (4360)Given the following:Magnetic heading: 060°Magnetic variation: 8°WDrift angle: 4° rightWhat is the true track?a) 056°b) 064°

c) 048°d) 072°

61.4.1.0 (4361)Given: True track 180°Drift 8°RCompass heading 195°Deviation -2°Calculate the variation?a) 21°Wb) 25°Wc) 5°Wd) 9°W

61.4.1.0 (4362)Given: True course 300°drift 8°Rvariation 10°Wdeviation -4° Calculate the compass heading?a) 306°b) 322°c) 294°d) 278°

61.4.1.0 (4363)Given:true track 352°variation 11° Wdeviation is -5°drift 10°R.Calculate the compass heading?a) 358°b) 346°c) 018°d) 025°

61.4.1.0 (4364)Given:true track 070°variation 30°Wdeviation +1°drift 10°RCalculate the compass heading?a) 089°b) 091°c) 100°d) 101°

61.4.1.0 (4365)Given: True course from A to B = 090°,TAS = 460 kt, W/V = 360/100kt,Average variation = 10°E,Deviation = -2°.Calculate the compass heading and GS?a) 069° - 448 ktb) 068° - 460 ktc) 078° - 450 ktd) 070° - 453 kt

61.4.1.0 (4366)Given: True course A to B = 250°Distance A to B = 315 NMTAS = 450 kt. W/V = 200°/60kt.ETD A = 0650 UTC.What is the ETA at B?a) 0736 UTCb) 0730 UTCc) 0810 UTCd) 0716 UTC

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61.4.1.0 (4367)Given: GS = 510 kt.Distance A to B = 43 NMWhat is the time (MIN) from A to B?a) 5b) 4c) 6d) 7

61.4.1.0 (4368)Given: GS = 122 kt.Distance from A to B = 985 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 8 HR 04 MINb) 7 HR 48 MINc) 7 HR 49 MINd) 8 HR 10 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4369)Given: GS = 236 kt.Distance from A to B = 354 NMWhat is the time from A to B?a) 1 HR 30 MINb) 1 HR 09 MINc) 1 HR 10 MINd) 1 HR 40 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4370)Given: GS = 435 kt.Distance from A to B = 1920 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 4 HR 25 MINb) 3 HR 25 MINc) 3 HR 26 MINd) 4 HR 10 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4371)Given: GS = 345 kt.Distance from A to B = 3560 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 10 HR 19 MINb) 10 HR 05 MINc) 11 HR 00 MINd) 11 HR 02 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4372)Given: GS = 480 kt.Distance from A to B = 5360 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 11 HR 10 MINb) 11 HR 06 MINc) 11 HR 07 MINd) 11 HR 15 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4373)Given: GS = 95 kt.Distance from A to B = 480 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 5 HR 03 MINb) 4 HR 59 MINc) 5 HR 00 MINd) 5 HR 08 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4374)Given: GS = 105 kt.Distance from A to B = 103 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 00 HR 59 MINb) 00 HR 57 MINc) 00 HR 58 MINd) 01 HR 01 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4375)Given: GS = 120 kt.Distance from A to B = 84 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 00 HR 42 MINb) 00 HR 43 MINc) 00 HR 44 MINd) 00 HR 45 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4376)Given: GS = 135 kt.Distance from A to B = 433 NM.What is the time from A to B?a) 3 HR 12 MINb) 3 HR 25 MINc) 3 HR 19 MINd) 3 HR 20 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4377)The ICAO definition of ETA is the:a) estimated time of arrival at destinationb) actual time of arrival at a point or fixc) estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fixd) estimated time en route

61.4.1.0 (4378)Given:Required course 045°(M),Variation is 15°E,W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt,CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere.What are the heading (°M) and GS?a) 055° and 147 ktb) 036° and 151 ktc) 052° and 154 ktd) 056° and 137 kt

61.4.1.0 (4379)Given:Course 040°(T),TAS is 120 kt,Wind speed 30 kt.Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:a) 130°b) 145°c) 115°d) 120°

61.4.2.0 (4380)How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt?a) 3.94b) 2.36c) 3.25d) 39.0

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61.4.2.0 (4381)Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL.What is the endurance?a) 4 HR 32 MINb) 3 HR 12 MINc) 3 HR 53 MINd) 2 HR 15 MIN

61.4.2.0 (4382)What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ?a) 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litresb) 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GALc) 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litresd) 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL

61.4.2.0 (4383)265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)a) 803 kgb) 862 kgc) 895 kgd) 940 kg

61.4.2.0 (4384)730 FT/MIN equals:a) 3.7 m/secb) 5.2 m/secc) 1.6 m/secd) 2.2 m/sec

61.4.2.0 (4385)How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ?a) 1 MIN 07 SECb) 1 MIN 55 SECc) 2 MIN 30 SECd) 0 MIN 34 SEC

61.4.2.0 (4386)An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?a) 160 ktb) 183 ktc) 209 ktd) 131 kt

61.4.2.0 (4387)An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215 NM?a) 50 MINb) 100 MINc) 90 MINd) 80 MIN

61.4.2.0 (4388)The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately:a) 136 ktb) 145 ktc) 210 ktd) 35 kt

61.4.2.0 (4389)Given:IAS 120 kt,FL 80,OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?a) 141 ktb) 102 ktc) 120 ktd) 132 kt

61.4.3.0 (4390)An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are:a) 192 kt, 7° rightb) 200 kt, 3.5° rightc) 192 kt, 7° leftd) 225 kt, 7° left

61.4.3.0 (4391)For a given track the:Wind component = +45 ktDrift angle = 15° leftTAS = 240 ktWhat is the wind component on the reverse track?a) -65 ktb) -55 ktc) -45 ktd) -35 kt

61.4.3.0 (4392)Given:Magnetic heading = 255°VAR = 40°WGS = 375 ktW/V = 235°(T) / 120 ktCalculate the drift angle?a) 7° leftb) 7° rightc) 9° leftd) 16° right

61.4.3.0 (4393)Given:True Heading = 180° TAS = 500 ktW/V 225° / 100 ktCalculate the GS?a) 435 ktb) 600 ktc) 535 ktd) 450 kt

61.4.3.0 (4394)Given:True heading = 310° TAS = 200 ktGS = 176 ktDrift angle 7° right.Calculate the W/V?a) 270° / 33 ktb) 360° / 33 kt

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c) 090° / 33 ktd) 180° / 33 kt

61.4.3.0 (4395)Given:True Heading = 090° TAS = 180 ktGS = 180 ktDrift 5° rightCalculate the W/V?a) 360° / 15 ktb) 190° / 15 ktc) 010° / 15 ktd) 180° / 15 kt

61.4.3.0 (4396)Given:True Heading = 090°TAS = 200 ktW/V = 220° / 30 kt.Calculate the GS?a) 220 ktb) 230 ktc) 180 ktd) 200 kt

61.4.3.0 (4397)Given: M 0.80, OAT -50°C, FL 330, GS 490 kt, VAR 20°W, Magnetic heading 140°, Drift is 11° Right. Calculate the true W/V?a) 020°/95 ktb) 025°/47 ktc) 200°/95 ktd) 025°/45 kt

61.4.3.0 (4398)Given: Compass Heading 090°, Deviation 2°W, Variation 12°E, TAS 160 kt.Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station, the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN. What is the W/V °(T)?a) 160°/50 ktb) 340°/25 ktc) 340°/98 ktd) 155°/25 kt

61.4.3.0 (4399)An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°. The W/V is 045° / 50kt.How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?a) 85 NMb) 88 NMc) 56 NMd) 176 NM

61.4.3.0 (4400)The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System:GS 520 kt,True HDG 090°,Drift angle 5° right,TAS 480 kt.SAT (static air temperature) -51°C.The W/V being experienced is:a) 320° / 60 ktb) 225° / 60 ktc) 220° / 60 ktd) 325° / 60 kt

61.4.3.0 (4401)The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°). What is the cross-wind component?a) 30 ktb) 24 ktc) 27 ktd) 21 kt

61.4.3.0 (4402)Given:TAS = 132 kt,True HDG = 257°W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 4°R - 165 ktb) 2°R - 166 ktc) 4°L - 167 ktd) 3°L - 166 kt

61.4.3.0 (4403)Given:TAS = 270 kt,True HDG = 270°,Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 6R - 259ktb) 6L - 256ktc) 6R - 251ktd) 8R - 259kt

61.4.3.0 (4404)Given:TAS = 270 kt,True HDG = 145°,Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 6°L - 256 ktb) 6°R - 251 ktc) 8°R - 261 ktd) 6°R - 259 kt

61.4.3.0 (4405)Given:TAS = 470 kt,True HDG = 317°W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle and GS?a) 5°L - 470 ktb) 3°R - 470 ktc) 5°L - 475 ktd) 5°R - 475 kt

61.4.3.0 (4406)Given:TAS = 140 kt,True HDG = 302°,W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle and GS?a) 16°L - 156 ktb) 9°R - 143 ktc) 9°L - 146 ktd) 18°R - 146 kt

61.4.3.0 (4407)Given:TAS = 290 kt,True HDG = 171°,W/V = 310°(T)/30ktCalculate the drift angle and GS?

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a) 4°L - 314 ktb) 4°R - 310 ktc) 4°R - 314 ktd) 4°L - 310 kt

61.4.3.0 (4408)Given:TAS = 485 kt,True HDG = 226°,W/V = 110°(T)/95kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 9°R - 533 ktb) 7°R - 531 ktc) 9°R - 433 ktd) 8°L - 435 kt

61.4.3.0 (4409)Given:TAS = 235 kt,HDG (T) = 076°W/V = 040/40kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 7R - 204 ktb) 7L - 269 ktc) 5L - 255 ktd) 5R - 207 kt

61.4.3.0 (4410)Given: TAS = 440 kt,HDG (T) = 349°W/V = 040/40kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 4L - 415 ktb) 2L - 420 ktc) 6L - 395 ktd) 5L - 385 kt

61.4.3.0 (4411)Given: TAS = 465 kt,HDG (T) = 124°,W/V = 170/80kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 8L - 415 ktb) 3L - 415 ktc) 4L - 400 ktd) 6L - 400 kt

61.4.3.0 (4412)Given: TAS = 95 kt,HDG (T) = 075°,W/V = 310/20kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 9R - 108 ktb) 10L - 104 ktc) 9L - 105 ktd) 8R - 104 kt

61.4.3.0 (4413)Given: TAS = 140 kt,HDG (T) = 005°,W/V = 265/25kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 10R - 146 ktb) 9R - 140 ktc) 11R - 142 ktd) 11R - 140 kt

61.4.3.0 (4414)Given: TAS = 190 kt,HDG (T) = 355°,W/V = 165/25kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 1L - 215 ktb) 1L - 225 ktc) 1R - 175 ktd) 1R - 165 kt

61.4.3.0 (4415)Given: TAS = 230 kt,HDG (T) = 250°,W/V = 205/10kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 2R - 223 ktb) 2L - 224 ktc) 1L - 225 ktd) 1R - 221 kt

61.4.3.0 (4416)Given: TAS = 205 kt,HDG (T) = 180°,W/V = 240/25kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 6L - 194 ktb) 7L - 192 ktc) 3L - 190 ktd) 4L - 195 kt

61.4.3.0 (4417)Given: TAS = 250 kt,HDG (T) = 029°,W/V = 035/45kt.Calculate the drift and GS?a) 1L - 205 ktb) 1R - 205 ktc) 1L - 265 ktd) 1R - 295 kt

61.4.3.0 (4418)Given: TAS = 132 kt,HDG (T) = 053°,W/V = 205/15kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 050 - 145 ktb) 057 - 144 ktc) 052 - 143 ktd) 051 - 144 kt

61.4.3.0 (4419)For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt. VAR is 13°E. Calculate the cross wind component?a) 22 ktb) 26 ktc) 15 ktd) 20 kt

61.4.3.0 (4420)Given:Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 kt. Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic). The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°. Variation is 17°E. Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit?a) 11 ktb) 18 kt

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c) 8 ktd) 15 kt

61.4.3.0 (4421)Given: Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt. Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M). Wind direction 100°(M)Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed?a) 33 ktb) 31 ktc) 26 ktd) 25 kt

61.4.3.0 (4422)Given:TAS = 472 kt,True HDG = 005°,W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 6°L - 487 ktb) 7°R - 491 ktc) 7°L - 491 ktd) 7°R - 487 kt

61.4.3.0 (4423)Given:TAS = 190 kt,True HDG = 085°,W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.Calculate the drift angle and GS?a) 8°L - 146 ktb) 7°L - 156 ktc) 4°L - 168 ktd) 4°L - 145 kt

61.4.3.0 (4424)Given: TAS = 220 kt,Magnetic course = 212 º, W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt,Calculate the GS?a) 186 ktb) 290 ktc) 246 ktd) 250 kt

61.4.3.0 (4425)Given: Magnetic track = 315 º, HDG = 301 º(M),VAR = 5ºW,TAS = 225 kt, The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN.Calculate the W/V(°T)?a) 190 º/63 ktb) 355 º/15 ktc) 195 º/61 ktd) 195 º/63 kt

61.4.3.0 (4426)Given:TAS = 370 kt,True HDG = 181°,W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.Calculate the true track and GS?a) 186 - 370 ktb) 176 - 370 ktc) 192 - 370 ktd) 189 - 370 kt

61.4.3.0 (4427)Given:TAS = 375 kt,True HDG = 124°,W/V = 130°(T)/55kt.Calculate the true track and GS?a) 123 - 320 ktb) 125 - 322 ktc) 126 - 320 ktd) 125 - 318 kt

61.4.3.0 (4428)Given:TAS = 125 kt,True HDG = 355°,W/V = 320°(T)/30kt.Calculate the true track and GS?a) 005 - 102 ktb) 345 - 100 ktc) 348 - 102 ktd) 002 - 98 kt

61.4.3.0 (4429)Given: TAS = 198 kt,HDG (°T) = 180,W/V = 359/25.Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?a) 180 - 223 ktb) 179 - 220 ktc) 181 - 180 ktd) 180 - 183 kt

61.4.3.0 (4430)Given: TAS = 135 kt,HDG (°T) = 278,W/V = 140/20ktCalculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 283 - 150 ktb) 279 - 152 ktc) 282 - 148 ktd) 275 - 150 kt

61.4.3.0 (4431)Given: TAS = 225 kt,HDG (°T) = 123°,W/V = 090/60kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 134 - 178 ktb) 134 - 188 ktc) 120 - 190 ktd) 128 - 180 kt

61.4.3.0 (4432)Given: TAS = 480 kt,HDG (°T) = 040°,W/V = 090/60kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 034 - 445 ktb) 028 - 415 ktc) 032 - 425 ktd) 036 - 435 kt

61.4.3.0 (4433)Given: TAS = 155 kt,HDG (T) = 216°,W/V = 090/60kt.Caslculate the Track (°T) and GS?

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a) 231 - 196 ktb) 224 - 175 ktc) 222 - 181 ktd) 226 - 186 kt

61.4.3.0 (4434)Given: TAS = 170 kt,HDG(T) = 100°,W/V = 350/30kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 109 - 182 ktb) 091 - 183 ktc) 103 - 178 ktd) 098 - 178 kt

61.4.3.0 (4435)Given: TAS = 90 kt,HDG (T) = 355°,W/V = 120/20kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 346 - 102 ktb) 006 - 95 ktc) 358 - 101 ktd) 359 - 102 kt

61.4.3.0 (4436)Given: TAS = 485 kt,HDG (T) = 168°,W/V = 130/75kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?a) 174 - 428 ktb) 173 - 424 ktc) 175 - 420 ktd) 175 - 432 kt

61.4.3.0 (4437)Given: TAS = 155 kt,Track (T) = 305°,W/V = 160/18kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 301 - 169 ktb) 305 - 169 ktc) 309 - 170 ktd) 309 - 141 kt

61.4.3.0 (4438)Given: TAS = 130 kt,Track (T) = 003°,W/V = 190/40kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 001 - 170 ktb) 002 - 173 ktc) 359 - 166 ktd) 357 - 168 kt

61.4.3.0 (4439)Given: TAS = 227 kt,Track (T) = 316°, W/V = 205/15kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 312 - 232 ktb) 311 - 230 kt

c) 313 - 235 ktd) 310 - 233 kt

61.4.3.0 (4440)Given: TAS = 465 kt,Track (T) = 007°,W/V = 300/80kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 358 - 428 ktb) 001 - 432 ktc) 000 - 430 ktd) 357 - 430 kt

61.4.3.0 (4441)Given: TAS = 200 kt,Track (T) = 073°,W/V = 210/20kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 077 - 214 ktb) 079 - 211 ktc) 075 - 213 ktd) 077 - 210 kt

61.4.3.0 (4442)Given: TAS = 200 kt,Track (T) = 110°,W/V = 015/40kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 099 - 199 ktb) 121 - 207 ktc) 121 - 199 ktd) 097 - 201 kt

61.4.3.0 (4443)Given: TAS = 270 kt,Track (T) = 260°,W/V = 275/30kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?a) 262 - 241 ktb) 262 - 237 ktc) 264 - 241 ktd) 264 - 237 kt

61.4.3.0 (4444)Given: True HDG = 307°,TAS = 230 kt,Track (T) = 313°,GS = 210 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 260/30ktb) 257/35ktc) 255/25ktd) 265/30kt

61.4.3.0 (4445)Given:True HDG = 233°,TAS = 480 kt,Track (T) = 240°,GS = 523 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 110/75ktb) 115/70ktc) 110/80ktd) 105/75kt

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61.4.3.0 (4446)Given: True HDG = 133°,TAS = 225 kt,Track (T) = 144°,GS = 206 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 075/45ktb) 070/40ktc) 070/45ktd) 075/50kt

61.4.3.0 (4447)Given: True HDG = 074°,TAS = 230 kt,Track (T) = 066°,GS = 242 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 180/35ktb) 180/30ktc) 185/35ktd) 180/40kt

61.4.3.0 (4448)Given: True HDG = 206°,TAS = 140 kt,Track (T) = 207°,GS = 135 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 180/05ktb) 000/05ktc) 000/10ktd) 180/10kt

61.4.3.0 (4449)Given:True HDG = 054°,TAS = 450 kt,Track (T) = 059°,GS = 416 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 010/50ktb) 005/50ktc) 010/55ktd) 010/45kt

61.4.3.0 (4450)Given: True HDG = 145°,TAS = 240 kt,Track (T) = 150°,GS = 210 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 115/35ktb) 360/35ktc) 180/35ktd) 295/35kt

61.4.3.0 (4451)Given:True HDG = 002°,TAS = 130 kt,Track (T) = 353°,GS = 132 kt.Calculate the W/V?a) 095/20ktb) 090/15ktc) 090/20ktd) 095/25kt

61.4.3.0 (4452)Given: True HDG = 035°,TAS = 245 kt,Track (T) = 046°,GS = 220 kt.Calculate the W/V?

a) 340/50ktb) 335/45ktc) 335/55ktd) 340/45kt

61.4.3.0 (4453)Given: course required = 085° (T),Forecast W/V 030/100kt,TAS = 470 kt,Distance = 265 NM.Calculate the true HDG and flight time?a) 075°, 39 MINb) 076°, 34 MINc) 096°, 29 MINd) 095°, 31 MIN

61.4.3.0 (4454)Given:Runway direction 083°(M),Surface W/V 035/35kt.Calculate the effective headwind component?a) 24 ktb) 27 ktc) 31 ktd) 34 kt

61.4.3.0 (4455)Given:For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60°, Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds?a) 20 kt and 40 ktb) 12 kt and 38 ktc) 15 kt and 43 ktd) 18 kt and 50 kt

61.4.3.0 (4456)Given: Runway direction 230°(T), Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt. Calculate the effective cross-wind component?a) 31 ktb) 36 ktc) 21 ktd) 26 kt

61.4.3.0 (4457)Given:Runway direction 210°(M),Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt. Calculate the cross-wind component?a) 10 ktb) 19 ktc) 16 ktd) 13 kt

61.4.3.0 (4458)Given:Runway direction 305°(M),Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt. Calculate the cross-wind component?a) 21 ktb) 24 kt

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c) 27 ktd) 18 kt

61.4.3.0 (4459)Given:Magnetic track = 075°,HDG = 066°(M),VAR = 11°E,TAS = 275 ktAircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN.Calculate the true W/V °?a) 340°/45 ktb) 320°/50 ktc) 210°/15 ktd) 180°/45 kt

61.4.3.0 (4460)Given: Magnetic track = 210°,Magnetic HDG = 215°,VAR = 15°E,TAS = 360 kt,Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN.Calculate the true W/V?a) 265°/50 ktb) 195°/50 ktc) 235°/50 ktd) 300°/30 kt

61.4.3.0 (4461)Given:An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°),The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.,TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading (°M) should be :a) 328°b) 322°c) 316°d) 326°

61.4.3.0 (4462)Given:FL120, OAT is ISA standard, CAS is 200 kt,Track is 222°(M),Heading is 215°(M),Variation is 15°W.Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN.What is the W/V?a) 050°(T) / 70 kt.b) 040°(T) / 105 kt.c) 055°(T) / 105 kt .d) 065°(T) / 70 kt.

61.4.4.0 (4463)A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:a) set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railwayb) fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtainedc) fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtainedd) fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained

61.4.5.0 (4464)An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain, its height is approximately:a) 2210 FTb) 680 FT

c) 1890 FTd) 3640 FT

61.4.5.0 (4465)Given:FL 350,Mach 0.80,OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)?a) 461 kt , LSS 576 ktb) 237 kt, LSS 296 ktc) 490 kt, LSS 461 ktd) 461 kt , LSS 296 kt

61.4.5.0 (4466)Given: Pressure Altitude 29000 FT, OAT -55°C. Calculate the Density Altitude?a) 27500 FTb) 31000 FTc) 33500 FTd) 26000 FT

61.4.5.0 (4467)Given:TAS = 485 kt,OAT = ISA +10°C,FL 410.Calculate the Mach Number?a) 0.825b) 0.90c) 0.85d) 0.87

61.4.5.0 (4468)What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?a) -50°Cb) -56°Cc) -66°Cd) -81°C

61.4.5.0 (4469)Given: TAS 487kt, FL 330, Temperature ISA + 15. Calculate the MACH Number?a) 0.81b) 0.84c) 0.76d) 0.78

61.4.5.0 (4470)Given: FL250, OAT -15 ºC, TAS 250 kt.Calculate the Mach No.?a) 0.40b) 0.42c) 0.44d) 0.39

61.4.5.0 (4471)Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)a) 1680 FT

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b) 320 FTc) 680 FTd) - 320 FT

61.4.5.0 (4472)Given :True altitude 9000 FT,OAT -32°C,CAS 200 kt.What is the TAS?a) 220 ktb) 215 ktc) 200 ktd) 210 kt

61.4.5.0 (4473)Given:Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airportElevation of airport 720 FT.QNH is 1003 hPa.OAT at FL150 -5°C.What is the true altitude of the aircraft?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)a) 15 280 FTb) 15 840 FTc) 14 160 FTd) 14 720 FT

61.4.5.0 (4474)An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C).Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :a) 6 400 FTb) 6 800 FTc) 6 000 FTd) 4 000 FT

61.4.6.0 (4475)(For this question use annex 061-1818A)Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.Its position is now approximately:a) 80°00'N 080°Eb) 78°45'N 087°Ec) 79°15'N 074°Ed) 70°15'N 080°E

61.4.6.0 (4476)Given:A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian. Grid track 344°, Longitude 115°00'W,Calculate the true course?a) 229°b) 099°c) 279°d) 049°

61.4.6.0 (4477)(For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data for 1215 UTC)1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI reads 178°, range 135 NM.Calculate the

aircraft position at 1215 UTC?a) 40°55'N 027°55'Wb) 40°50'N 027°40'Wc) 41°00'N 028°10'Wd) 41°05'N 027°50'W

61.4.6.0 (4478)(For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data for 1300 UTC)1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W) TAS 450 kt,Forecast W/V 360°/30kt.Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?a) 1348b) 1344c) 1341d) 1354

61.4.7.0 (4479)For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed ""out"" of 385 kt, a ground speed ""back"" of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:a) 1685 NMb) 1532 NMc) 930 NMd) 1865 NM

61.4.7.0 (4480)Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt.On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt.On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt.What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the the Point of Equal Time (PET)?a) 530 NMb) 470 NMc) 455 NMd) 500 NM

61.4.7.0 (4481)Given:AD = Air distance GD = Ground distanceTAS = True AirspeedGS = GroundspeedWhich of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone?a) GD = (AD X GS)/TASb) GD = (AD - TAS)/TASc) GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GSd) GD = TAS/(GS X AD)

61.4.7.0 (4482)An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NMTrue airspeed 470 ktMean wind component 'out' +55 ktMean wind component 'back' -75 ktThe ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:a) 1657b) 1744

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c) 1846d) 1721

61.4.7.0 (4483)An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NMTrue airspeed 470 ktMean wind component 'out' +55 ktMean wind component 'back' -75 ktSafe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:a) 2141 NMb) 1611 NMc) 1759 NMd) 2844 NM

61.4.7.0 (4484)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NMGroundspeed 'out' 420 ktGroundspeed 'back' 500 ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:a) 193 MINb) 163 MINc) 173 MINd) 183 MIN

61.4.7.0 (4485)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 420 ktMean groundspeed 'back' 500 ktSafe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:a) 1940 NMb) 1908 NMc) 1736 NMd) 1630 NM

61.4.7.0 (4486)An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NMTrue airspeed 480 ktMean wind component 'out' -90 ktMean wind component 'back' +75 ktThe ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:a) 1752b) 1756c) 1820d) 1742

61.4.7.0 (4487)An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NMTrue airspeed 480 ktMean wind component 'out' -90 ktMean wind component 'back' +75 ktSafe endurance 10:00 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'Q' is:a) 2290 NMb) 2370 NMc) 1310 NMd) 1510 NM

61.4.7.0 (4488)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NMGroundspeed 'out' 430 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385 ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:a) 130 MINb) 145 MINc) 162 MINd) 181 MIN

61.4.7.0 (4489)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NMGroundspeed 'out' 430 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385 ktSafe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:a) 1490 NMb) 1664 NMc) 1698 NMd) 1422 NM

61.4.7.0 (4490)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NMGroundspeed 'out' 365 ktGroundspeed 'back' 480 ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:a) 219 MINb) 290 MINc) 197 MINd) 167 MIN

61.4.7.0 (4491)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NMGroundspeed 'out' 365 ktGroundspeed 'back' 480 ktSafe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:a) 290 MINb) 219 MINc) 197 MINd) 209 MIN

61.4.7.0 (4492)Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NMGroundspeed 'out' 435 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385 ktThe time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:a) 114 MINb) 110 MINc) 106 MINd) 102 MIN

61.4.7.0 (4493)Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NMGroundspeed 'out' 435 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385 ktSafe endurance 9 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q' and 'R' is:a) 1838 NMb) 1313 NMc) 1467 NMd) 1642 NM

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61.4.7.0 (4494)Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NMGroundspeed 'out' 370 ktGroundspeed 'back' 300 ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:a) 263 MINb) 288 MINc) 323 MINd) 238 MIN

61.4.7.0 (4495)An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is:a) 97 NMb) 115 NMc) 105 NMd) 84 NM

61.4.7.0 (4496)From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is :a) inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed backb) proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed backc) inversely proportional to the total distance to god) inversely proportional to ground speed back

61.4.7.0 (4497)Given:Distance A to B is 360 NM. Wind component A - B is -15 kt,Wind component B - A is +15 kt,TAS is 180 kt.What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?a) 165 NMb) 195 NMc) 180 NMd) 170 NM

61.5.1.0 (4498)A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:a) 160°b) 220°c) 310°d) 130°

61.5.1.0 (4499)During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:a) groundspeedb) positionc) trackd) drift

61.5.1.0 (4500)An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar

display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the magnetic variation 12°W?a) 054°b) 318°c) 234°d) 038°

61.5.1.0 (4501)A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:a) 30 NM and 240°b) 40 NM and 110°c) 40 NM and 290°d) 30 NM and 060°

61.5.1.0 (4502)An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic variation 17°W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?a) 268°b) 302°c) 088°d) 122°

61.5.1.0 (4503)A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°. The W/V is calm, aircraft GS 180 kt.What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?a) 9 NMb) 12 NMc) 3 NMd) 6 NM

61.5.1.0 (4504)An island is observed to be 15° to the left.The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W).The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:a) 88b) 122c) 268d) 302

61.5.1.0 (4505)An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E?a) 046°b) 086°

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c) 226°d) 026°

61.5.1.0 (4506)An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W?a) 059°b) 101°c) 239°d) 329°

61.5.1.0 (4507)An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E?a) 220°b) 130°c) 160°d) 190°

61.5.1.0 (4508)An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 020° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W?a) 145°b) 195°c) 205°d) 325°

61.5.2.0 (4509)An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt.The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:a) 6500 FT/MINb) 650 FT/MINc) 4500 FT/MINd) 3900 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4510)Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?a) 26.7 NMb) 19.2 NMc) 38.4 NMd) 16.0 NM

61.5.2.0 (4511)An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to

cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:a) 960 FT/MINb) 860 FT/MINc) 890 FT/MINd) 920 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4512)An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:a) 69 NMb) 79 NMc) 49 NMd) 59 NM

61.5.2.0 (4513)An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:a) 1340 FT/MINb) 1390 FT/MINc) 1240 FT/MINd) 1290 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4514)An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?a) 53 NMb) 58 NMc) 63 NMd) 68 NM

61.5.2.0 (4515)An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately:a) 1650 FT/MINb) 2400 FT/MINc) 1000 FT/MINd) 1550 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4516)At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at which to commence descent is:a) 445b) 448

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c) 451d) 454

61.5.2.0 (4517)An aircraft at FL330 is rerquired to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100. The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?a) 1950 FT/MINb) 1650 FT/MINc) 1750 FT/MINd) 1850 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4518)An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?a) 1900 FT/MINb) 2000 FT/MINc) 1700 FT/MINd) 1800 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4519)An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required?a) 1800 FT/MINb) 1900 FT/MINc) 1600 FT/MINd) 1700 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4520)What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS?a) Mach number increases, TAS increasesb) Mach number remains constant, TAS increasesc) Mach number decreases, TAS decreasesd) Mach number increases, TAS remains constant

61.5.2.0 (4521)Given:TAS = 197 kt, True course = 240°,W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM.What is the approximate rate of descent?a) 1400 FT/MINb) 800 FT/MINc) 950 FT/MINd) 1500 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4522)Given:ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG,GS = 150 kt.What is the approximate rate of descent?a) 900 FT/MIN

b) 1000 FT/MINc) 700 FT/MINd) 800 FT/MIN

61.5.2.0 (4523)Given:aircraft height 2500 FT,ILS GP angle 3°.At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP?a) 8.3 NMb) 7.0 NMc) 13.1 NMd) 14.5 NM

61.5.3.0 (4524)A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: radial 180°+/- 1°, distance = 200 NM. What is the approximate error?a) +/- 3.5 NMb) +/- 1 NMc) +/- 2 NMd) +/- 7 NM

61.5.3.0 (4525)An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned. Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to:a) M0.74b) M0.76c) M0.78d) M0.80

61.5.3.0 (4526)An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:a) 159 ktb) 165 ktc) 169 ktd) 174 kt

61.5.3.0 (4527)An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the reporting point, what Mach Number is required?a) M0.81b) M0.73c) M0.75d) M0.79

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61.5.3.0 (4528)An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the reporting point the IAS should be reduced by:a) 20 ktb) 25 ktc) 30 ktd) 15 kt

61.5.3.0 (4529)An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same position is 270°. Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840?a) 40 NMb) 50 NMc) 60 NMd) 30 NM

61.5.3.0 (4530)The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60 NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at position B?a) 6° Rightb) 8° Rightc) 2° Leftd) 4° Right

61.5.3.0 (4531)Given:Distance A to B = 120 NM,After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course.What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point 'B'?a) 8° rightb) 6° rightc) 4° rightd) 8° left

61.5.3.0 (4532)An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs 'A' at 1000 UTC.After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned time.Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?a) 1206b) 1203c) 1153d) 1157

61.5.3.0 (4533)An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC.After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time.Using the actual GS

experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?a) 1333 UTCb) 1401 UTCc) 1347 UTCd) 1340 UTC

61.5.3.0 (4534)An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC.After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time.Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?a) 1115 UTCb) 1110 UTCc) 1044 UTCd) 1050 UTC

61.5.3.0 (4535)Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,Planned GS 315 kt,ATD 1000 UTC,1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track.What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?a) 340 ktb) 360 kt.c) 300 ktd) 320 kt.

61.5.3.0 (4536)Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM,Planned GS 315 kt,ATD 1130 UTC,1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track.What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?a) 355 ktb) 375 ktc) 395 ktd) 335 kt

61.5.3.0 (4537)Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM,Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course.What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?a) 15° Rightb) 9° Rightc) 6° Rightd) 18° Right

61.5.3.0 (4538)Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM,Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course.What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?a) 12° Leftb) 16° Leftc) 4° Leftd) 8° Left

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61.5.3.0 (4539)Given :ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTCGS is 441 kt TAS is 491 kt At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC.The reduction to TAS will be approximately:a) 40 ktb) 90 ktc) 75 ktd) 60 kt

61.5.3.0 (4540)The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM,To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead of 2°W.Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint?a) 14 NMb) 7 NMc) 0 NMd) 21 NM

61.5.3.0 (4541)Given:Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information:TAS 360 kt, W/V 330°/80kt, Compass heading 237°, Deviation on this heading -5°, Variation 19°W.What is the average ground speed for this leg?a) 403 ktb) 354 ktc) 373 ktd) 360 kt

61.5.4.0 (4542)(For this question use annex 061-9437A) Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'A' to 'B'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?a) 268° - 1114 UTCb) 282° - 1128 UTCc) 282° - 1114 UTCd) 268° - 1128 UTC

61.5.4.0 (4543)(For this question use annex 061-9438A)Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'C' to 'D'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?a) HDG 193° - ETA 1239 UTCb) HDG 188° - ETA 1229 UTCc) HDG 193° - ETA 1249 UTCd) HDG 183° - ETA 1159 UTC

61.5.4.0 (4544)(For this question use annex 061-9439A)Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'E' to 'F'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?a) HDG 105° - ETA 1205 UTCb) HDG 095° - ETA 1155 UTCc) HDG 106° - ETA 1215 UTCd) HDG 115° - ETA 1145 UTC

61.5.4.0 (4545)(For this question use annex 061-9440A)Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'G' to 'H'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?a) HDG 344° - ETA 1336 UTCb) HDG 354° - ETA 1326 UTCc) HDG 034° - ETA 1336 UTCd) HDG 344° - ETA 1303 UTC

61.5.4.0 (4546)(For this question use annex 061-9441A)Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'J' to 'K'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?a) HDG 337° - ETA 1422 UTCb) HDG 320° - ETA 1412 UTCc) HDG 337° - ETA 1322 UTCd) HDG 320° - ETA 1432 UTC

61.5.4.0 (4547)(For this question use annex 061-9442A)Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'L' to 'M'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?a) HDG 075° - ETA 1502 UTCb) HDG 064° - ETA 1449 UTCc) HDG 075° - ETA 1452 UTCd) HDG 070° - ETA 1459 UTC

61.5.4.0 (4548)The flight log gives the following data :""True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass heading""The right solution, in the same order, is :a) 119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116°b) 115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121°c) 117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°d) 125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117°

61.5.4.0 (4549)(For this question use appendix )Given:TAS is120 kt. ATA 'X' 1232 UTC,ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC,ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC. What is ETA 'Z'?a) 1302 UTCb) 1257 UTCc) 1300 UTCd) 1303 UTC

61.5.5.0 (4550)The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide:a) continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance managementb) manual navigation guidance and automatic performance managementc) continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual performance managementd) both manual navigation guidance and performance management

61.5.5.0 (4551)Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to

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enter flight plan routeing and performance parameters?a) Multi-Function Control Display Unitb) Flight Management Computerc) Inertial Reference Systemd) Flight Director System

61.5.5.0 (4552)What indication, if any, is given in the B737-400 Flight Management System if radio updating is not available?a) A warning message is displayed on the EHSI and MFDUb) A warning message is displayed on the IRS displaysc) A warning message is displayed on the Flight Director Systemd) No indication is given so long as the IRS positions remain within limits

61.5.5.0 (4553)What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical information stored in the FMC In the B737-400 Flight Management System?a) 28 daysb) one calendar monthc) 3 calendar monthsd) 14 days

61.5.5.0 (4554)In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during preflight to:a) manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch informationb) automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch informationc) manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch informationd) manually initialize the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information

61.5.5.0 (4555)How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?a) DME/DMEb) DME/DME or VOR/DMEc) DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearingsd) VOR/DME range and bearing

61.5.5.0 (4556)In which of the following situations is the FMC present position of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System likely to be least accurate?a) Just after take-offb) At top of climbc) At top of descentd) On final approach

61.5.5.0 (4557)What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?a) Alerting and Advisoryb) Urgent and Routine

c) Priority and Alertingd) Urgent and Advisory

61.5.5.0 (4558)Which of the following can all be stored as five letter waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?a) Waypoint names, navaid identifiers, runway numbers, airport ICAO identifiersb) Airway names, navaid identifiers, airport names, waypoint code numbersc) Waypoint names, navaid frequencies, runway codes, airport ICAO identifiersd) Waypoint names, navaid positions, airport ICAO identifiers, airport names

61.5.5.0 (4559)Which of the following lists all the methods that can be used to enter 'Created Waypoints' into the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?a) Identifier bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing, along-track displacement, latitude and longitudeb) Identifier bearing/distance, place bearing/place distance, along/across-track displacement, latitude and longitudec) Identifier bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing, latitude and longitude, waypoint named) Identifier bearing/distance, place distance/place distance, along-track displacement, latitude and longitude

61.5.5.0 (4560)Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?a) IDENTb) INITIALc) POS INITd) PERF INIT

61.5.5.0 (4561)Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?a) IDENT - POS INIT - RTEb) POS INIT - RTE - IDENTc) IDENT - RTE - DEPARTUREd) POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE

61.6.1.0 (4562)With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:a) required to provide a W/V read outb) not requiredc) required for Polar navigationd) required for rhumb line navigation

61.6.1.0 (4563)The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of:a) aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolisb) gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift

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c) vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport driftd) movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation

61.6.1.0 (4564)Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as ""strapdown"". This means that:a) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structureb) only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structurec) gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraftd) gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference

61.6.1.0 (4565)In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device:a) with damping and a period of 84.4 MINb) without damping and a period of 84.4 MINc) without damping and a period of 84.4 SECd) with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC

61.6.1.0 (4566)The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:a) the horizontal planeb) the vertical planec) the vertical and horizontal planed) any plane

61.6.1.0 (4567)The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:a) velocity along the local meridianb) groundspeedc) change latituded) latitude

61.6.1.0 (4568)Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give:a) distance east/westb) vehicle longitudec) distance north/southd) velocity east/west

61.6.1.0 (4569)In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:a) by integrating measured accelerationb) from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)c) from TAS and W/V from RNAV datad) by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively

61.6.1.0 (4570)One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used to correct this error?a) ditherb) cavity rotationc) zero dropd) beam lock

61.6.1.0 (4571)The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is:a) velocity along the local parallel of latitudeb) change of longitudec) vehicle longituded) departure

61.6.1.0 (4572)Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is completely correct?a) There is little or no 'spin up' time and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forcesb) The platform is kept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather than mechanically but it has a longer 'spin up' timec) It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forcesd) There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not suffer from 'lock in' error

61.6.1.0 (4573)The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/ Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to:a) both gyro-stabilised platform and 'strapdown' systemsb) only gyro-stabilised systemsc) both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non 'strapdown' moded) only to 'strapdown' laser gyro systems

61.6.1.0 (4574)What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout?a) TASb) IASc) Altitude and OATd) Mach Number

61.6.1.0 (4575)What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure?a) Strapdownb) Rigid

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c) Solid stated) Ring laser

61.6.2.0 (4576)During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is north aligned by inputs from:a) horizontal accelerometers and the east gyrob) the aircraft remote reading compass systemc) computer matching of measured gravity magnitude to gravity magnitude of initial alignmentd) vertical accelerometers and the north gyro

61.6.2.0 (4577)During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:a) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial longitudeb) will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial longitudec) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longituded) will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude

61.6.2.0 (4578)Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)?a) Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.b) Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.c) Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.d) Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.

61.6.2.0 (4579)Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct?a) The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, is inoperative for the remainder of the flightb) The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried out in flightc) The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order to obtain an in-flight realignmentd) It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight

61.6.2.0 (4580)The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser ring gyros is approximately:a) 10 MINb) 20 MINc) 2 MINd) 5 MIN

61.6.2.0 (4581)Which of the following statements concerning the alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid-latitudes is correct?a) INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or NAV modeb) INS/IRS can only be aligned in the ALIGN modec) INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT moded) INS/IRS can only be aligned in NAV mode

61.6.2.0 (4582)A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident:a) it can only be used for attitude referenceb) no useful information can be obtained from the INSc) everything returns to normal and is usabled) the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update

61.6.3.0 (4583)The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 0.01°/HR.After a flight of 12 HR with a ground speed of 500 kt, the error on the aeroplane position is approximately :a) 12 NMb) 1 NMc) 6 NMd) 60 NM

61.6.3.0 (4584)The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the position given by this unit. ""t"" being the elapsed time.The total error is:a) proportional to tb) proportional to the square of time, t²c) proportional to t/2d) sinusoîdal

61.6.4.0 (4585)With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the initial great circle track between computer inserted waypoints will be displayed when the control display unit (CDU) is selected to:a) DSRTK/STSb) HDG/DAc) TK/GSd) XTK/TKE

61.6.4.0 (4586)Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to:a) ALIGNb) STBYc) ATT/REFd) ON

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61.6.4.0 (4587)Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?a) OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATTb) OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAVc) OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAVd) OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV

61.6.4.0 (4588)ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing:a) only attitude and heading informationb) only attitude informationc) navigation informationd) altitude, heading and position information

61.6.4.0 (4589)Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct?a) NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the gateb) NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-offc) NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or freightd) NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is commenced

61.6.4.0 (4590)Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the CDU is correct?a) The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from different sourcesb) The positions will be the same because they are an average of three different positionsc) The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled because of a detected malfunctiond) The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting the present position at the departure airport

61.6.4.0 (4591)Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats.In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs?a) geographic coordinatesb) bearing and distancec) hexadecimald) by waypoints name

61.6.4.0 (4592)An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from way-point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units (CDU) sho shows:- XTK on INS 1 = 0- XTK on INS 2 = 8L(XTK = cross track)From this information it can be deduced that:a) at least one of the inertial navigaton systems is driftingb) only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting

c) only inertial navigation system No. 1 is driftingd) the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode

61.6.5.0 (4593)An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer:WPT 1: 60°N 030°WWPT 2: 60°N 020°WWhen 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:a) 60°05.7'Nb) 60°00.0'Nc) 59°49.0'Nd) 60°11.0'N

61.6.5.0 (4594)An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W) have been entered.The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is:a) 277°b) 284°c) 263°d) 270°

61.6.5.0 (4595)As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'W are input instead of 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be:a) 099° 32.6'Wb) 099° 32.6'Ec) 080° 27.4'Ed) 080° 27.4'W

61.6.5.0 (4596)The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS).WPT 1: 60°N 30°WWPT 2: 60°N 20°WWPT 3: 60°N 10°WThe inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route (1-2-3).The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately:a) a 9° decreaseb) zeroc) a 9° increased) a 4° decrease

61.6.5.0 (4597)The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S 080°00'W).Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final track (°T) at 080°00'W, the difference between them is that the initial track is approximately:a) 9° less than the final oneb) 5° greater than the final one

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c) 9° greater than the final oned) 5° less than the final one

61.6.5.0 (4598)The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of 10°?a) 60°N to 60°Nb) 60°N to 50°Nc) 30°S to 30°Nd) 30°S to 25°S

61.6.5.0 (4599)The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS).The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W).With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:a) 274°b) 278°c) 266°d) 270°

61.6.5.0 (4600)Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial Reference System (IRS) display is correct?a) It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAVb) It is constantly updated from information obtained by the FMCc) It is updated when 'go-around' is selected on take-offd) The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a 'best position' which is displayed on the IRS

61.6.5.0 (4601)What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management System (FMS)?a) Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory, it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRSb) The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in the wingtipc) The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC positiond) Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading

61.6.5.0 (4602)Where and when are the IRS positions updated?a) Only on the ground during the alignment procedureb) During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMCc) IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the take-off roll

d) Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)

61.6.5.0 (4603)The sensors of an INS measure:a) accelerationb) velocityc) the horizontal component of the earth's rotationd) precession

62.1.1.0 (4604)What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?a) 180 NMb) 220 NMc) 120 NMd) 150 NM

62.1.1.0 (4605)The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:a) 134 NMb) 158 NMc) 107 NMd) 114 NM

62.1.1.0 (4606)What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?a) FL60b) FL50c) FL80d) FL100

62.1.1.0 (4607)What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown?a) VHF radiob) VORc) noned) VOR/DME

62.1.1.0 (4608)Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?a) It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraftb) It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATCc) It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraftd) It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground

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62.1.1.0 (4609)In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position?a) When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHzb) On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundaryc) When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the open FIRd) When declaring an emergency on any frequency

62.1.2.0 (4610)An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing :a) right driftb) left driftc) zero driftd) a wind from the west

62.1.2.0 (4611)Given : Compass heading 270°Deviation 2°WVariation 30°E Relative bearing 316° What is the QDR?a) 044°b) 226°c) 046°d) 224°

62.1.2.0 (4612)An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:a) NDB: aircraft positionVOR: beacon positionb) NDB: beacon positionVOR: beacon positionc) NDB: beacon positionVOR: aircraft positiond) NDB: aircraft positionVOR: aircraft position

62.1.2.0 (4613)A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?a) Fourb) Sixc) Eightd) Two

62.1.2.0 (4614)'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to:a) skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and duskb) interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDBc) static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency bandd) the effect of the Aurora Borealis

62.1.2.0 (4615)Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)

equipment are caused by:a) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfacesb) signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiringc) misalignment of the loop aeriald) skywave/groundwave contamination

62.1.2.0 (4616)Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is:a) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angleb) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right anglesc) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right anglesd) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

62.1.2.0 (4617)There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:a) greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inlandb) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°c) greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inlandd) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°

62.1.2.0 (4618)What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?a) 800 mb) 8000 mc) 8 md) 80 m

62.1.2.0 (4619)Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?a) Interference from other NDBs, particularly at nightb) Frequency drift at the ground stationc) Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the dayd) Mutual interference between aircraft aerials

62.1.2.0 (4620)ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to within a maximum error of:a) +/-5°b) +/-10°c) +/-2.5°d) +/-2°

62.1.2.0 (4621)Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?a) 200 - 1750 kHzb) 255 - 455 kHz

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c) 300 - 3000 kHzd) 200 - 2000 kHz

62.1.2.0 (4622)In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:a) signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerialsb) sense aerial must be tuned separatelyc) mode selector should be switched to 'loop'd) BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

62.1.2.0 (4623)Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning systemb) static interference - station interference - latitude errorc) height error - station interference - mountain effectd) coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

62.1.2.0 (4624)Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?a) Local thunderstorm activityb) Coastal effectc) Quadrantal errord) Precipitation interference

62.1.2.0 (4625)The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:a) hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signalb) stop loop rotationc) hear the IDENT and must always be switched ONd) find the loop 'null' position

62.1.2.0 (4626)An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :a) omnidirectionalb) bi-lobal circularc) a cardioid balanced at 30 Hzd) a beam rotating at 30 Hz

62.1.3.0 (4627)Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:a) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfacesb) static interferencec) night effectd) quadrantal error

62.1.3.0 (4628)If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:a) interference from other transmitters

b) noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitterc) sky wave interference from the same transmitterd) sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency

62.1.3.0 (4629)An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)a) 1.5b) 3.0c) 4.5d) 6.0

62.1.3.0 (4630)An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:a) 105 NMb) 50 NMc) 165 NMd) 210 NM

62.1.3.0 (4631)An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?a) 284° with the TO flag showingb) 284° with the FROM flag showingc) 104° with the TO flag showingd) 104° with the FROM flag showing

62.1.3.0 (4632)An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:a) 270°b) 090°c) 100°d) 280°

62.1.3.0 (4633)A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:a) 190°b) 195°c) 185°d) 180°

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62.1.3.0 (4634)The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of:a) 3.5 NMb) 2.0 NMc) 2.5 NMd) 3.0 NM

62.1.3.0 (4635)An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial:a) 255°b) 278°c) 262°d) 285°

62.1.3.0 (4636)Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a ""TO"" indication?a) 270°b) 280°c) 100°d) 090°

62.1.3.0 (4637)A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial:a) 212b) 208c) 360d) 180

62.1.3.0 (4638)The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:a) phase comparisonb) envelope matchingc) beat frequency discriminationd) difference in depth of modulation

62.1.3.0 (4639)Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?a) VHFb) UHFc) SHFd) HF

62.1.3.0 (4640)In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic

variation:a) at the VORb) at the aircraft locationc) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the stationd) at both the VOR and aircraft

62.1.3.0 (4641)An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:a) 064° with the TO flag showingb) 064° with the FROM flag showingc) 244° with the FROM flag showingd) 244° with the TO flag showing

62.1.3.0 (4642)What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?a) 184 NMb) 220 NMc) 147 NMd) 156 NM

62.1.3.0 (4643)An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is:a) Radial 135°, relative bearing unknownb) Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°c) Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°d) Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown

62.1.3.0 (4644)Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct?a) The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulationb) The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotatesc) The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it rotatesd) The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal

62.1.3.0 (4645)The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:a) 190 NMb) 230 NMc) 170 NMd) 151 NM

62.1.3.0 (4646)If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

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a) great circle trackb) rhumbline trackc) line of constant bearingd) constant magnetic track

62.1.3.0 (4647)An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :a) 110 NMb) 90 NMc) 100 NMd) 120 NM

62.1.3.0 (4648)An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of :a) 135 NMb) 123 NMc) 130 NMd) 142 NM

62.1.3.0 (4649)The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:a) 204 NMb) 245 NMc) 163 NMd) 183 NM

62.1.3.0 (4650)In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?a) VHFb) UHFc) SHFd) EHF

62.1.3.0 (4651)The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:a) eastb) southc) westd) north

62.1.3.0 (4652)An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?a) NWb) SW

c) SEd) NE

62.1.3.0 (4653)An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?a) 10° or moreb) less than 10°c) 1.5° or mored) 2.5 or more

62.1.3.0 (4654)An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':a) left with 'TO' showingb) right with 'TO' showingc) right with 'FROM' showingd) left with 'FROM' showing

62.1.3.0 (4655)Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.From/To indicator indicates ""TO"".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.On what radial is the aircraft?a) 275b) 85c) 265d) 95

62.1.3.0 (4656)The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :a) 108 to 117.95 MHzb) 108 to 111.95 MHzc) 118 to 135.95 MHzd) 108 to 135.95 MHz

62.1.3.0 (4657)If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be :a) 030°b) 330°c) 210°d) 150°

62.1.3.0 (4658)Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E,Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E.What VOR radial is the aircraft on?a) 167°b) 347°c) 160°d) 193°

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62.1.3.0 (4659)The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?a) 123 NMb) 123 kmc) 12.3 NMd) 1230 km

62.1.3.0 (4660)Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:a) behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showingb) behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showingc) ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showingd) ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

62.1.4.0 (4661)A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:a) 16 NMb) 14 NMc) 15 NMd) 17 NM

62.1.4.0 (4662)Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?a) A DME station sited on the flight routeb) An ADF sited on the flight routec) A VOR station sited on the flight routed) A DME station sited across the flight route

62.1.4.0 (4663)In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?a) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or moreb) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of itc) When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transitd) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM

62.1.4.0 (4664)The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was:a) 165 NMb) 186 NMc) 296 NMd) 330 NM

62.1.4.0 (4665)An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because:a) they are not on the receiver frequencyb) DME transmits twin pulsesc) the pulse recurrence rates are variedd) DME uses the UHF band

62.1.4.0 (4666)The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:a) 962 to 1213 MHzb) 108 to 118 MHzc) 329 to 335 MHzd) 962 to 1213 kHz.

62.1.4.0 (4667)A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:a) 6 NMb) 7 NMc) 11 NMd) 8 NM

62.1.4.0 (4668)During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the:a) aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitudeb) aeroplane is circling around the stationc) altitude is too highd) range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM

62.1.4.0 (4669)A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:a) 1000 MHzb) 10 MHzc) 100 MHzd) 100 GHz

62.1.4.0 (4670)Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:a) UHF band and is a secondary radar systemb) VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparisonc) UHF band and is a primary radar systemd) SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques

62.1.4.0 (4671)For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:a) 100b) 200

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c) 60d) 80

62.1.4.0 (4672)On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:a) the airborne receiver is conducting a range searchb) airborne equipment failurec) ground equipment failured) the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search

62.1.4.0 (4673)The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:a) pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraftb) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registrationc) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each otherd) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

62.1.4.0 (4674)The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:a) aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequenciesb) reflections are subject to doppler frequency shiftc) DME transmits twin pulsesd) DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

62.1.4.0 (4675)The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should not exceed:a) + or - 1.5 NMb) + or - 3 NMc) + or - 0.25 NMd) + or - 1.25 NM

62.1.4.0 (4676)ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed:a) + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measuredb) + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greaterc) + or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measuredd) + or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM

62.1.4.0 (4677)What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the same morse code identifier?a) 600 mb) 2000 mc) 60 md) 300 m

62.1.4.0 (4678)A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:a) memory modeb) search modec) standby moded) signal controlled search

62.1.4.0 (4679)Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?a) It can provide DME distanceb) It is of no use to civil aviationc) It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearingd) It can provide a magnetic bearing

62.1.4.0 (4680)A DME that has difficulty obtaining a ""lock-on"":(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, PPS = pulses per second)a) stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmittedb) stays in search mode without a reduction in PRFc) stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 secondsd) alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds

62.1.4.0 (4681)DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:a) 1000 MHzb) 300 MHzc) 110 MHzd) 600 MHz

62.1.4.0 (4682)A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:a) DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only onceb) DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operationc) DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several timesd) VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

62.1.5.0 (4683)The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:a) 400 Hz, blueb) 3000 Hz, bluec) 1300 Hz, blued) 400 Hz, amber

62.1.5.0 (4684)A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:a) 200 feet above the runway threshold

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b) 50 feet above ILS reference pointc) runway surfaced) 200 feet above the inner marker

62.1.5.0 (4685)The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:a) aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signalsb) heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signalsc) to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operationsd) to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions

62.1.5.0 (4686)An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:a) may receive false course indicationsb) will not normally receive signalsc) will receive signals without identification codingd) can expect signals to give correct indications

62.1.5.0 (4687)The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of:a) alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashingb) two dashes per second and a blue light flashingc) dots and a white light flashingd) dashes and an amber light flashing

62.1.5.0 (4688)The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:a) 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per secondb) 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morsec) 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morsed) 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second

62.1.5.0 (4689)What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?a) 600 FT/MINb) 550 FT/MINc) 800 FT/MINd) 950 FT/MIN

62.1.5.0 (4690)The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:a) 1450 FTb) 1400 FT

c) 1350 FTd) 1300 FT

62.1.5.0 (4691)What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?a) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centrelineb) 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centrelinec) 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centrelined) 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

62.1.5.0 (4692)ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:a) multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical planeb) spurious signals reflected by nearby obstaclesc) back-scattering of antennasd) ground returns ahead of the antennas

62.1.5.0 (4693)What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?a) blue - amber - whiteb) amber - white - greenc) white - amber - blued) blue - green - white

62.1.5.0 (4694)An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:a) Fly right and fly downb) Fly left and fly downc) Fly right and fly upd) Fly left and fly up

62.1.5.0 (4695)An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:a) 150 FT/MINb) 250 FT/MINc) 50 FT/MINd) 100 FT/MIN

62.1.5.0 (4696)The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii)..........

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a) (i) the same (ii) modulation frequenciesb) (i) the same (ii) phasesc) (i) different (ii) modulation frequenciesd) (i) different (ii) phases

62.1.5.0 (4697)In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?a) UHFb) VHFc) SHFd) EHF

62.1.5.0 (4698)Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display represent :a) 0.5 degreesb) 1.5 degreesc) 2.5 degreesd) 2.0 degrees

62.1.5.0 (4699)Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:a) 400 Hzb) 1300 Hzc) 2000 Hzd) 3000 Hz

62.1.5.0 (4700)Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:a) decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MINb) increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MINc) decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MINd) increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

62.1.5.0 (4701)Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..........° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the threshold.a) (i) 8 (ii) 10b) (i) 25 (ii) 17c) (i) 35 (ii) 25d) (i) 5 (ii) 8

62.1.5.0 (4702)The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately:a) 800 FT/MINb) 850 FT/MINc) 670 FT/MINd) 700 FT/MIN

62.1.5.0 (4703)Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?a) On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centrelineb) At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centrelinec) At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centrelined) At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown

62.1.5.0 (4704)A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:a) the surface of the runwayb) a maximum height of 200 ft above the runwayc) a maximum height of 100 ft above the runwayd) a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway

62.1.5.0 (4705)Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?a) 109.15 MHzb) 108.25 MHzc) 110.20 MHzd) 112.10 MHz

62.1.5.0 (4706)What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?a) 450 FT/MINb) 400 FT/MINc) 600 FT/MINd) 700 FT/MIN

62.1.5.0 (4707)The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be:a) centredb) left of centrec) right of centred) centred with the 'fail' flag showing

62.1.6.0 (4708)The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:a) + or - 40° of the runway centre-lineb) + or - 50° of the runway centre-linec) + or - 60° of the runway centre-lined) + or - 30° of the runway centre-line

62.1.6.0 (4709)Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

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a) It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILSb) It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitterc) The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine ranged) There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available

62.1.6.0 (4710)MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:a) + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NMb) + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NMc) + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NMd) + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM

62.1.6.0 (4711)In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?a) SHFb) EHFc) VHFd) UHF

62.1.6.0 (4712)Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold?a) A DME co-located with the MLS transmittersb) Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS stationc) Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissionsd) Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft

62.1.6.0 (4713)Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)?a) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facilityb) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beaconsc) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facilityd) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons

62.2.1.0 (4714)The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ , the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii).........a) (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequencyb) (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power outputc) (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebased) (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

62.2.1.0 (4715)Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary

radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?a) It eliminates the minimum target reception rangeb) A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be usedc) It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radarsd) The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by greater reliability and accuracy

62.2.1.0 (4716)A Primary radar operates on the principle of:a) pulse techniqueb) transponder interrogationc) phase comparisond) continuous wave transmission

62.2.1.0 (4717)The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:a) lengthb) amplitudec) repetition rated) frequency

62.2.1.0 (4718)Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)a) 405 ppsb) 782 ppsc) 308 ppsd) 375 pps

62.2.1.0 (4719)The maximum range of primary radar depends on :a) pulse recurrence frequencyb) wave lengthc) frequencyd) pulse length

62.2.1.0 (4720)For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:a) 16b) 2c) 4d) 8

62.2.1.0 (4721)The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:a) pulse recurrence rateb) power output

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c) size of parabolic receiver aeriald) height of the transmitter above the ground

62.2.1.0 (4722)Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation?a) primary continuous waveb) centimetric pulsec) millimetric pulsed) secondary continuous wave

62.2.1.0 (4723)In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?a) SHFb) UHFc) EHFd) VHF

62.2.1.0 (4724)In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the:a) number of pulses per secondb) delay after which the process re-startsc) the number of cycles per secondd) ratio of pulse period to pulse width

62.2.1.0 (4725)The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:a) pulse recurrence frequencyb) transmission powerc) size of the aeriald) transmission frequency

62.2.1.0 (4726)In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:a) minimum measurable rangeb) target discriminationc) maximum measurable ranged) beam width

62.2.1.0 (4727)In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:a) maximum theoretical rangeb) target discriminationc) minimum ranged) beam width

62.2.1.0 (4728)In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:a) beam widthb) aerial rotation ratec) Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)d) pulse length

62.2.1.0 (4729)Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique?1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar2. Airborne Weather Radar3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radara) 1, 2, 3 and 4b) 1, 2 and 4 onlyc) 2, 3 and 4 onlyd) 2 and 4 only

62.2.2.0 (4730)Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/second)a) 333 kmb) 666 kmc) 1333 kmd) 150 km

62.2.2.0 (4731)A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:a) 69 NMb) 135 NMc) 270 NMd) 27 NM

62.2.2.0 (4732)A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:a) 67 NMb) 135 NMc) 270 NMd) 27 NM

62.2.2.0 (4733)Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute, it is (iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.a) (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimesb) (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) neverc) (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) alwaysd) (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never

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62.2.2.0 (4734)The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:(pps = pulses per second)a) 1620 ppsb) 3240 ppsc) 610 ppsd) 713 pps

62.2.2.0 (4735)Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:a) 3000b) 6000c) 167d) 330

62.2.2.0 (4736)Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?a) short pulse length and narrow beamb) long pulse length and wide beamc) long pulse length and narrow beamd) short pulse length and wide beam

62.2.2.0 (4737)The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:a) 300 NMb) 200 NMc) 100 NMd) 400 NM

62.2.2.0 (4738)On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?a) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)b) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)c) Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radard) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

62.2.3.0 (4739)Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:a) detect the larger water dropletsb) transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended rangec) obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beamd) detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large

62.2.3.0 (4740)The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:

a) detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloudb) give an indication of cloud topsc) inhibit unwanted ground returnsd) extend the mapping range

62.2.3.0 (4741)In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:a) fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM rangeb) fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NMc) pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NMd) pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM

62.2.3.0 (4742)Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'?a) cumulusb) cirrocumulusc) stratusd) altostratus

62.2.3.0 (4743)In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern.a) MAPPINGb) CONTOURc) WEATHERd) MANUAL

62.2.3.0 (4744)In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:a) colour zones being closest togetherb) blank iso-echo areas where there is no colourc) large areas of flashing red colourd) iso-echo areas which are coloured black

62.2.3.0 (4745)Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?a) roll and pitchb) roll, pitch and yawc) pitch and yawd) roll and yaw

62.2.3.0 (4746)In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:a) green to yellow to redb) yellow to amber to bluec) green to red to blackd) yellow to orange to red

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62.2.3.0 (4747)A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because:a) the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively smallb) greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water dropletsc) static interference is minimisedd) less power output is required in the mapping mode

62.2.3.0 (4748)In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:a) only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect equipmentb) permitted anywherec) totally prohibitedd) unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas

62.2.3.0 (4749)The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features:a) beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beamb) beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping modec) beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definitiond) when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

62.2.3.0 (4750)A frequency of airborne weather radar is :a) 9375 MHzb) 9375 GHzc) 9375 kHzd) 93.75 MHz

62.2.3.0 (4751)A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:a) increase in area and move to the top of the screenb) increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screenc) decrease in area but not change in position on the screend) decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

62.2.3.0 (4752)In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables:a) scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically independent of distanceb) better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to seac) a greater radar range to be achievedd) higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture

62.2.3.0 (4753)In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a

cloud will be detected are:a) size of the water drops,wavelength/frequency usedb) range from cloud,wavelength/frequency usedc) size of the water drops,diameter of radar scannerd) rotational speed of radar scanner,range from cloud

62.2.3.0 (4754)In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5°)a) 2.5° upb) 0°c) 2.5° downd) 5° up

62.2.3.0 (4755)When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line appears on the screen.This means that the:a) scanning of the cathode ray tube is faultyb) transmitter is faultyc) scanner is not rotatingd) receiver is faulty

62.2.3.0 (4756)The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:a) virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beamb) simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beamsc) have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detectiond) eliminate the need for azimuth slaving

62.2.3.0 (4757)Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?a) snow, clear air turbulenceb) dry hail, clear air turbulencec) clear air turbulence, turbulence in cloud with precipitationd) snow, turbulence in clouds with precipitation

62.2.3.0 (4758)Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?a) Airborne weather radar (AWR)b) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)c) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)d) Global Positioning System (GPS)

62.2.4.0 (4759)When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is:a) flight level based on 1013.25 hPab) altitude based on regional QNH

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c) aircraft height based on sub-scale settingd) height based on QFE

62.2.4.0 (4760)The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter Receivera) 1030 MHz 1090 MHzb) 1090 MHz 1030 MHzc) 1090 MHz 1090 MHzd) 1030 MHz 1030 MHz

62.2.4.0 (4761)Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?a) The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radarb) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sourcesc) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returnsd) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources

62.2.4.0 (4762)In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:a) 7600b) 7700c) 7000d) 7500

62.2.4.0 (4763)In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:a) 7500b) 7600c) 7700d) 7000

62.2.4.0 (4764)When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within:a) + or - 50 FTb) + or - 75 FTc) + or - 100 FTd) + or - 25 FT

62.2.4.0 (4765)The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:a) 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhzb) 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhzc) 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhzd) 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz

62.2.4.0 (4766)The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:a) air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capabilityb) collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.c) continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS IId) the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II

62.2.4.0 (4767)The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :a) two modes, each of 4096 codesb) four modes, each 1024 codesc) four modes, each 4096 codesd) two modes, each 1024 codes

62.2.4.0 (4768)A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes.These 4096 codes can be used in:a) all modesb) mode A onlyc) mode C onlyd) mode S

62.2.4.0 (4769)The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:a) pulsesb) phase differencesc) frequency differencesd) amplitude differences

62.2.4.0 (4770)Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder malfunction?a) 0b) 7600c) 4096d) 9999

62.2.4.0 (4771)Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?a) 2000b) 5000c) 7000d) 0

62.2.4.0 (4772)What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

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transponder codes?a) 4096b) 3600c) 1000d) 760

62.2.4.0 (4773)Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle?a) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)b) Global Positioning System (GPS)c) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)d) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar

62.2.4.0 (4774)In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:a) 7700b) 7600c) 7500d) 7000

62.2.4.0 (4775)Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the Transponder?a) STBY (Standby)b) IDENT (Identification)c) NORMALd) OFF

62.2.4.0 (4776)The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:a) entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been requiredb) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flightc) an emergencyd) transponder malfunction

62.2.4.0 (4777)The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:a) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flightb) an emergencyc) transponder malfunctiond) radio communication failure

62.2.4.0 (4778)The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:a) radio communication failureb) an emergencyc) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flightd) transponder malfunction

62.2.4.0 (4779)The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:a) an emergencyb) radio communication failurec) transponder malfunctiond) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

62.5.1.0 (4780)ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:a) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of theseb) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aidc) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aidd) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids

62.5.1.0 (4781)Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:a) 0.5 NM standard deviation or betterb) 0.25 NM standard deviation or betterc) 1.0 NM standard deviation or betterd) 1.5 NM standard deviation or better

62.5.1.0 (4782)Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:a) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight timeb) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight timec) +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight timed) +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight

62.5.1.0 (4783)Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:a) warnings, flight envelope and system limitsb) flight envelope and system limits, engaged modesc) warnings, cautions and abnormal sourcesd) cautions and abnormal sources, engaged modes

62.5.1.0 (4784)Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:a) cautions, abnormal sourcesb) flight envelope and system limitsc) warningsd) engaged modes

62.5.1.0 (4785)Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic Flight

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Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:a) engaged modesb) cautions, abnormal sourcesc) the earthd) the ILS deviation pointer

62.5.1.0 (4786)Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate:a) the skyb) engaged modesc) the flight director bar(s)d) flight envelope and system limits

62.5.1.0 (4787)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are coloured:a) whiteb) cyanc) redd) magenta

62.5.1.0 (4788)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured:a) whiteb) greenc) magentad) amber/yellow

62.5.1.0 (4789)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are coloured:a) greenb) whitec) magentad) yellow

62.5.1.0 (4790)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is coloured:a) magentab) greenc) whited) yellow

62.5.1.0 (4791)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is coloured:a) magentab) green

c) yellowd) cyan

62.5.1.0 (4792)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipititation are coloured in the order:a) green, amber/yellow, red, magentab) green, red, magenta, blackc) black, amber/yellow, magenta, redd) amber/yellow, magenta, black

62.5.1.0 (4793)Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:a) white or magentab) redc) blackd) cyan

62.5.2.0 (4794)Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?a) ETOb) ETDc) ATAd) Elapsed time on route.

62.5.2.0 (4795)(For this question use annex 062-9907A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?a) Figure 1b) Figure 2c) Figure 3d) Figure 4

62.5.2.0 (4796)(For this question use annex 062-9908A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?a) Figure 4b) Figure 1c) Figure 2d) Figure 3

62.5.2.0 (4797)(For this question use annex 062-9909A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?a) Figure 1b) Figure 4

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c) Figure 5d) Figure 6

62.5.2.0 (4798)(For this question use annex 062-9910A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?a) Figure 2b) Figure 3c) Figure 4d) Figure 6

62.5.2.0 (4799)(For this question use annex 062-9911A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?a) Figure 3b) Figure 4c) Figure 5d) Figure 2

62.5.2.0 (4800)(For this question use annex 062-9912A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?a) Figure 4b) Figure 5c) Figure 6d) Figure 1

62.5.2.0 (4801)(For this question use annex 062-9913A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?a) Figure 5b) Figure 6c) Figure 2d) Figure 3

62.5.2.0 (4802)(For this question use annex 062-9914A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?a) Figure 6b) Figure 2c) Figure 3d) Figure 5

62.5.2.0 (4803)Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:a) FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN

b) EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAPc) FULL NAV, PLAN and MAPd) FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN

62.5.2.0 (4804)The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:a) the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)b) the actual position of the aircraft at any point in timec) the same as that given on the No. 1 IRSd) another source of aircaft position, it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc)

62.5.2.0 (4805)The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:a) represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is compensated forb) corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turnsc) indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selectiond) indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

62.5.2.0 (4806)In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?a) When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach numberb) When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GSc) When the FMC positions and GS are accurated) When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time

62.5.2.0 (4807)(For this question use annex 062-9905A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?a) Figure 3b) Figure 4c) Figure 1d) Figure 2

62.5.2.0 (4808)(For this question use annex 062-9906A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?a) Figure 2b) Figure 3c) Figure 4d) Figure 1

62.5.2.0 (4809)The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:a) insert navigation data between two updates

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b) only read the databasec) can modify the database every 28 daysd) read and write at any time in database

62.5.3.0 (4810)(For this question use annex 062-9915A)What drift is being experienced?a) 8° Leftb) 20° Rightc) 20° Leftd) 12° Right

62.5.3.0 (4811)(For this question use annex 062-9916A)What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?a) 097°(T)b) 170°(M)c) 140°(M)d) 280°(T)

62.5.3.0 (4812)(For this question use annex 062-9917A)What wind velocity is indicated?a) 105°(M)/20KTb) 030°(M)/20KTc) 255°(M)/20KTd) 285°(M)/20KT

62.5.3.0 (4813)(For this question use annex 062-9918A)What is the value of the selected course?a) 299°(M)b) 272°(M)c) 260°(M)d) 280°(M)

62.5.3.0 (4814)(For this question use annex 062-9919A)What is the instantaneous aircraft track?a) 272°(M)b) 300°(M)c) 260°(M)d) 280°(M)

62.5.3.0 (4815)(For this question use annex 062-9920A)The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:a) VOR/DMEb) TACANc) VORd) Airport

62.5.3.0 (4816)(For this question use annex 062-9921A)The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC'

indicate:a) an off-route airportb) a designated alternate airportc) an off-route VOR/DMEd) the destination airport

62.5.3.0 (4817)(For this question use annex 062-9922A)What is the manually selected heading?a) 260°(M)b) 272°(M)c) 280°(M)d) 300°(M)

62.5.3.0 (4818)(For this question use annex 062-9923A)The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:a) right of the localizer and below the glidepathb) right of the localizer and above the glidepathc) left of the localizer and below the glidepathd) left of the localizer and above the glidepath

62.5.4.0 (4819)Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?a) DME/DMEb) VOR/DMEc) NDB/VORd) VOR/VOR

62.5.4.0 (4820)Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained and obtains no external information?a) Inertial Navigation System (INS) positionb) Pressure altitudec) Magnetic headingd) VOR/DME radial/distance

62.5.4.0 (4821)Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system?a) VOR/DME radial/distanceb) Magnetic headingc) Inertial Navigation System (INS) positiond) Pressure altitude

62.5.4.0 (4822)In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input?a) True airspeedb) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

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c) VOR/DME radial/distanced) Doppler drift

62.5.5.0 (4823)In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:a) does not have to be in range when entered but must be when usedb) does not have to be in range when entered or usedc) must be in ranged) has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

62.5.5.0 (4824)Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?a) Crosstrack distance, alongtrack distance, angular course deviationb) Aircraft position in latitude and longitudec) Wind velocityd) True airspeed, drift angle

62.5.5.0 (4825)Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?a) Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'b) Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'c) Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'd) Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

62.5.5.0 (4826)(For this question use annex 062-12409A)Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station'?a) 12 NMb) 21 NMc) 10 NMd) 11 NM

62.5.5.0 (4827)(For this question use annex 062-12410A)Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'?a) 9 NMb) 11 NMc) 14 NMd) 8 NM

62.5.5.0 (4828)Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station':a) when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference stationb) because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information

c) when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Stationd) when the Phantom Station is out of range

62.5.5.0 (4829)What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?a) 5 NMb) 1 NMc) 2 NMd) 10 NM

62.5.5.0 (4830)What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?a) 0.5°b) 10°c) 0.5 NMd) 10 NM

62.5.5.0 (4831)Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system?a) It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypointb) It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programmec) It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the aird) It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches

62.5.5.0 (4832)In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by:a) Navigation radiosFlight Management ComputerInertial Reference Systemsb) Inertial Reference SystemsAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radiosc) Flight Management ComputerAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radiosd) Inertial Reference SystemsNavigation radiosTrue airspeed and drift inputs

62.5.5.0 (4833)How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?a) It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the displayb) The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appearsc) The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittentlyd) The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears

62.5.5.0 (4834)Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?a) Symbol Generatorb) Flight Management Computer

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c) Flight Control Computerd) Navigation database

62.6.1.0 (4835)An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when:a) the transmitter moves towards the receiverb) the transmitter moves away from the receiverc) the receiver moves towards the transmitterd) both transmitter and receiver move towards each other

62.6.1.0 (4836)The Doppler Navigation System is based on:a) radar principles using frequency shiftb) radio waves refraction in the ionospherec) doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation Systemd) phase comparison from ground station transmissions

62.6.1.0 (4837)Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:a) the transmitter moves away from the recieverb) the transmitter and receiver move towards each otherc) the transmitter moves toward the recieverd) both transmitter and receiver move away from each other

62.6.3.0 (4838)Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?a) It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse techniqueb) It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles, position lines are obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stationsc) It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase comparisond) It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four ground stations

62.6.3.0 (4839)In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz?a) Loran Cb) GPSc) Deccad) Doppler

62.6.3.0 (4840)Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation system?a) Differential range by pulse techniqueb) Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions

c) Differential range by phase comparisond) Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions

62.6.3.0 (4841)Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?a) 90 - 110 kHzb) 1750 - 1950 kHzc) 10.2 - 13.6 kHzd) 978 - 1213 MHz

62.6.3.0 (4842)Loran C coverage is:a) confined to certain limited areas of the worldb) globalc) unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°Sd) unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental land masses

62.6.5.0 (4843)In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:a) timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiverb) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known positionc) timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known positiond) the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites

62.6.5.0 (4844)In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?a) UHFb) SHFc) EHFd) VHF

62.6.5.0 (4845)What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?a) 4b) 3c) 5d) 6

62.6.5.0 (4846)What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?a) 3b) 4

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c) 5d) 2

62.6.5.0 (4847)Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is:a) 6b) 7c) 4d) 5

62.6.5.0 (4848)Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is:a) 4b) 5c) 6d) 3

62.6.5.0 (4849)Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?a) Satellite clock, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagationb) Satellite mutual interference, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagationc) Satellite to ground time lag, atmospheric propagation, satellite clockd) Satellite mutual interference, frequency drift, satellite to ground time lag

62.6.5.0 (4850)In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:a) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiverb) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positionsc) measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft's receiverd) measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites received in a specific sequential order

62.6.5.0 (4851)GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?a) L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)b) L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)

c) L1-precise (P)d) L2-for communications purpose

62.6.5.0 (4852)Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?a) WGS 84b) ED 87c) ED 50d) EUREF 92

62.6.5.0 (4853)Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?a) Latitude, longitude, altitude and timeb) Latitude and longitudec) Latitude, longitude and timed) Latitude, longitude and altitude

62.6.5.0 (4854)Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation?a) NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASSb) NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transitc) NNSS-Transit and GLONASSd) GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

62.6.5.0 (4855)The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:a) 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each planeb) 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each planec) 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each planed) 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane

62.6.5.0 (4856)Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?a) It varies, depending on the time and observer's locationb) It is the same throughout the globec) It is greatest at the equatord) It is greatest at the poles

62.6.5.0 (4857)How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?a) 24b) 18c) 12d) 30

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62.6.5.0 (4858)GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or military).Commercial aviation uses:a) only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one codeb) only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codesc) only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one coded) the two carrier waves and one public code

62.6.5.0 (4859)Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?a) NAVSTAR/GPSb) NNSS-Transitc) COSPAS-SARSATd) GLONASS

62.6.5.0 (4860)The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the:a) control, space and user segmentsb) main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennasc) antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)d) atomic clock, power supply and transponder

62.6.5.0 (4861)One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:a) monitor the status of the satellitesb) manufacture and launch the satellitesc) manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fixd) grant and monitor user authorisations

62.6.5.0 (4862)The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:a) select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiverb) transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellitec) to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the timed) monitor the orbital planes of the satellites

62.6.5.0 (4863)One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:a) transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocityb) transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomouslyc) compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segmentd) monitor the satellites' orbits and status

62.6.5.0 (4864)The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:a) an ellipsoidb) a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earthc) a sphered) a geoid

62.6.5.0 (4865)In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:a) height above the WGS-84 ellipsoidb) geometric height above groundc) height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)d) flight level

62.6.5.0 (4866)In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:a) orbital plane and the equatorial planeb) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellitec) orbital plane and the earth's axisd) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

62.6.5.0 (4867)How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?a) Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)b) Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)c) 12 daysd) 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit

62.6.5.0 (4868)At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth?a) 20200 kmb) 10900 kmc) 36000 kmd) 19500 km

62.6.5.0 (4869)The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:a) inclined 55° to the equatorial planeb) inclined 55° to the earth axisc) inclined 90° to the equatorial planed) parallel to the equatorial plane

62.6.5.0 (4870)In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?a) UHFb) VHF

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c) EHFd) SHF

62.6.5.0 (4871)In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?a) PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiverb) PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellitesc) PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical background noise that exists in spaced) PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different directions (multipath effect)

62.6.5.0 (4872)Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?a) C/Ab) Pc) C/A- and Pd) P and Y

62.6.5.0 (4873)Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:a) fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellitesb) recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operativec) assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellited) correction of receiver clock error

62.6.5.0 (4874)How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?a) Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise codeb) The Doppler shift is unique to each satellitec) The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellitesd) Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

62.6.5.0 (4875)Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?a) almanac data, satellite status informationb) time, data to impair the accuracy of the position fixc) data to correct receiver clock error, almanac datad) time, positions of the satellites

62.6.5.0 (4876)In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?

a) 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)b) 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)c) 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)d) 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

62.6.5.0 (4877)Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct?a) The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codesb) C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequenciesc) The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P coded) The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

62.6.5.0 (4878)Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?a) Ionosphericb) Multipathc) Troposphericd) Receiver noise

62.6.5.0 (4879)Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the correction of one of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)?a) The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squaredb) The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequenciesc) The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of both frequenciesd) The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared

62.6.5.0 (4880)Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?a) It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation informationb) It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground segmentc) It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellitesd) It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message

62.6.5.0 (4881)The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:a) determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of lightb) calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequenciesc) calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite

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and the receiverd) determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light

62.6.5.0 (4882)In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a receiver:a) is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with another already being monitoredb) is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best geometric coveragec) is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneouslyd) requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes

62.6.5.0 (4883)The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:a) calculated range includes receiver clock errorb) measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise codec) movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into accountd) calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit

62.6.5.0 (4884)What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft?a) Multichannelb) Sequentialc) Multiplexd) Any hand held type

62.6.5.0 (4885)What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix?a) 4b) 5c) 24d) 3

62.6.5.0 (4886)The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:a) on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravityb) inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselagec) in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission linesd) under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations

62.6.5.0 (4887)In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by :a) dithering the satellite clockb) shutting off selected satellites

c) using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processingd) offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount

62.6.5.0 (4888)In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ?a) It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signalsb) It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiverc) It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is quickerd) It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites

62.6.5.0 (4889)In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:a) is corrected by using signals from four satellitesb) is the biggest part of the total error, it cannot be correctedc) can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocksd) is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites

62.6.5.0 (4890)The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:a) minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals transmitted by the satellitesb) minimised by computing the average of all signalsc) only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizond) negligible

62.6.5.0 (4891)Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?a) The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INSb) The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INSc) The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracyd) The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy

62.6.5.0 (4892)What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?a) It may prevent the reception of signalsb) It causes multipath propagationc) The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signalsd) It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected

62.6.5.0 (4893)Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?

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a) 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other together with a fourth directly overheadb) 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizonc) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizond) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon

62.6.5.0 (4894)In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)?a) Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraftb) The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine an error correctionc) Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver noise errord) Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors

62.6.5.0 (4895)Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?a) The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fixb) The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS ground stationc) A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fixd) Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'

62.6.5.0 (4896)How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?a) It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellitesb) The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) codec) The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antennad) The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message

62.6.5.0 (4897)In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:a) procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data availableb) continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellitesc) procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operationald) continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon

62.6.5.0 (4898)What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?a) The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systemsb) The flight has to be continued under VFR conditionsc) A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are again availabled) The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System manually

62.6.5.0 (4899)Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?a) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operationalb) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information continuously displayedc) The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systemsd) Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions

62.6.5.0 (4900)Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?a) It may be continued using conventional navigation systemsb) It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS, prior to the next flight all systems must be checkedc) It must be continued under VFR conditionsd) The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty system

62.6.5.0 (4901)What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?a) Barometric altitudeb) If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitudec) Radar altituded) GPS altitude

62.6.5.0 (4902)Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?a) Barometric altitudeb) The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitudec) GPS altituded) GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude

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71.1.1.0 (4903)Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:a) 60% of the landing distance available.b) 70% of the landing distance available.c) 80% of the landing distance available.d) 50% of the landing distance available.

71.1.1.0 (4904)Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:a) while at their station.b) only during take off and landing.c) only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety.d) from take off to landing.

71.1.1.0 (4905)Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also issue the amendments to keep it up to date?a) Aircraft operator.b) Aircraft producer.c) Owner of the aircraft.d) ATS authority of the state of registry.

71.1.1.0 (4906)The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than :a) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 daysb) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 daysc) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 monthsd) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

71.1.1.0 (4907)The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during at least :a) 30 minutes.b) 60 minutes.c) 15 minutes.d) 2 hours.

71.1.1.0 (4908)A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from the shore by more than :a) 50 NMb) 100 NM

c) 200 NMd) 400 NM

71.1.1.0 (4909)On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to :a) 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.b) 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.c) 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.d) 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.

71.1.1.0 (4910)The minimum time track is a track defined for :a) a given travelb) a period of 12 hoursc) a period of 24 hoursd) aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

71.1.1.0 (4911)The term decision height (DH) is used for :a) a precision approach.b) a conventional approach.c) an indirect approach.d) a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.

71.1.1.0 (4912)Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex 6, Part I)a) The captain.b) The operator.c) The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.d) The company's cargo technicians.

71.1.1.0 (4913)For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)a) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.b) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.c) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.d) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

71.1.1.0 (4914)One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6,

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Part I)a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.b) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.c) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

71.1.1.0 (4915)When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.b) The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.d) All the flight crew be on board.

71.1.1.0 (4916)The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I)a) The country of the operator.b) The country where the aircraft was manufactured.c) The country where the aircraft is operated.d) It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.

71.1.1.0 (4917)Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I)a) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.b) Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.c) With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).d) As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.

71.1.1.0 (4918)The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :a) the operatorb) the manufacturerc) the aircraft manufacturer's listd) the aircraft state of registry

71.1.1.0 (4919)The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :a) the manufacturer.b) the operator.c) the aircraft manufacture'rs list.d) the aircraft state of registry.

71.1.1.0 (4920)The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :a) 110°.b) 140°.c) 70°.d) 220°.

71.1.1.0 (4921)Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last :a) 25 hours of operation.b) 30 hours of operation.c) flight.d) 48 hours of operation.

71.1.1.0 (4922)For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :a) 30 minutes of operation.b) 25 hours of operation.c) flight.d) 48 hours of operation.

71.1.1.0 (4923)On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than :a) 13 000 ftb) 12 000 ftc) 11 000 ftd) 10 000 ft

71.1.1.0 (4924)On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between :a) 10 000 ft and 13 000 ftb) 10 000 ft and 12 000 ftc) 11 000 ft and 13 000 ftd) 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft

71.1.1.0 (4925)On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than :a) 10 000 ft.b) 11 000 ft.c) 12 000 ft.d) 13 000 ft.

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71.1.1.0 (4926)For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :a) 25 000 ftb) 13 000 ftc) 29 000 ftd) 10 000 ft

71.1.1.0 (4927)A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is greater than :a) 5 700 kgb) 14 000 kgc) 20 000 kgd) 27 000 kg

71.1.1.0 (4928)The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of the aircraft, is :a) 140°b) 110°c) 70°d) 220°

71.1.1.0 (4929)During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see the :a) green steady lightb) red steady lightc) white steady lightd) green flashing light

71.1.1.0 (4930)The JAR-OPS is based on :a) ICAO Appendix 6b) The air transport rulesc) The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)d) A JAA guideline

71.1.1.0 (4931)During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will first see the :a) red steady lightb) green steady lightc) white steady lightd) green flashing light

71.1.1.0 (4932)The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left wing is :a) 110°

b) 140°c) 70°d) 220°

71.1.1.0 (4933)For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :a) 0.6b) 0.7c) 0.5d) 0.8

71.1.1.0 (4934)For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of :a) 0.7b) 0.6c) 0.5d) 0.8

71.1.1.0 (4935)The validity period of a ""certificate of airworthiness"" varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:a) three years.b) three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.c) three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.d) three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.

71.1.2.0 (4936)The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:a) the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport aircraft.b) the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.c) the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.d) the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.

71.1.2.1 (4937)Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :a) operation manual.b) flight manual.c) journey logbook.d) operational flight plan.

71.1.2.1 (4938)An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :a) operation flight plan.

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b) ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.c) flight plan processing.d) flight route sheet.

71.1.2.1 (4939)An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:a) a copy of the weight and balance sheet.b) a copy of the calculated take-off performances.c) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.d) the aircraft equipment report (logbook).

71.1.2.1 (4940)After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:a) 60 days.b) 30 days.c) 90 days.d) 45 days.

71.1.2.1 (4941)During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:a) must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.b) authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.c) authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.d) may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.

71.1.2.1 (4942)Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report,4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,5 - notification for special loadings,6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2,3,4,5b) 1,2,3,4,5,6c) 1,3,5d) 2,4

71.1.2.1 (4943)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :a) 3 monthsb) 12 months

c) 15 monthsd) 24 months

71.1.2.1 (4944)The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. Hea) must do so, within a reasonable period of time.b) can request a delay of 48 hours.c) can refuse to present them.d) can only do so after having consulted the operator.

71.1.2.3 (4945)The ""NO SMOKING"" sign must be illuminated :a) when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.b) during climb and descent.c) in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.d) during take off and landing.

71.1.2.4 (4946)A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :a) a decision height of at least 100 ftb) a decision height of at least 200 ftc) a decision height of at least 50 ftd) no decision height

71.1.2.4 (4947)A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :a) no runway visual range limitsb) a runway visual range of at least 50 mc) a runway visual range of at least 200 md) a runway visual range of at least 350 m

71.1.2.4 (4948)A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :a) 550 mb) 350 mc) 800 md) 500 m

71.1.2.4 (4949)A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :a) 200 mb) 100 mc) 250 md) 50 m

71.1.2.4 (4950)A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

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a) 75 mb) 150 mc) 250 md) 200 m

71.1.2.4 (4951)A category I precision approach (CAT I) has :a) a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.b) a decision height equal to at least 100 ft.c) a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.d) no decision height.

71.1.2.4 (4952)A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :a) 3600 mb) 2400 mc) 1600 md) 1500 m

71.1.2.4 (4953)A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :a) 2400 mb) 3600 mc) 1600 md) 1500 m

71.1.2.4 (4954)A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:a) 1600 mb) 1500 mc) 3600 md) 2400 m

71.1.2.4 (4955)A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :a) 1500 mb) 2400 mc) 1600 md) 3600 m

71.1.2.4 (4956)During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than :a) 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitudeb) 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude

c) 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altituded) 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude

71.1.2.4 (4957)The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account :1. equipment available for navigation2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditionsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,2,3,4,5b) 1,2,4,5c) 2,4,5d) 2,3,5

71.1.2.4 (4958)When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:a) 1.3b) 1.45c) 1.5d) 1.15

71.1.2.4 (4959)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :a) MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 mb) MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 mc) MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 md) MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

71.1.2.4 (4960)JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :a) special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 kmb) for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at leastc) for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at leastd) for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)

71.1.2.4 (4961)In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less than :a) 200 mb) 250 mc) 230 md) 300 m

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71.1.2.4 (4962)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for ""non-precision approach procedures"", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:a) NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ftb) ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ftc) VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ftd) VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

71.1.2.4 (4963)In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but no less than :a) 75 mb) 150 mc) 100 md) 50 m

71.1.2.4 (4964)The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres.The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.Is take-off possible?a) Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.b) No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.c) No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.d) Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.

71.1.2.4 (4965)The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is:a) 150 m.b) 200 m.c) 300 m.d) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

71.1.2.4 (4966)The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is :1 - the horizontal visibility2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)4 - the decision altitude (DA)Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 03-Janb) 04-Janc) 2001-02-03d) 2001-02-04

71.1.2.4 (4967)For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:a) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.b) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.c) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.d) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

71.1.2.4 (4968)During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:a) the outer marker (OM).b) the FAF.c) the middle marker.d) the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

71.1.2.4 (4969)The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...a) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750 metres.b) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than 750 metres.c) the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.d) flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for precision approaches.

71.1.2.4 (4970)An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres :Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres :The pilot may start the final approach...a) whatever the ceiling given by ATC.b) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.c) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.d) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.

71.1.2.4 (4971)In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :a) Db) Bc) Cd) E

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71.1.2.5 (4972)Supplemental oxygen is used to :a) provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisationb) protect a crew who fights a firec) provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisationd) assist a passenger with breathing disorders

71.1.2.8 (4973)The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is :a) 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger seatsb) 2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seatsc) 1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is less than 9d) 2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft

71.1.2.8 (4974)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :a) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 daysb) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 daysc) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 daysd) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days

71.1.2.8 (4975)JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless :a) he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.b) he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days.c) he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 daysd) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

71.1.2.8 (4976)In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :a) 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.b) 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

c) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.d) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

71.1.2.8 (4977)An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot).The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:a) forbidden.b) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.c) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.d) authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir seat bel

71.1.2.8 (4978)In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?a) never.b) if the aircraft is a twin-engine.c) if part or all the flight is done at night.d) if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

71.1.2.8 (4979)The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 - the training2 - the test results3 - a log of flying hours4 - a summary of the training by reference periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4b) 2001-02-03c) 03-Fevd) 04-Mar

71.1.3.0 (4980)An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least :a) 300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.b) 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.c) 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.d) 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous power.

71.1.3.1 (4981)When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a vector KK' which is equal to:

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a) mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.b) wind at K'.c) wind at K.d) mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.

71.1.3.1 (4982)A minimum time track is a :a) track determined according to weather conditionsb) great circle trackc) rhumb lined) spherical capable flight segment

71.1.3.1 (4983)On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :a) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ftb) 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ftc) 30 minutes at cruising speedd) 45 minutes at cruising speed

71.1.3.1 (4984)On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :a) 2 hours with normal cruising consumptionb) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ftc) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ftd) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

71.1.3.1 (4985)When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engineb) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two enginesc) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engined) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines

71.1.3.1 (4986)When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding :a) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperativeb) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operatingc) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperatived) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating

71.1.3.1 (4987)According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way

that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :a) 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.b) 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.c) 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.d) 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

71.1.3.1 (4988)According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the regulations are effective for at least :a) 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrivalb) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrivalc) 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrivald) 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival

71.1.3.1 (4989)A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :a) reduced rangeb) increased manoeuvring limitsc) increased flight enveloped) increased Mach number stability

71.1.3.1 (4990)For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :a) about the optimum altitudeb) about the lock-on altitudec) between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altituded) just below the optimum altitude

71.1.3.2 (4991)If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:a) great circle.b) rhumb line.c) curve of some type or other.d) spherical flight segment.

71.1.3.2 (4992)An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be :a) 328°.b) 345°.

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c) 003°.d) 334°.

71.1.3.2 (4993)A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to ""magnetic mode"", the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:a) -5°.b) +5°.c) -15°.d) +15°.

71.1.3.2 (4994)(For this question use annex 071-2070A)On the diagram where :Nt = True NorthNm = Magnetic NorthNg = Grid NorthIf the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the different north is :a) 3b) 4c) 1d) 2

71.1.3.2 (4995)You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A.The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to :a) 076°.b) 080°.c) 066°.d) 085°.

71.1.3.2 (4996)A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be :a) 136°.b) 276°.c) 316°.d) 164°.

71.1.3.2 (4997)On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the ""true"" orientation of the great circle

linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :a) 295°.b) 298°.c) 301°.d) 292°.

71.1.3.2 (4998)The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid).The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E.The true course followed at this moment is :a) 000°.b) 260°.c) 080°.d) 100°.

71.1.3.2 (4999)(For this question use annex 071-2084A)The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates:Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)a) 2b) 3c) 4d) 1

71.1.3.2 (5000)The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :a) +32.5°.b) +13°.c) +73.5°.d) -32.5°.

71.1.3.2 (5001)On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :a) 30 NM.b) 4.0 NM.

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c) 9.2 NM.d) 4.0 NM.

71.1.3.2 (5002)In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is :a) 240°.b) 060°.c) 110°.d) 340°.

71.1.3.2 (5003)At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON- ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is :NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic North pole.a) 325°.b) 035°.c) 180°.d) 000°.

71.1.3.2 (5004)With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following information :- Desired track (DTK) = 100°- Track (TK) = 120°You can conclude that the :a) Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)b) Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)c) Aircraft is converging towards its ideal coursed) Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course

71.1.3.2 (5005)In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a :a) great circle lineb) rhumb linec) spherical flight segmentd) straight map line

71.1.3.2 (5006)Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the tangentThe transport precession is equal to :a) g.sin Lmb) 15°/h.sin Lmc) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)d) g/2.sin Lm

71.1.3.2 (5007)Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the tangentThe correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :a) g/2.sin Lmb) 15°/h.sin Lmc) g.sin Lmd) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

71.1.3.2 (5008)During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:a) true Northb) grid Northc) magnetic Northd) compass North

71.1.3.2 (5009)During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :a) grid North for a given chartb) grid North for any chartc) true North for a given chartd) true North for any chart

71.1.3.2 (5010)Astronomic precession is :a) existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flyingb) independent of the latitudec) depending on the chart usedd) zero when the aircraft is on the ground

71.1.3.2 (5011)Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the tangentThe correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :a) 15°/h.sin Lmb) g.sin Lmc) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)d) g/2.sin Lm

71.1.3.2 (5012)Astronomic precession :a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphereb) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemispherec) is zero at the North poled) is zero at the South pole

71.1.3.2 (5013)Astronomic precession :a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere

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b) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemispherec) is zero at the North poled) is zero at the South pole

71.1.3.2 (5014)A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than :a) 6 micro-teslab) 17 micro-teslac) 38 micro teslad) 10 micro-tesla

71.1.3.3 (5015)For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:a) One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).b) One Inertial Navigation System (INS).c) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).d) Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

71.1.3.3 (5016)When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:a) maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.b) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.c) take any Mach number.d) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.

71.1.3.3 (5017)MNPS is the abbreviation for:a) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.b) Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.c) Military Network Performance Structure.d) Minimum Navigation Positioning System.

71.1.3.3 (5018)In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:a) Mach number.b) ground speed.c) true airspeed.d) indicated airspeed.

71.1.3.3 (5019)(For this question use annex 071-2083A)In order to meet the ""twin-engine"" flight standards authorised by the official departments of his company (1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen

between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:a) Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.b) Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.c) Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.d) Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.

71.1.3.3 (5020)In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:a) notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.b) request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.c) set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.d) immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.

71.1.3.3 (5021)A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight must be planned to take place :a) at flight level FL 280 or less.b) outside scheduled flight times.c) at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.d) at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.

71.1.3.3 (5022)The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is :a) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTCb) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTCc) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTCd) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

71.1.3.3 (5023)The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :a) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTCb) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTCc) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTCd) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

71.1.3.3 (5024)During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC , you will then normally be :a) out of the organized flight track system.b) within the organized daytime flight track system.c) within the organized night-time flight track system.d) in a random space.

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71.1.3.3 (5025)During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC , you will then normally be ,a) out of the organized flight track systemb) within the organized daytime flight track systemc) within the organized night-time flight track systemd) in a random space

71.1.3.3 (5026)The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least :a) Two inertial navigation units.b) Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.c) Three inertial navigation units.d) One inertial navigation unit.

71.1.3.3 (5027)The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :a) 10 minutes.b) 5 minutes.c) 15 minutes.d) 20 minutes.

71.1.3.3 (5028)The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is :a) 60 NM.b) 30 NM.c) 90 NM.d) 120 NM.

71.1.3.3 (5029)During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least :a) 5 minutesb) 10 minutesc) 15 minutesd) 20 minutes

71.1.3.3 (5030)If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic control, you :a) take an intermediate flight levelb) descend below the MNPS spacec) return to departure airportd) land at the nearest airport

71.1.3.3 (5031)The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from :a) 27° North to 90° North.b) 30° North to 90° North.c) 27° North to 70° North.d) 30° North to 70° North.

71.1.3.3 (5032)The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels:a) 285 and 420.b) 280 and 400.c) 280 and 390.d) 275 and 400.

71.1.3.3 (5033)In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air-air communications is :a) 131.800 MHz.b) 118.800 MHz.c) 121.800 MHz.d) 128.800 MHz.

71.1.3.3 (5034)In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:a) continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.b) return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.c) join one of the so-called ""special"" routes.d) change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.

71.1.3.3 (5035)The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is :a) 131.8 MHz.b) 121.5 MHz.c) 243 MHz.d) 118.5 MHz.

71.1.3.3 (5036)A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done :a) At or prior entering the NAT region.b) Prior entering the NAT region.c) As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.d) When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.

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71.1.3.3 (5037)If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by :a) the abbreviation ""NAT"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.b) inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.c) using the abbreviation ""OTS"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.d) inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.

71.1.3.3 (5038)In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should :a) If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.b) If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.c) If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.d) If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

71.1.3.3 (5039)In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should:a) If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.b) If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.c) If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.d) If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

71.1.3.3 (5040)In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:a) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its assigned route or track.b) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.c) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned route or track.d) Descend below FL275.

71.1.3.3 (5041)An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:a) 10° of longitude.b) 5° of longitude.c) 20° of longitude.d) 15° of longitude.

71.1.3.3 (5042)An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:a) 20° of longitude.b) 10° of longitude.c) 15° of longitude.d) 5° of longitude.

71.1.3.3 (5043)Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?a) 3 or more.b) 5 or more.c) 10 or more.d) 2 or more.

71.1.3.3 (5044)The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:a) 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.b) 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.c) 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.d) 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.

71.1.3.3 (5045)Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?a) 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.b) 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.c) 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.d) 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

71.1.3.3 (5046)At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?a) Between FL290 and FL410.b) Between FL275 and FL400.c) Between FL245 and FL410.d) Below FL290.

71.1.3.3 (5047)Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:a) Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.b) Flying above 3000 ft.c) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.d) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.

71.1.3.3 (5048)During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC , you will normally be :a) in random airspace.

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b) in a day flight route system.c) in a night flight route system.d) out of the organised route system.

71.1.3.3 (5049)During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC , you will normally be :a) in random airspaceb) in a day flight route systemc) in a night flight route systemd) out of the organized route system

71.1.3.3 (5050)The abbreviation MNPS means :a) Minimum Navigation Performance Specificationb) Main Navigation Performance Specificationc) Maximum Navigation Performance Specificationd) Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification

71.1.3.3 (5051)Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within :a) flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the poleb) flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the polec) sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the poled) flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole

71.1.3.3 (5052)Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :a) subject to a mandatory clearanceb) subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)c) not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlledd) subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed

71.1.3.3 (5053)The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft is :a) authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS controllerb) forbidden in all casesc) authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systemsd) authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space

71.1.3.3 (5054)Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over the North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew :a) carries out a holding patternb) returns to base immediately

c) keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight pland) keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air-filed flight plan

71.1.3.3 (5055)The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to :a) the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)b) rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)c) rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)d) Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace

71.1.3.3 (5056)In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :a) 1 000 ftb) 500 ftc) 2000ftd) 1 500 ft

71.1.3.3 (5057)An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :a) climb or descend 500 ftb) climb or descent 1 000 ftc) climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ftd) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

71.1.3.3 (5058)An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :a) climb or descend 1 000 ftb) climb or descent 500 ftc) climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ftd) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

71.1.3.3 (5059)An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in

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accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level,and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if :a) at FL410b) above FL 410c) below FL 410d) at FL 430

71.1.3.3 (5060)An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :a) below FL 410b) at FL 410c) above FL 410d) at FL 430

71.2.0.0 (5061)According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :a) 1 500 ftb) 3 000 ftc) 2 000 ftd) 1 000 ft

71.2.1.0 (5062)The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :a) the manufacturer and approved by the certification authorityb) the operator and is specified in the operation manualc) the operator and approved by the certification authorityd) the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer

71.2.1.0 (5063)The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :a) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)b) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

c) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)d) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

71.2.1.0 (5064)The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:a) the airline operator.b) the manufacturer.c) the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.d) the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.

71.2.1.0 (5065)A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:a) the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"".b) the minimum equipment list.c) the JAR OPS.d) the flight record.

71.2.1.0 (5066)A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:a) the minimum equipment list.b) the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".c) the JAR OPS.d) the flight manual.

71.2.1.0 (5067)The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the :a) operation manual.b) JAR OPS.c) flight manual.d) flight record.

71.2.1.0 (5068)The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:a) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authorityb) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authorityc) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authorityd) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer

71.2.1.0 (5069)The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:a) the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manualb) the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manualc) the operator, and it is appended to the flight manuald) the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual

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71.2.2.0 (5070)The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on :a) The aircraft front areas.b) The upper and lower wingsurfaces.c) The upper and lower rudder surfaces.d) Only the pitot and static probes.

71.2.2.0 (5071)The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect carburettor icing?a) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°CDew Point (DEWP) : +7°Cb) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°CDew Point (DEWP) : -5°Cc) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°CDew Point (DEWP) : +5°Cd) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°CDew point (DEWP) : -15°C

71.2.2.0 (5072)If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be:a) Greater than the actual.b) Less than the actual.c) Equal to the actual.d) Dependent on the temperature.

71.2.2.0 (5073)In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:a) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight manual.b) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm.c) external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.d) possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.

71.2.2.0 (5074)The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:a) stalling speedb) value of the stall angle of attackc) tuck underd) roll rate

71.2.2.0 (5075)The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is :a) ICAO Appendix 18b) ICAO Appendix 8c) the Washington Conventiond) Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957

71.2.2.0 (5076)When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the

stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 3, 5b) 2, 4, 5c) 1, 2, 3d) 2, 3, 5

71.2.2.0 (5077)The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a :a) certain time of protection depending on its concentration.b) 24 hours protection time.c) certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature.d) 3 hours protection time.

71.2.2.0 (5078)If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct action is to :a) carry out a further de-icing processb) complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezingc) switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborned) complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded

71.2.2.0 (5079)At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :a) can occur, but only at a low power settingb) cannot occurc) can occur, but only at full power or cruise settingsd) is possible at any setting

71.2.2.0 (5080)For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be shortest ?a) Freezing rainb) Steady snowc) Freezing fogd) Frost

71.2.2.0 (5081)During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:a) at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).b) at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).c) at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).d) a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

71.2.2.0 (5082)During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:

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a) the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot.b) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.c) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.d) the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.

71.2.2.0 (5083)Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:a) The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systemsb) The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidlyc) The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluidd) A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems

71.2.2.0 (5084)In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off by:1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2b) 3, 4c) 2, 3d) 1, 4

71.2.2.0 (5085)An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when :a) it is rotating (before taking-off).b) releasing the brakes in order to take-off.c) it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.d) leaving the icing zone.

71.2.2.0 (5086)An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid:a) must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off.b) must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.c) need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.d) must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.

71.2.2.0 (5087)The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:1. the type and intensity of the showers2. the ambient temperature3. the relative humidity4. the direction and speed of the wind5. the temperature of the airplane skin6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperatureThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

b) 1, 3, 5, 6c) 2, 3, 4, 5d) 1, 2, 4, 6

71.2.2.0 (5088)The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the protection time:a) during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.b) when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.c) when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.d) when the airplane is into the wind.

71.2.2.0 (5089)Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:a) separate on each side of the runway.b) stagnate on the runway.c) separate to the right side.d) separate to the left side.

71.2.2.0 (5090)When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be protected again:a) First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.b) You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.c) You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.d) you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.

71.2.2.0 (5091)The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather conditions of :a) frostb) freezing fogc) rain on a cold soaked wingd) steady snow

71.2.2.0 (5092)For stable clouds:1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -10°C2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and -15°C3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mmWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements?a) 2001-03-05b) 2002-04-06c) 2002-03-05d) 2001-04-06

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71.2.3.0 (5093)The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, show that birds fly away :a) about two seconds beforehandb) about ten seconds beforehandc) as soon as they hear the engines noised) from the beginning of the takeoff roll

71.2.3.0 (5094)A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer from :a) from 0 to 150 m.b) from 500 to 1200 m.c) from 100 to 800 m.d) from 200 to 500 m.

71.2.3.0 (5095)90 % of bird strikes occur :a) under 500 mb) above 1 000 mc) between 500 and 1 000 md) between 500 and 1 500 m

71.2.3.0 (5096)Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?a) long grassb) edible rubbishc) an area liable to floodingd) short gang-mown grass

71.2.3.0 (5097)Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ?a) a refuse tip in close proximityb) mowing and maintaining the grass longc) a modern sewage tip in close proximityd) the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel

71.2.3.0 (5098)The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is :a) broadcasting of recorded distress callsb) firing shellcrackersc) various visual methodsd) the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc

71.2.3.0 (5099)As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are:1 - ATIS.2 - NOTAMs.3 - BIRDTAMs.4 - Weather radar.5 - The report by another crew.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

a) 1,2,5b) 1,2,3,4,5c) 1,3,4d) 2,5

71.2.3.0 (5100)You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:a) immediately inform the appropriate ground station.b) inform the other aircraft by radio.c) inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.d) draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.

71.2.3.0 (5101)During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be made immediately. Following this incident the pilot :a) must file a Bird Strike reportb) must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warningc) must file a airworthiness reportd) is not obliged to report this incident

71.2.4.0 (5102)About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:a) Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .b) They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .c) Such procedures do not exist.d) They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.

71.2.4.0 (5103)Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances :1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots.2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots.3. when the runway is not clear or dry.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,2,3.b) 1,2.c) 1,3.d) 2,3.

71.2.4.0 (5104)When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :a) 300 m (1000 ft)b) 450 m (1500 ft)c) 150 m (500 ft)d) 600 m (2000 ft)

71.2.4.0 (5105)Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator is :a) for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.

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b) for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.c) different for a same airplane type, according to airports.d) different according to airports and airplane types.

71.2.4.0 (5106)Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS the :a) operatorb) state of the operatorc) state in which the aeroplane is operatingd) commander

71.2.4.0 (5107)Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological condition (VMC) ?a) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidanceb) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 ktc) It has a tail wind component of any valued) It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt

71.2.4.0 (5108)According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching :a) 1 000 ftb) 500 ftc) 1 500 ftd) 3 000 ft

71.2.4.0 (5109)According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport :a) is procedure Bb) is procedure Ac) is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distributiond) depends on the wind component

71.2.4.0 (5110)In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes :a) no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.b) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.c) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is

limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)d) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

71.2.5.0 (5111)To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:a) useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.b) useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.c) useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.d) possible and recommended.

71.2.5.0 (5112)Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:a) all available extinguishers simultaneously.b) all available liquids.c) all available extinguishers in sequence.d) only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.

71.2.5.0 (5113)After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:a) only from front or rear side.b) only from left or right side.c) from any side.d) under no circumstances.

71.2.5.0 (5114)Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:a) crash axes or crowbars.b) water and all type of beverage.c) a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.d) a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.

71.2.5.0 (5115)If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :a) Put on the mask and goggles.b) Begin an emergency descent.c) Determine which system is causing the smoke.d) Cut off all air conditioning units.

71.2.5.0 (5116)You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,2,3,4b) 3,4c) 1,2,3d) 2,3

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71.2.5.0 (5117)You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4b) 1, 2, 3c) 2, 3d) 1, 4

71.2.5.0 (5118)The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is :a) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.b) Water may only be used for minor fires.c) A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.d) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.

71.2.5.0 (5119)The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the :a) ventilation of the cargo compartmentb) pressurizationc) total airconditioningd) trim air

71.2.5.0 (5120)Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the :a) temperature of the brakes.b) temperature of the hydraulic fluid.c) pressure of the hydraulic fluid.d) pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

71.2.5.0 (5121)A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is :a) dry powderb) waterc) CO2 (carbon dioxide)d) foam

71.2.5.0 (5122)A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b) 1, 3, 5c) 2, 3, 4d) 2, 4, 5

71.2.5.0 (5123)A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the

correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5b) 1, 3, 5c) 2, 3, 4d) 2, 4, 5

71.2.5.0 (5124)A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3, 5b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 3, 4d) 2, 4, 5

71.2.5.0 (5125)You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of :1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 3 and 4

71.2.5.0 (5126)You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,2,3b) 1,2,3,4c) 2,3,4d) 1,2,4

71.2.5.0 (5127)An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle.The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:a) fire is no longer detected.b) the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.c) the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.d) all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.

71.2.5.0 (5128)After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:a) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.b) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.c) apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.d) apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.

71.2.5.0 (5129)In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:1. a dry powder fire extinguisher2. a water spray atomizer3. a water fire-extinguisher4. a

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CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximumThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2b) 2, 3, 4c) 3, 4d) 1, 4

71.2.5.0 (5130)In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :a) carry out a dry cranking.b) carry out a damp cranking.c) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.d) fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

71.2.5.0 (5131)To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire-extinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 3, 4b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2d) 2, 3, 4

71.2.5.0 (5132)To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:a) you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.b) Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.c) Extinguish fire only.d) Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.

71.2.5.0 (5133)A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:1- class A fires2- class B fires3- electrical source fires4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicalsWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4b) 04-Fevc) 04-Mard) 2001-02-03

71.2.5.0 (5134)The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 - dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4b) 2002-03-04c) 1d) 04-Mar

71.2.5.0 (5135)The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23

- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?a) 2002-03-04b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4c) 2d) 04-Mar

71.2.5.0 (5136)H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:a) Class A firesb) Class B firesc) electrical source firesd) special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

71.2.5.0 (5137)CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - electrical source fires4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productWhich of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:a) 2001-02-03b) 2001-02-04c) 2002-03-04d) 2001-03-04

71.2.5.0 (5138)A class A fire is a fire of:a) solid material, generally of organic natureb) liquid or liquefiable solidc) electrical origind) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

71.2.5.0 (5139)A class B fire is a fire of:a) liquid or liquefiable solidb) solid material usually of organic naturec) electrical source fired) special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

71.2.6.0 (5140)We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if :1. threre is a change in environnemental sounds.2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise.3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior becomes equal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,2,3.b) 1,2.c) 1,3.d) 2,3.

71.2.6.0 (5141)An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?a) to put on oxygen masks

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b) disconnect the autopilotc) transmit a MAYDAY messaged) place the seat belts sign to ON

71.2.6.0 (5142)When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate :a) a rate of climbb) a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpmc) zerod) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

71.2.6.0 (5143)If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :a) decreasesb) increasesc) remains constantd) attains its maximum permitted operating limit

71.2.6.0 (5144)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :a) 24500 ftb) 22500 ftc) 27000 ftd) 29000 ft

71.2.6.0 (5145)(For this question use annex 071-10645A)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :a) 20750 ftb) 12000 ftc) 8600 ftd) 2900 ft

71.2.6.0 (5146)Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not impaired is :a) 8000 ftb) 25000 ftc) 14000 ftd) 2500 ft

71.2.6.0 (5147)Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate

altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?a) 32000 ftb) 25000 ftc) 14000 ftd) 8000 ft

71.2.6.0 (5148)The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :a) 13000 ftb) 14000 ftc) 15000 ftd) 25000 ft

71.2.6.0 (5149)The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:a) 12 seconds.b) 30 seconds.c) 1 minute.d) 5 minutes.

71.2.6.0 (5150)During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be :a) to put on the oxygen maskb) to set the transponder to 7700c) to warn the ATCd) to comfort your passengers

71.2.6.0 (5151)A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:1. mist in the cabin2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft3. expansion of body gases4. blast of air released violently from the lungsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 3, 4b) 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2, 3d) 1, 4

71.2.6.0 (5152)A slow decompression may be caused by:1. a slight airtightness defect2. a bad functioning of the pressurization3. the loss of a window4. the loss of a doorThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 3, 4d) 1, 2, 3

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71.2.7.0 (5153)In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 2, 4b) 1, 3, 5c) 2, 3d) 3, 5

71.2.7.0 (5154)During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1. flies above the glide path2. flies below the glide path3. has an increasing true airspeed4. has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :a) 2,4b) 2,3c) 1,3d) 1,4

71.2.7.0 (5155)During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below the gilde path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :a) 2,4.b) 2,3.c) 1,3.d) 1,4.

71.2.7.0 (5156)During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below theglide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3.b) 1,4.c) 2,3.d) 2,4.

71.2.7.0 (5157)During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide path2- flies below the glide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedthe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3.b) 1,4.c) 2,3.d) 2,4.

71.2.7.0 (5158)After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the climb-out path2- flies below the climb-out path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :a) 2,4.b) 2,3.c) 1,3.d) 1,4.

71.2.7.0 (5159)In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe combination of correct statements is :a) 1,3b) 1,4c) 2,3d) 2,4

71.2.7.0 (5160)When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends :a) to descendb) to climbc) not to change its trajectoryd) to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength

71.2.7.0 (5161)One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :a) can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planesb) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical planec) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal planed) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

71.2.7.0 (5162)Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?a) Indicated airspeed.b) Pitch angle.c) Vertical speed.d) Groundspeed.

71.2.7.0 (5163)While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must :a) maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.b) reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.

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c) take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.d) reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.

71.2.7.0 (5164)While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a ""microburst"". You will expect to encounter:a) windshears (vertical and horizontal).b) wake turbulence .c) supercooled water.d) convection motion of air mass.

71.2.7.0 (5165)If you encounter a ""microburst"" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will have:1 - a head wind2 - a strong rear wind3 - better climb performances4 - a diminution of climb gradient5 - an important thrust dropThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1,3b) 2,4c) 1,4d) 4,5

71.2.7.0 (5166)Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is :a) substantialb) smallc) mediumd) null

71.2.7.0 (5167)In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to :a) increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angleb) climb away at Vat + 20 ktc) reduce speed to V2 and holdd) slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb

71.2.7.0 (5168)An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of :a) 80 kt.b) 40 kt.c) 60 kt.d) 20 kt.

71.2.7.0 (5169)Wind shear is:

a) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distanceb) a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distancec) a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distanced) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance

71.2.8.0 (5170)In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:a) The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.b) The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.c) The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.d) The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.

71.2.8.0 (5171)In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at :a) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.b) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.c) high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.d) low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

71.2.8.0 (5172)The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :a) Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configurationb) Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configurationc) Small, light, at low speed in clean configurationd) Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

71.2.8.0 (5173)To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :a) Above and upwind from the larger aircraftb) Above and downwind from the larger aircraftc) Below and downwind from the larger aircraftd) Below and upwind from the larger aircraft

71.2.8.0 (5174)The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct statement is:a) 1, 2, 3b) 1, 4c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 2, 3, 4

71.2.8.0 (5175)The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :a) high weight and low speed

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b) high weight and high speedc) low weight and low speedd) low weight and high speed

71.2.8.0 (5176)The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1.b) 3.c) 2 and 3.d) 1, 2 and 3.

71.2.8.0 (5177)Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established :a) liftb) dragc) spin upd) lift destruction

71.2.8.0 (5178)Wake turbulence risk is highest :a) when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.b) if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.c) following a preceding aircraft at high speed.d) when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

71.2.8.0 (5179)For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?a) 7.4 km (4 NM)b) 9.3 km (5 NM)c) 11.1 km (6 NM)d) 3.7 km (2 NM)

71.2.8.0 (5180)When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever possible :a) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its path.b) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path.c) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.d) different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

71.2.8.0 (5181)When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side,

you adopt a path, whenever possible :a) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its path.b) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.c) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.d) distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.

71.2.8.0 (5182)The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:a) 3 minutes.b) 30 seconds.c) 1 minute.d) 10 minutes.

71.2.8.0 (5183)The wake turbulence:a) starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the ground.b) starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.c) starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.d) starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.

71.2.8.0 (5184)An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :a) generating lift.b) flying at high speed.c) using a high engine R.P.M.d) flying with its gear and flaps extended.

71.2.8.0 (5185)The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :a) from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.b) clockwise.c) counterclockwise.d) from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.

71.2.8.0 (5186)When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off :a) beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.b) in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.c) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway .d) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the runway .

71.2.8.0 (5187)For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar

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separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?a) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutesb) 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutesc) 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutesd) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

71.2.8.0 (5188)For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?a) 3 minutesb) 4 minutesc) 5 minutessd) 2 minutes

71.2.8.0 (5189)In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg :a) Mb) Hc) Ld) S

71.2.8.0 (5190)For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?a) 3 minutesb) 4 minutesc) 5 minutesd) 2 minutes

71.2.8.0 (5191)Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :a) a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.b) when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway.c) during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.d) a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.

71.2.8.0 (5192)When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be :a) 3 MIN

b) 1 MINc) 2 MINd) 4 MIN

71.2.8.0 (5193)According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :a) to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 mb) to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing thresholdc) to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to crossd) Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

71.2.8.0 (5194)According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to :a) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraftb) MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 mc) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runwayd) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

71.2.8.0 (5195)In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of :a) 5 NMb) 4 NMc) 3 NMd) 2 NM

71.2.8.0 (5196)According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to :a) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraftb) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)c) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runwayd) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

71.2.8.0 (5197)According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a :a) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)

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b) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)c) HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)d) MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)

71.2.8.0 (5198)DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of :a) 136 000 Kg or moreb) 135 000 Kg or morec) less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kgd) 146 000 Kg or more

71.2.9.0 (5199)What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :a) 7500b) 7600c) 7700d) 7800

71.2.9.0 (5200)In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:a) you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.b) you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.c) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.d) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.

71.2.9.0 (5201)In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the :a) State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAOb) State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.c) State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAOd) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only

71.2.9.0 (5202)Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a report of the act to :a) both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operatorb) the local authority onlyc) the Autority of the State of the operator only

d) the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

71.2.9.0 (5203)Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until their journey can be continued ? The :a) contracting State in which the unlawful interference occursb) J.A.A.c) Commander of the aircraftd) aeroplane's operator

71.2.9.0 (5204)What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference :a) code 7500b) code 7600c) code 7700d) code 2000

71.2.9.0 (5205)The flight deck door should be capable of being :a) locked from within the compartmentb) directly locked from outside the compartmentc) remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartmentd) remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment

71.2.9.0 (5206)According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:a) a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.b) a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.c) distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).d) a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of a depressurization in the compartment area.

71.2.9.0 (5207)In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :a) 7500b) 7600c) 7700d) 2000

71.2.10.0 (5208)The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened,a) head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.b) head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.c) head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.d) cross the arm in front of the face.

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71.2.10.0 (5209)An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to :a) increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the boundary layerb) reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landingc) maintain the normal approach speed up to landingd) carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to the rain

71.2.10.0 (5210)Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will:1 - remain on the runway,2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway,3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on,4 - turn off all systems.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1,4.b) 1,3.c) 2,3.d) 2,4.

71.2.10.0 (5211)The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2. head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 4, 5b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 2, 3, 4d) 2, 4, 5

71.2.10.0 (5212)Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:a) a fast depressurization.b) a slow depressurization.c) an electrical fire.d) a plastic fire.

71.2.10.0 (5213)In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :1. evacuate women and children first.2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability.4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2, 3, 4b) 2, 3c) 1, 2, 3, 4d) 1, 4

71.2.10.0 (5214)For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be

shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :a) 90 secondsb) 132 secondsc) 120 secondsd) 60 seconds

71.2.10.0 (5215)The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:a) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surfaceb) a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupantsc) a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupantsd) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

71.2.11.0 (5216)A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency :a) unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operativeb) until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints at landing touchdownc) in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning systemd) in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length

71.2.11.0 (5217)If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:a) in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.b) in a holding stack, after control clearance.c) under flight level 50 (FL50).d) during final phase of approach.

71.2.11.0 (5218)In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :a) 15 minutesb) 30 minutesc) 60 minutesd) 90 minutes

71.2.11.0 (5219)From the following list :1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :

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a) 1,2,3 and 4b) 1,3 and 4c) 1 and 4d) 2 and 3

71.2.12.0 (5220)Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by:a) The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air"".b) The UNO document entitled ""Dangerous Goods Regulations"".c) The directives of the Community Union.d) The IATA document entitled ""Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air"".

71.2.12.0 (5221)Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?a) The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.b) The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.c) The operator.d) It is not specified.

71.2.12.0 (5222)A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in :a) the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.b) Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.c) Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.d) the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

71.2.12.0 (5223)The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :a) the shipper.b) the operator.c) the captain.d) the handling agent.

71.2.12.0 (5224)In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a :a) transport document for hazardous materials.b) representative of the company owning the materials.c) specialized handling employee.d) system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.

71.2.12.0 (5225)The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the :a) operation manual.b) flight manual.

c) AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).d) air carrier certificate.

71.2.12.0 (5226)(For this question use annex 071-9199A)Considering the two holds of an aircraft :Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate freight pallets or luggage containers.You are asked to load :2 pallets of live animals marked ""AVI""2 luggage containers marked ""BAG""1 mortal remains marked ""HUM""1 pallet of food product marked ""EAT""1 pallet of radioactive materials marked ""RRY""1 pallet of toxic materials marked ""RHF""The locations still vacant shall be marked ""XXX""According to the table of compatibility of special freight and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the most operational distribution in the holds shall be :a) Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRYHold 2 : AVI - AVI - BAG - EATb) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHFHold 2 : BAG - AVI - AVI - HUMc) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVI - AVIHold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHFd) Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUMHold 2 : AVI - AVI - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)

71.2.12.0 (5227)ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with :a) the safety of the air transport of hazardous materialsb) the air transport of live animalsc) the noise pollution of aircraftd) the technical operational use of aircraft

71.2.12.0 (5228)In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :a) sender.b) captain.c) station manager.d) aerodrome manager.

71.2.12.0 (5229)The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the :a) ICAO document named ""Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products""b) aircraft's flight manual.c) IATA document ""Dangerous products transportation"".d) JAR-OPS documentation.

71.2.12.0 (5230)A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:1. on himself/herself2. in his/her hand luggage3. in his/her checked luggageThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1b) 1, 2, 3c) 1, 2d) 2, 3

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71.2.12.0 (5231)In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should be set for the markings related to dangerous goods :a) Englishb) Frenchc) Spanishd) English, French or Spanish

71.2.12.0 (5232)From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons :a) 1,2 and 3 onlyb) 1,2 and 5 onlyc) 3,4 and 5 onlyd) 2,3 and 4 only

71.2.12.0 (5233)The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:a) air carrier certificate.b) registration certificate.c) airworthiness certificate.d) insurance certificate.

71.2.12.0 (5234)(For this question use appendix )If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix it is :a) a toxic material or gasb) a corpsec) an infectious materiald) an explosive material

71.2.12.0 (5235)Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:a) the airline complies with the Technical Instructionsb) national aviation administration permission has been grantedc) government permission has been grantedd) no passenger is carried on the same flight

71.2.12.0 (5236)(For this question use appendix )For the two labels represented in the appendix, the principal and secondary risks are respectively:a) toxic material, corrosiveb) corrosive material, toxicc) corrosive material, infectiousd) infectious material, corrosive

71.2.13.0 (5237)The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the :a) depth of the standing water on the runway.

b) aircraft's weight.c) strength of the headwind.d) amount of the lift off speed.

71.2.13.0 (5238)If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be increased by:a) 15%.b) 20%.c) 10%.d) 5%.

71.2.13.0 (5239)For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:a) increases the hydroplaning speed.b) decreases the hydroplaning speed.c) maintains the hydroplaning speed.d) maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.

71.2.13.0 (5240)Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:a) is very smooth and dirty.b) is very smooth and clean.c) is rough textured.d) the tyre treads are not in a good state.

71.2.13.0 (5241)The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of:a) viscous hydroplaning.b) dynamic hydroplaning.c) rubber reversion hydroplaning.d) rubber steaming hydroplaning.

71.2.13.0 (5242)A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:a) contaminated.b) wet.c) flooded.d) damp.

71.2.13.0 (5243)In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1, 3

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b) 1, 2, 3c) 1, 2d) 4

71.2.13.0 (5244)In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain :1. you increase your approach speed,2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. you decrease your approach speed,4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. you land as smoothly as possible,6. you brake energically.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1, 2, 4b) 3, 5c) 2, 3, 4d) 1, 4, 5, 6

71.2.13.0 (5245)The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a :a) combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.b) percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.c) zero followed by two decimals.d) letter falling between A and E.

71.2.13.0 (5246)For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 123 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 95 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 2.b) 1 and 4.c) 3 and 4.d) 2 and 3.

71.2.13.0 (5247)For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 114 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 83 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :a) 1 and 2.b) 1 and 4.c) 2 and 3.d) 3 and 4.

71.2.13.0 (5248)For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 104 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 96 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements i :

a) 1 and 2.b) 1 and 4.c) 2 and 3.d) 3 and 4.

71.2.13.0 (5249)For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 96 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 127 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 2.b) 1 and 4.c) 2 and 3.d) 3 and 4.

71.2.13.0 (5250)For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.2- speed is greater than 132 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 117 kt.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 1 and 2.b) 1 and 4.c) 2 and 3.d) 3 and 4.

71.2.13.0 (5251)The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :a) 24 hoursb) 12 hoursc) 6 hoursd) 3 hours

71.2.13.0 (5252)Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying brakes is :a) 129 ktb) 114 ktc) 100 ktd) 80 kt

71.2.13.0 (5253)Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported :a) in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAMb) it is not reportedc) by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metresd) as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM

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71.2.13.0 (5254)A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is :a) poorb) unreliablec) mediumd) good

71.2.13.0 (5255)In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when:a) its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.b) surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.c) it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.d) it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

71.2.13.0 (5256)Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:a) 15%b) 18%c) 20%d) 17,60%

71.2.13.0 (5257)In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:a) 2, 3, 4b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 3, 4d) 1, 3, 4, 5

71.2.13.0 (5258)The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon will appear is approximately:a) 112 ktb) 56 ktc) 87 ktd) 145 kt

81.1.1.1 (5259)In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... :a) (I) decrease, (II) increase.b) (I) increase, (II) increase.

c) (I) increase, (II) decrease.d) (I) increase, (II) decrease.

81.1.1.1 (5260)The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are:a) (I) kg / m3, (II) N.b) (I) kg / m², (II) kg.c) (I) N / m3, (II) N.d) (I) N / kg, (II) kg.

81.1.1.1 (5261)The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are:a) (I) N / m², (II) N / m².b) (I) N / m3, (II) kg / m².c) (I) kg / m, (II) N / m².d) (I) N / m, (II) kg.

81.1.1.1 (5262)Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?a) F=m. ab) m=F.ac) a=F. md) F=m / a

81.1.1.1 (5263)The static pressure is acting:a) in all directions.b) only in direction of the flow.c) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.d) only in the direction of the total pressure.

81.1.1.1 (5264)Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is V. An increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will:a) decrease the mass flow.b) increase the mass flow.c) not affect the mass flow.d) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.

81.1.1.1 (5265)Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?a) The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.b) The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.c) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.d) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.

81.1.1.1 (5266)In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines converge the static pressure will :

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a) decrease.b) increase.c) not change.d) increase initially, then decrease.

81.1.1.1 (5267)Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure)a) pt = ps + qb) pt = ps - qc) pt = q - psd) pt = ps / q

81.1.1.1 (5268)The unit of density is:a) kg/m³b) psic) kg/cm²d) Bar

81.1.1.1 (5269)The unit of measurement of pressure is:a) psib) kg/m³c) lb/gald) kg/dm²

81.1.1.1 (5270)The total pressure is:a) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.b) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.c) ½ rho V²d) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.

81.1.1.1 (5271)The (subsonic) static pressure:a) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.b) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.c) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.d) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

81.1.1.1 (5272)The true airspeed (TAS) is:a) lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level.b) higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.c) equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level.d) lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.

81.1.1.1 (5273)The difference between IAS and TAS will:a) decrease at decreasing altitude.b) increase at decreasing temperature.c) increase at increasing air density.d) decrease at increasing speed.

81.1.1.1 (5274)What is the unit of measurement for power ?a) Nm/sb) kgm/s²c) Pa/m²d) N/m

81.1.1.1 (5275)The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as :a) Newtonb) Pascalc) Jouled) Watt

81.1.1.1 (5276)The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow inside isa) decreasing.b) not changing.c) increasing.d) sonic.

81.1.1.1 (5277)If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow)a) rho1 = rho2b) rho1 < rho2c) rho1 > rho2d) The density depends on the change of the tube area.

81.1.1.1 (5278)Bernoulli's equation can be written as :(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure)a) pt - q = psb) pt = ps - qc) pt + ps = qd) pt = q - ps

81.1.1.1 (5279)Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.a) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

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b) 1 and 2 are correct.c) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.d) 1 and 2 are incorrect.

81.1.1.3 (5280)The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is:a) angle of attack.b) glide path angle.c) climb path angle.d) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.

81.1.1.3 (5281)Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is:a) negative (pitch-down).b) equal to zero.c) infinited) positive (pitch-up).

81.1.1.3 (5282)On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is:a) zerob) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.c) positive (pitch-up)d) negative (pitch-down)

81.1.1.3 (5283)Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:a) relative wind/airflow.b) chord line.c) horizon.d) longitudinal axis.

81.1.1.3 (5284)The correct drag formula is:a) D= CD 1/2 RHO V² Sb) D= CD 2 RHO V² Sc) D= CD 1/2 RHO V Sd) D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S

81.1.1.3 (5285)Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to thea) relative wind/airflow.b) chord line.c) longitudinal axis.d) horizon.

81.1.1.4 (5286)The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the:a) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow.

b) bottom surface and the horizontalc) bottom surface and the relative airflow.d) bottom surface and the chord line.

81.1.1.4 (5287)The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between :a) the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.b) the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.c) the fuselage core line and the free stream direction.d) the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.

81.1.1.4 (5288)The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:a) angle of incidence.b) glide path angle.c) angle of attack.d) climb path angle.

81.1.1.4 (5289)The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:a) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow.b) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.c) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wingd) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio

81.1.1.4 (5290)Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?a) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0b) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0c) for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0d) for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0

81.1.1.4 (5291)The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:a) % chord.b) camber.c) meters.d) degrees cross section tail angle.

81.1.1.4 (5292)""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :a) the camber lineb) the chord linec) the mean aerodynamic chord lined) the upper camber line

81.1.1.4 (5293)The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between :

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a) The undisturbed airflow and the chordline.b) The local airflow and the mean camberline.c) The local airflow and the chordline.d) The undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline.

81.1.1.5 (5294)The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform isa) the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and liftb) the chord of a large rectangular wingc) the average chord of the actual aeroplaned) the wing area divided by the wing span

81.1.1.5 (5295)The aspect ratio of the wing:a) is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord.b) is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord.c) is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span.d) is the ratio between chord and root chord.

81.1.1.5 (5296)Dihedral of the wing is:a) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.b) the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.c) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis.d) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon.

81.1.2.0 (5297)(For this question use annex 081-6253A)How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?a) V1 = 0 and V2 > Vb) V1 < V2 and V2 < Vc) V1 = 0 and V2 = Vd) V1 > V2 and V2 < V

81.1.2.0 (5298)Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur ?a) Upper sideb) Lower sidec) In front of the stagnation pointd) In the stagnation point

81.1.2.2 (5299)With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:a) (I) down, (II) forward.b) (I) up, (II) aft.c) (I) down, (II) aft.d) (I) up, (II) forward.

81.1.2.2 (5300)Which statement is correct?a) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves downwards.b) The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up.c) The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.d) The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the centre of pressure is not.

81.1.2.4 (5301)The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:a) the centre of pressure.b) the c.g. location.c) the point of maximum thickness of the wing.d) the suction point of the wing.

81.1.2.4 (5302)The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will:a) shift forward.b) not shift.c) shift aft.d) shift in spanwise direction.

81.1.2.5 (5303)Lift is generated when:a) a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards.b) the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered.c) an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream.d) a certain mass of air is retarded.

81.1.2.5 (5304)The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :a) is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.b) increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.c) is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.d) is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.

81.1.2.7 (5305)On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane) :a) move forward.b) move aft.c) remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.d) remain unaffected.

81.1.3.1 (5306)The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph:a) above the origin.b) in the origin.

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c) below the origin.d) nowhere.

81.1.3.1 (5307)The lift formula is:a) L= CL 1/2 RHO V² Sb) L= Wc) L= CL 2 RHO V² Sd) L= n W

81.1.3.1 (5308)The terms ""q"" and ""S"" in the lift formula are:a) dynamic pressure and the area of the wingb) square root of surface and wing loadingc) static pressure and wing surface aread) static pressure and dynamic pressure

81.1.3.1 (5309)The critical angle of attack:a) remains unchanged regardless of gross weightb) increases if the CG is moved forwardc) decreases if the CG is moved aftd) changes with an increase in gross weight

81.1.3.1 (5310)An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)a) the TAS at the higher altitude is higherb) the TAS at both altitudes is the samec) the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determinedd) the TAS at the higher altitude is lower

81.1.3.1 (5311)(For this question use annex 081-6261A)Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed?a) Point db) Point ac) Point bd) Point c

81.1.3.2 (5312)The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on:a) The airstream velocity.b) The specific mass of the body.c) The weight of the body.d) The c.g. location of the body.

81.1.3.2 (5313)A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :a) 16 .b) 4 .c) 8 .d) 12 .

81.1.3.2 (5314)A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor :a) 2 .b) 4 .c) 8 .d) 1.4 .

81.1.3.2 (5315)Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:a) CL is much greater than CDb) CL has approximately the same value as CDc) CL is lower than CDd) CL is much lower than CD

81.1.3.2 (5316)The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :a) CL and CDb) TAS and stall speedc) Angle of attack and CLd) CD and angle of attack

81.1.3.2 (5317)The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:a) depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section.b) are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.c) are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack.d) vary linearly with the angle of attack.

81.1.3.2 (5318)The aerofoil polar is:a) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient.b) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack.c) the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.d) a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord.

81.1.3.2 (5319)The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :a) 3 .b) 9 .c) 6 .d) 1.5 .

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81.1.3.2 (5320)Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant) :a) The drag increases.b) This has no effect.c) The drag decreases.d) The drag is only affected by the ground speed.

81.1.3.2 (5321)Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS are constant):a) The drag increases.b) This has no effect.c) The drag decreases.d) The drag is only affected by the ground speed.

81.1.3.2 (5322)Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly thea) glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.b) glide distance from a given altitude.c) distance for horizontal flight.d) distance for climb up to a certain altitude.

81.1.4.1 (5323)The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from :a) beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tipb) the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edgec) beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edged) the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge

81.1.4.1 (5324)Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct?a) The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.b) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.c) The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction.d) The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.

81.1.4.1 (5325)Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local profile lift coefficient at the wingroot ?a) Rectangular.b) Elliptical.c) Tapered.d) Positive angle of sweep.

81.1.4.2 (5326)If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span)

a) decrease.b) increase.c) remain the same.d) increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.

81.1.4.2 (5327)The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with:a) 1/V²b) V²c) Vd) 1/V

81.1.4.2 (5328)Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:a) aeroplane weight.b) aeroplane wing location.c) angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line.d) engine thrust.

81.1.4.2 (5329)Which of the following will reduce induced drag?a) Elliptical lift distribution.b) Low aspect ratio.c) Flying at high angles of attack.d) Extending the flaps.

81.1.4.2 (5330)Induced drag is created by the:a) spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices.b) interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage.c) separation of the boundary layer over the wing.d) propeller wash blowing across the wing.

81.1.4.2 (5331)What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's wing on induced drag?a) It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced.b) It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area.c) It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag.d) It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash.

81.1.4.2 (5332)Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant)a) Elliptical.b) Rectangular.c) Tapered.d) Circular.

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81.1.4.2 (5333)Induced drag may be reduced by:a) an increase in aspect ratiob) an increase in the taper ratio of the wingc) a decrease of the aspect ratiod) the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil

81.1.4.2 (5334)The induced drag:a) increases as the lift coefficient increases.b) increases as the aspect ratio increases.c) has no relation to the lift coefficient.d) increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.

81.1.4.2 (5335)The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is:a) a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced dragb) there is no relationshipc) induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio valued) an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag

81.1.4.2 (5336)A high aspect ratio wing produces:a) a decrease in induced dragb) less sensitivity to gust effectsc) a decrease in stall speedd) an increase in induced drag

81.1.4.2 (5337)Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of :a) CL² and AR (aspect ratio)b) CL and CDc) CL and b (wing span)d) CL²and S (wing surface)

81.1.4.2 (5338)High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of :a) Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attackb) Increasing lift and critical angle of attackc) Increasing lift and dragd) Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack

81.1.4.2 (5339)Wingletsa) decrease the induced drag.b) decrease the static lateral stability.c) increase the manoeuvrability.d) create an elliptical lift distribution.

81.1.4.2 (5340)Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ?a) Wing tipb) Engine cowlingc) Wing root junctiond) Landing gear

81.1.4.2 (5341)The induced angle of attack is the result of:a) downwash due to tip vortices.b) a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.c) downwash due to flow separation.d) change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.

81.1.4.2 (5342)The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with:a) CL²b) CLc) square root (CL)d) CLmax

81.1.5.0 (5343)(For this question use annex 081-6239A)Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag?a) Body cb) Body ac) Body bd) Body d

81.1.5.1 (5344)The interference drag is created as a result ofa) interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage).b) downwash behind the wing.c) separation of the induced vortex.d) the addition of induced and parasite drag.

81.1.5.2 (5345)The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the:a) square of the speed.b) speed.c) angle of attack.d) square of the angle of attack.

81.1.5.2 (5346)In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing speed?a) (1) decreases and (2) increases.b) (1) increases and (2) increases.c) (1) decreases and (2) decreases.d) (1) increases and (2) decreases.

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81.1.5.3 (5347)An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:a) (i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4b) (i) 1/4 (ii) 2c) (i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16d) (i) 4 (ii) 1/2

81.1.5.3 (5348)What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed changes ?a) induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced drag decreases with decreasing weightb) induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag decreases with increasing weightc) induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing weightd) induced drag increases with decreasing speed and induced drag increases with increasing weight

81.1.5.3 (5349)(For this question use annex 081-6250A)The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered the axis X showsa) the induced drag.b) the total drag.c) the lift force.d) the parasite drag.

81.1.5.5 (5350)How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight?a) Decreasing, then increasing.b) Decreasing.c) Increasing.d) Increasing, then decreasing.

81.1.5.5 (5351)Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct?a) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.b) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.c) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases.d) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft weight.

81.1.5.5 (5352)At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp=a) 01-Janb) It varies between aeroplane types.

c) 01-Fevd) 02-Jan

81.1.5.5 (5353)(For this question use annex 081-6249A)Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?a) Line cb) Line ac) Line bd) Line d

81.1.5.6 (5354)The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:a) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.b) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.c) induced drag is equal to zero.d) induced drag is lowest.

81.1.6.0 (5355)What will happen in ground effect ?a) the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreasesb) the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increasesc) an increase in strength of the wing tip vorticesd) a significant increase in thrust required

81.1.6.0 (5356)If an aeroplane flies in the ground effecta) the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.b) the effective angle of attack is decreased.c) the induced angle of attack is increased.d) drag and lift are reduced.

81.1.6.4 (5357)Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :a) when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surfaceb) when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surfacec) when a higher than normal angle of attack is usedd) at a speed approaching the stall

81.1.6.4 (5358)Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :a) increases.b) decreases.c) does not change.d) increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.

81.1.7.1 (5359)An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be:

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a) x 0.25b) x 2.0c) x 0.5d) x 4.0

81.1.7.1 (5360)When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be:a) 59%.b) 130%.c) 169%.d) 77%.

81.1.8.1 (5361)Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?a) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer.b) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.c) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.d) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.

81.1.8.1 (5362)Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack?a) upper side trailing edge.b) upper side leading edge.c) lower side trailing edge.d) lower side leading edge.

81.1.8.1 (5363)The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:a) a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction.b) the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.c) a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.d) suction at the upper wing side.

81.1.8.1 (5364)A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:a) no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.b) the vortices are weak.c) the velocity is constant.d) the temperature varies constantly.

81.1.8.1 (5365)Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as follows :a) (1) decreases (2) increases.b) (1) decreases (2) decreases.

c) (1) increases (2) increases.d) (1) increases (2) decreases.

81.1.8.1 (5366)Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will:a) (1) move aft, (2) move forward.b) (1) move aft, (2) move aft.c) (1) not move (2) move forward.d) (1) move aft, (2) not move.

81.1.8.1 (5367)Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct?a) Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nose-down tendency.b) Buffeting is the result of flow separation on the tail plane.c) The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation.d) The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.

81.1.8.1 (5368)Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer :a) friction drag is lower in the laminar layerb) friction drag will be equal in both types of layersc) friction drag is lower in the turbulent layerd) separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer

81.1.8.1 (5369)After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layera) the mean speed and friction drag increasesb) the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increasesc) the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreasesd) the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases

81.1.8.1 (5370)Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?a) Turbulent boundary layerb) Laminar boundary layerc) No differenced) Transition boundary layer

81.1.8.2 (5371)The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:a) 1.41b) 1.07c) 1.30d) 2.00

81.1.8.2 (5372)In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be:

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a) n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.b) n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.c) n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.d) n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.

81.1.8.2 (5373)A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?a) Accelerated stall.b) Low speed stall.c) Shock stall.d) Deep stall.

81.1.8.2 (5374)Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?a) decreasing weight.b) increasing altitude.c) increasing air density.d) increasing load factor.

81.1.8.2 (5375)Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data are:A:W= 1500 kgBank= 20°TAS= 130 ktB:W= 1500 kgBank= 20°TAS= 200 ktWhich of the following statements is correct?a) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.b) The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.c) The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.d) The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B.

81.1.8.2 (5376)Increase of wing loading will:a) increase the stall speeds.b) decrease the minimum gliding angle.c) increase CLmax.d) decrease take off speeds.

81.1.8.2 (5377)The stall speed :a) increases with an increased weightb) decreases with an increased weightc) does not depend on weightd) increases with the length of the wingspan

81.1.8.2 (5378)When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed :a) increases with the square root of load factorb) increases with flap extensionc) decreases with increasing bank angled) increases with the load factor squared

81.1.8.2 (5379)An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs ?a) 67 KCASb) 91 KCASc) 78 KCASd) 57 KCAS

81.1.8.2 (5380)An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is:a) 141 ktb) 282 ktc) 70 ktd) 200 kt

81.1.8.2 (5381)The following factors increase stall speed :a) an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.b) a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.c) increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.d) a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.

81.1.8.2 (5382)The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as....a) the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.b) the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.c) the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.d) there is a nose-down attitude.

81.1.8.2 (5383)The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)a) pulling up from a dive.b) weight decreases.c) minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.d) spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.

81.1.8.2 (5384)By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ?a) 19%b) 31%c) 41%d) 52%

81.1.8.2 (5385)An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:a) 122 kt.b) 141 kt.

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c) 82 kt.d) 150 kt.

81.1.8.2 (5386)The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:a) May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forwardb) May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wingc) Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aftd) Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn

81.1.8.2 (5387)The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:a) Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. locationb) Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wingc) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. locationd) Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in a turn

81.1.8.2 (5388)The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:a) May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turnb) Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. locationc) Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wingd) Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps

81.1.8.3 (5389)A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:a) improve the low speed characteristics.b) improve the high speed characteristics.c) increase the critical Mach Number.d) improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap.

81.1.8.4 (5390)Which of the following are used as stall warning devices?a) Stick shaker and stallstrip .b) Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator.c) Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator.d) Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip.

81.1.8.4 (5391)The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the:a) stagnation point.b) centre of pressure.c) centre of gravity.d) point of lowest pressure.

81.1.8.4 (5392)The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is:a) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with rudder.b) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick.c) idle power and stick roll-neutral nose-down and no other corrections.d) idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nose-down tendency.

81.1.8.4 (5393)Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is:a) greater than VS.b) 1.20 VS.c) 1.30 VS.d) 1.12 VS.

81.1.8.4 (5394)The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of thea) stagnation point.b) centre of lift.c) transition region.d) centre of gravity.

81.1.8.5 (5395)On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:a) is caused by wingtip stall.b) never occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.c) is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.d) is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.

81.1.8.5 (5396)Low speed pitch up is caused by the:a) spanwise flow on a swept back wing.b) spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.c) wing tip vortex.d) Mach trim system.

81.1.8.5 (5397)The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is:a) reduction in CLmax.b) increase in weight.c) increase in drag.d) blocking of control surfaces.

81.1.8.5 (5398)The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are:a) decrease of CLmax and increase of drag.b) decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag.

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c) increase of CLmax and increase of drag.d) increase of CLmax and decrease of drag.

81.1.8.5 (5399)Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?a) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.b) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.c) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..d) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.

81.1.8.5 (5400)Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?a) During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.b) An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root.c) In the spin, airspeed continuously increases.d) Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin.

81.1.8.5 (5401)During an erect spin recovery:a) the ailerons are held in the neutral position.b) the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.c) the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.d) the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.

81.1.8.5 (5402)Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?a) Swept back wings and a T-tail.b) Straight wings and a T-tail.c) Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.d) Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines

81.1.8.5 (5403)A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:a) nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.b) nose down tendency.c) increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.d) tendency to increase speed after initial stall.

81.1.8.5 (5404)The function of the stick pusher is:a) to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack.b) to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.c) to vibrate the controls.d) to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.

81.1.8.5 (5405)Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall characteristics include:

a) Excessive wing drop and deep stall.b) pitch down and yaw.c) pitch down and minor wing drop.d) pitch down and increase in speed.

81.1.8.5 (5406)Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?a) Deep stall.b) Shock stall.c) Accelerated stall.d) Low speed stall.

81.1.8.5 (5407)Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?a) A T-tail.b) A canard wing.c) Swept wings.d) A low horizontal tail.

81.1.8.5 (5408)The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to thea) wing tip stalling first.b) aft movement of the centre of gravity.c) forward movement of the centre of gravity.d) wing root stalling first.

81.1.8.5 (5409)One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall :a) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.b) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling momentc) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down momentd) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

81.1.9.0 (5410)Trailing edge flap extension will:a) decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.b) increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.c) decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.d) increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.

81.1.9.0 (5411)Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack ?a) flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.b) clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.c) slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended.d) slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.

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81.1.9.0 (5412)An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is:a) Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: slatsb) Wing roots: slatsWing tips: L.E. flapsc) Wing roots: slatsWing tips: no devicesd) Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: no devices

81.1.9.0 (5413)An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?a) Flaps from 30° to 45°.b) The slats.c) Flaps from 0° to 15°.d) Flaps from 15° to 30°.

81.1.9.0 (5414)After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ?a) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.b) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.c) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.d) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

81.1.9.0 (5415)Which statement is correct?a) Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces.b) Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease.c) Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only the TAS has to be taken into account.d) Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle.

81.1.9.1 (5416)The trailing edge flaps when extended :a) worsen the best angle of glideb) increase the zero lift angle of attackc) significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum liftd) significantly lower the drag

81.1.9.1 (5417)When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be:a) nose down.b) nose up.

c) zero.d) dependent on c.g. location.

81.1.9.1 (5418)Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce:a) a nose-down pitching moment.b) no pitching moment.c) a nose-up pitching moment.d) a force which reduces drag.

81.1.9.1 (5419)On a wing fitted with a ""fowler"" type trailing edge flap, the ""Full extended"" position will produce:a) an increase in wing area and camber.b) an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.c) an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.d) an increase in wing area only.

81.1.9.1 (5420)When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually :a) remain the same.b) increase.c) decrease.d) first increase and then decrease.

81.1.9.1 (5421)When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:a) increase.b) decrease.c) remain the same.d) vary as the square of IAS.

81.1.9.1 (5422)What is the most effective flap system?a) Fowler flap.b) Split flap.c) Plain flap.d) Single slotted flap.

81.1.9.1 (5423)Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:a) move aft, then turn down.b) turn down, then move aft.c) just move aft.d) just turn down.

81.1.9.1 (5424)A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:a) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

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b) decreasing the skin friction.c) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.d) increasing the critical angle of attack.

81.1.9.1 (5425)In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will:a) increase.b) decrease.c) remain constant.d) increase or decrease depending on type of flap.

81.1.9.1 (5426)Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the :a) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.b) lift coefficient and the drag.c) stall speed.d) lift and the drag.

81.1.9.1 (5427)During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight:a) the centre of pressure moves aft.b) the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.c) the stall speed increases.d) the total boundary layer becomes laminar.

81.1.9.1 (5428)(For this question use annex 081-6269A)Which type of flap is shown in the picture?a) Fowler flapb) Double slotted flapc) Plain flapd) Split flap

81.1.9.1 (5429)(For this question use annex 081-6270A)Which type of flap is shown in the picture?a) Split flapb) Single slotted flapc) Fowler flapd) Plain flap

81.1.9.1 (5430)A plain flap will increase CLmax bya) increasing the camber of the aerofoil.b) increasing angle of attack.c) boundary layer control.d) centre of lift movement.

81.1.9.1 (5431)During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant)a) sink suddenly.b) bank.c) climb.d) yaw.

81.1.9.1 (5432)During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant)a) climb.b) bank.c) sink suddenly.d) yaw.

81.1.9.1 (5433)Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration isa) smaller.b) larger.c) unchanged.d) smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.

81.1.9.2 (5434)Deflection of leading edge flaps will:a) increase critical angle of attack.b) decrease CLmax.c) decrease drag.d) not affect critical angle of attack.

81.1.9.2 (5435)Slat extension will:a) increase critical angle of attack.b) reduce tip vortices.c) create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.d) decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing.

81.1.9.2 (5436)Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?a) Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.b) Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.c) Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.d) Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.

81.1.9.2 (5437)What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ?a) extend automatically when a certain value of angle of atttack is exceeded.b) provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off.c) ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the

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""ground"" position.d) assist the ailerons during rolling.

81.1.9.2 (5438)The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to:a) cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer.b) allow space for vibration of the slat.c) reduce the wing loading.d) slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing.

81.1.9.2 (5439)A deployed slat will:a) increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.b) increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack.c) decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack.d) increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack.

81.1.9.2 (5440)What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of :a) slatsb) flapsc) spoilersd) fuselage mounted speed-brakes

81.1.9.2 (5441)The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because :a) it delays the stall to a higher angle of attackb) the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thickerc) it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer aird) it changes the camber of the wing

81.1.9.2 (5442)(For this question use annex 081-6271A)The high lift device shown in the figure is aa) Slatb) Fowler flapc) Slotted flapd) Krueger flap

81.1.9.2 (5443)(For this question use annex 081-6272A)The high lift device shown in the figure below is aa) Krueger flapb) Fowler flap

c) Slotted flapd) Slot or slat

81.1.9.2 (5444)A slat willa) increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.b) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.c) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.d) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.

81.1.9.3 (5445)Vortex generators:a) transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.b) change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.c) reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.d) take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.

81.1.10.1 (5446)Spoiler deflection causes :a) an increase in drag and decrease in liftb) an increase in lift and dragc) an increase in lift onlyd) decrease in lift and drag

81.1.10.1 (5447)Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:a) CD is increased and CL is decreased.b) only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected).c) both CL and CD are increased.d) CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.

81.1.10.1 (5448)When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:a) at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.b) CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.c) they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.d) at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

81.1.11.1 (5449)There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that :a) it has less tendency to separate from the surfaceb) it is thinnerc) skin friction drag is lessd) energy is less

81.1.12.1 (5450)In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?

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a) The last part of the rotation.b) The take-off run.c) During climb with all engines operating.d) All phases of the take-off are equally critical.

81.2.1.0 (5451)The formula for the Mach Number is:(a= speed of sound)a) M= TAS / ab) M= a / TASc) M= TAS*ad) M= IAS / a

81.2.1.0 (5452)The Mach number:a) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.b) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.c) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.d) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

81.2.1.1 (5453)Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will:a) decrease.b) first increase, then decrease.c) increase.d) remain constant.

81.2.1.1 (5454)The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is:a) 500 ktsb) 320 ktsc) 480 ktsd) 600 kts

81.2.1.1 (5455)Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ?a) Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.b) Increases always if the density of the air decreases.c) Is independent of altitude.d) Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.

81.2.1.2 (5456)If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will:a) increase.b) decrease.c) not change.d) increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.

81.2.1.2 (5457)The speed of sound is affected by the:

a) temperature of the air.b) density of the air.c) pressure of the air.d) humidity of the air.

81.2.1.2 (5458)An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ?a) It increases as temperature increasesb) It decreases as pressure increasesc) It decreases as altitude decreasesd) It remains constant

81.2.1.3 (5459)To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:a) Mach Number.b) EAS.c) TAS.d) IAS.

81.2.2.0 (5460)A normal shock wave:a) can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.b) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.c) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.d) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.

81.2.2.0 (5461)Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ?a) The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonicb) The airflow changes directionc) The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonicd) The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil

81.2.2.0 (5462)Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has aa) higher compression.b) higher expansion.c) smaller compression.d) smaller expansion.

81.2.2.0 (5463)Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has aa) higher loss in total pressure.b) higher total pressure.c) higher total temperature.d) lower static temperature.

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81.2.2.0 (5464)The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called thea) transonic range.b) supersonic range.c) hypersonic range.d) subsonic range.

81.2.2.1 (5465)Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:a) somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.b) Mach buffet occurs.c) shockstall occurs.d) the critical angle of attack is reached.

81.2.2.1 (5466)When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur:a) at the wing root segment, upperside.b) on the underside of the wing.c) somewhere on the fin.d) somewhere on the hoizontal tail.

81.2.2.1 (5467)The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence of :a) local sonic flow.b) buffet.c) shock wave.d) supersonic flow.

81.2.2.1 (5468)Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct?a) The temperature increases.b) The pressure decreases.c) The temperature decreases.d) The velocity increases.

81.2.2.1 (5469)The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which:a) sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.b) the maximum operating temperature is reached.c) a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.d) a ""supersonic bell"" appears on the upper surface.

81.2.2.1 (5470)When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number isa) less than 1.b) lower than before but still greater than 1.c) equal to 1.d) higher than before.

81.2.2.1 (5471)When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature willa) increase.b) decrease.c) stay constant.d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

81.2.2.1 (5472)When the air is passing through a shock wave the density willa) increase.b) decrease.c) stay constant.d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

81.2.2.1 (5473)When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound isa) increased.b) not affectedc) decreased.d) decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

81.2.2.1 (5474)Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at thea) upper side of the wing.b) lower side of the wing.c) leading edge of the wing.d) trailing edge of the wing.

81.2.2.1 (5475)Critical Mach-number is the :a) highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.b) speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number < 1).c) speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.d) highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).

81.2.2.1 (5476)The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact thata) kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.b) the speed reduction is too high.c) the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.d) the friction in the boundary layer is higher.

81.2.2.2 (5477)Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values?a) (1) thick and (2) large.b) (1) thick and (2) small.c) (1) thin and (2) large.d) (1) thin and (2) small.

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81.2.2.2 (5478)In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by:a) the Mach Number.b) the TAS.c) the IAS.d) the CAS.

81.2.2.2 (5479)Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number?a) Dutch roll.b) Tuck under.c) Mach buffet.d) Shock stall.

81.2.2.2 (5480)The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by:a) sweep back of the wings.b) vortex generators.c) control deflectiond) dihedral of the wings.

81.2.2.2 (5481)In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because:a) aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.b) behind the shock wave pressure is lower.c) aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.d) aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.

81.2.2.2 (5482)Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are:a) thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing.b) thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.c) positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing.d) thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.

81.2.2.2 (5483)If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper side of the winga) moves into trailing edge direction.b) moves into leading edge direction.c) stays all the time at the same position.d) disappears.

81.2.2.2 (5484)To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil shoulda) have a low thickness to chord ratio.b) have a large camber.c) be used with a high angle of attack.d) have a large leading edge radius.

81.2.2.2 (5485)The critical Mach number can be increased bya) sweepback of the wings.b) positive dihedral of the wings.c) a T-tail.d) an increase in wing aspect ratio.

81.2.2.2 (5486)Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done toa) apply area rule.b) increase the strength of the wing root junction.c) fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.d) improve the low speed characteristics.

81.2.2.2 (5487)The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease thea) wave drag.b) skin friction drag.c) induced drag.d) form drag.

81.2.2.2 (5488)When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :a) Higher critical Mach numberb) Greater strengthc) Increased longitudinal stabilityd) Lower stalling speed

81.2.2.2 (5489)What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS ?a) Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.b) Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.c) Mcrit decreases.d) Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.

81.2.2.2 (5490)What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS ? The value of Mcrit:a) increases.b) remains constant.c) is independent of the angle of attack.d) decreases.

81.2.2.3 (5491)How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?a) It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.b) It remains constant.c) It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

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d) It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

81.2.2.3 (5492)Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack?a) shockstall.b) high-speed stall.c) low-speed stall.d) deep stall.

81.2.2.3 (5493)At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):a) increasesb) decreasesc) remains the samed) decreases until the tropopause

81.2.2.5 (5494)Shock stall is:a) separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave.b) separation of the flow behind the bow wave.c) separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers.d) separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach Numbers.

81.2.2.5 (5495)Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number?a) Mach buffet.b) Dutch roll.c) Speed instability.d) Elevator stall.

81.2.2.5 (5496)Shock induced separation results ina) decreasing lift.b) constant lift.c) increasing lift.d) decreasing drag.

81.2.2.5 (5497)In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to thea) separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves.b) attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing.c) first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing.d) appearance of the bow wave.

81.2.2.5 (5498)The high speed buffet is induced bya) boundary layer separation due to shock waves.b) boundary layer control.

c) expansion waves on the wing upper side.d) a shift of the centre of gravity.

81.2.2.6 (5499)""Tuck under"" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.a) (i) aft (ii) decreasingb) (i) forward (ii) decreasingc) (i) aft (ii) increasingd) (i) forward (ii) increasing

81.2.2.6 (5500)The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be : (assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight)a) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.b) an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.c) engine unbalance and buffeting.d) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.

81.2.2.6 (5501)The Mach trim system will:a) adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.b) keep the Mach Number automatically constant.c) pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.d) adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number.

81.2.2.6 (5502)The Mach trim system will prevent:a) tuck under.b) dutch roll.c) buffeting.d) shock stall.

81.2.2.6 (5503)When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires:a) a pitch up input of the stabilizer.b) a stability augmentation system.c) much more thrust from the engine.d) a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.

81.2.2.6 (5504)Tuck under will happena) only above the critical Mach number.b) only at the critical Mach number.c) only below the critical Mach number.d) above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.

81.2.2.6 (5505)The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize

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the adverse effects of :a) changes in the position of centre of pressureb) increased drag due to shock wave formationc) uncontrolled changes in stabilizer settingd) compressibility effects on the stabilizer

81.2.2.7 (5506)(For this question use annex 081-1331A)An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL 350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its flight Mach range between low-speed buffeting and high-speed buffeting goes from:a) M= 0.69 to M higher than 0.84b) M= 0.72 to M higher than 0.84c) M= 0.65 to M higher than 0.84d) M= 0.74 to M= 0.84

81.2.2.7 (5507)What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?a) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes.b) The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.c) The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.d) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different weights and altitudes.

81.2.2.7 (5508)The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that altitude:a) turbulence may induce Mach buffet.b) turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.c) a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.d) Mach buffet will occur immediately.

81.2.2.7 (5509)Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number?a) No, this is not acceptableb) Yes, this causes no problems.c) Yes, but only during approach.d) Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.

81.2.2.7 (5510)A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental the pilot must :a) fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-numberb) extend the flaps to the first selectionc) fly at a higher Mach-numberd) fly at a larger angle of attack

81.2.2.7 (5511)The buffet margin :

a) increases during a descent with a constant IAS.b) is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.c) decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.d) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.

81.2.3.1 (5512)Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:a) decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.b) increase the critical Mach Number.c) decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.d) increase the magnitude of the shock wave.

81.2.3.1 (5513)Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:a) decrease wave drag.b) increase wave drag.c) increase critical Mach Number.d) decrease critical Mach Number.

81.2.3.1 (5514)Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface willa) decrease the shock wave induced separation.b) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.c) decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.d) increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.

81.3.1.0 (5515)How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it ?a) Density will increase, temperature will increase.b) Density will increase, temperature will decrease.c) Density will decrease, temperature will increase.d) Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.

81.3.1.0 (5516)At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?a) The ground speed of the aeroplane.b) The speed of sound at ground level.c) The speed of sound at flight level.d) The true air speed of the aeroplane.

81.3.1.1 (5517)In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:a) in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.b) outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.c) in front of the aeroplane.d) very weak and negligible.

81.3.1.1 (5518)The bow wave will appear first at:

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a) M= 1.0b) M= Mcritc) M= 0.6d) M= 1.3

81.3.1.1 (5519)If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the shock wave angles willa) decrease.b) increase.c) stay constant.d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

81.3.1.3 (5520)When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:a) decreased.b) decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.c) increased.d) unchanged.

81.3.1.3 (5521)When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound willa) decrease.b) increase.c) stay constant.d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

81.3.1.3 (5522)When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number willa) increase.b) decrease.c) stay constant.d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

81.3.1.3 (5523)When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature willa) decrease.b) increase.c) stay constant.d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

81.3.1.3 (5524)In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock isa) small but still supersonic.b) high (supersonic).c) lower than 1.d) exactly 1.

81.3.1.3 (5525)Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow ?1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.a) 1 and 2 are correct.b) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.c) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.d) 1 and 2 are incorrect.

81.3.1.3 (5526)Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ?1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it.2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.b) 1 and 2 are correct.c) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.d) 1 and 2 are incorrect.

81.3.1.4 (5527)On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic centre :a) shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.b) shifts aft by about 10%.c) remains unchanged.d) slightly shifts forward.

81.3.1.4 (5528)If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move:a) to the mid chord position.b) forward.c) to a position near the leading edge.d) to a position near the trailing edge.

81.3.1.4 (5529)The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the transonic flight regime will:a) increase the static longitudinal stability.b) decrease the longitudinal stability.c) increase the static lateral stability.d) decrease the static lateral stability.

81.3.1.4 (5530)In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is:a) rectangular.b) irregular.c) triangular.d) the same as in subsonic flight.

81.3.1.4 (5531)If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the

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centre of lift will movea) aft to the mid chord.b) aft to the trailing edge.c) forward to the leading edge.d) forward to the mid chord.

81.3.1.5 (5532)The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is due to:a) wave drag.b) increased angle of attack.c) increased interference drag.d) increased skin friction.

81.4.1.1 (5533)If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane:a) would experience an angular acceleration about that axis.b) would be difficult to control.c) would fly a path with a constant curvature.d) would not be affected because the situation is normal.

81.4.1.2 (5534)In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value ?a) Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.b) Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.c) Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.d) Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

81.4.1.2 (5535)If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about:a) the centre of gravity.b) the neutral point of the aeroplane.c) the aerodynamic centre of the wing.d) the centre of pressure of the wing.

81.4.2.1 (5536)When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be:a) downwards.b) upwards.c) zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.d) downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity.

81.4.2.1 (5537)An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is:a) upwards.b) zero.

c) downwards.d) upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.

81.4.2.2 (5538)In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero ?a) Down.b) Up.c) No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.d) It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.

81.4.3.1 (5539)Which of the following statements is correct?a) Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis.b) Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.c) Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.d) A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.

81.4.3.1 (5540)Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it has been displaced the :a) initial tendency to move is towards its equilibrium position.b) initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position.c) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of decreasing amplitude.d) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of increasing amplitude.

81.4.3.1 (5541)After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude. The aeroplane is:a) Statically stable - Dynamically neutralb) Statically unstable - Dynamically stablec) Statically stable - Dynamically unstabled) Statically unstable - Dynamically neutral

81.4.3.1 (5542)Which one of the following statements about the dynamic stability of a conventional aeroplane about the lateral axis is correct?a) Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.b) Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.c) Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.d) An aft C.G. position shortens the period time of the phugoid.

81.4.3.1 (5543)The ""short period mode"" is an:a) oscillation about the lateral axis.b) oscillation about the vertical axis.c) oscillation about the longitudinal axis.d) unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot.

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81.4.3.1 (5544)An aeroplane that has positive static stability:a) can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable.b) is always dynamically stable.c) is never dynamically stable.d) is always dynamically unstable.

81.4.3.1 (5545)A statically unstable aeroplane is:a) never dynamically stable.b) always dynamically stable.c) sometimes dynamically stable.d) sometimes dynamically unstable.

81.4.3.1 (5546)One of the requirements for dynamic stability is:a) positive static stability.b) a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim.c) a small C.G. range.d) effective elevator.

81.4.3.2 (5547)The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:a) C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.b) speed is low.c) C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.d) flaps are down.

81.4.3.3 (5548)Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the:a) centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.b) centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.c) wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.d) aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.

81.4.3.4 (5549)The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:a) pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.b) change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant.c) aerodynamic forces are constant.d) the aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.

81.4.3.5 (5550)For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:a) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.b) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.c) at the neutral point of the aeroplane.d) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.

81.4.3.5 (5551)The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the:a) minimum value of the stick force per g.b) maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.c) maximum elevator deflection.d) too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.

81.4.3.5 (5552)A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:a) an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).b) a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.c) an increasing static longitudinal stability.d) a better recovery performance in the spin.

81.4.3.7 (5553)In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the aerofoil?a) No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack.b) Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack.c) Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.d) Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.

81.4.3.7 (5554)Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ?a) The horizontal tailplane.b) The engine.c) The fuselage.d) The wing.

81.4.3.9 (5555)During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the maximum elevator up deflection is normally required when the flaps are:a) fully down and the C.G. is fully forward.b) up and the C.G. is fully forward.c) fully down and the C.G. is fully aft.d) up and the C.G. is fully aft.

81.4.3.11 (5556)The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct?a) Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed.b) Increase of speed generates pull forces.c) Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.d) Stick force stability is not affected by trim.

81.4.3.11 (5557)""Tuck under"" is:

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a) the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.b) the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.c) shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.d) the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.

81.4.3.11 (5558)""Tuck under"" may happen at:a) high Mach numbers.b) low Mach numbers.c) all Mach numbers.d) only at low altitudes.

81.4.3.11 (5559)Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?a) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number.b) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO.c) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers.d) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up.

81.4.3.11 (5560)In case the Mach trimmer fails:a) the Mach number must be limited.b) try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.c) the speed must be kept constant.d) the aeroplane weight must be limited.

81.4.3.11 (5561)A Machtrimmer:a) corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers.b) increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.c) is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers.d) has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully hydraulic controlled aeroplane.

81.4.3.14 (5562)The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by:a) (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position.b) (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim.c) (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position.d) (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim.

81.4.3.14 (5563)Which statement about stick force per g is correct?a) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure acceptable control characteristics.b) The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.

c) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value.d) If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane.

81.4.3.15 (5564)The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load factor of 2.5 is:a) 225 N.b) 375 N.c) 450 N.d) 150 N.

81.4.4.2 (5565)An aeroplane has static directional stability, in a side-slip to the right, initially the:a) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.b) right wing tends to go down.c) nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.d) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.

81.4.4.4 (5566)The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:a) Stabilizing effectb) No effectc) Destabilizing dihedral effectd) Negative dihedral effect

81.4.5.5 (5567)The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:a) Positive dihedral effectb) Negative dihedral effectc) Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loadingd) Zero dihedral effect

81.4.5.5 (5568)Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral stability ?a) High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.b) Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.c) Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.d) Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.

81.4.5.5 (5569)Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane?a) Anhedral.b) Dihedral.c) High wing.d) Increased wing span.

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81.4.5.5 (5570)The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows :(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)a) 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positiveb) 1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negativec) 1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positived) 1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative

81.4.5.5 (5571)Dihedral of the wing:a) increases the static lateral stability.b) is the only way to increase the static lateral stability.c) is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings.d) decreases the static lateral stability.

81.4.5.5 (5572)Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ?a) the required lateral control force increases.b) the required lateral control force decreases.c) the required lateral control force does not change.d) the stick force per g decreases.

81.4.5.6 (5573)Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?a) The ""effective dihedral"" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static lateral stability.b) Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line and the lateral axis of the aeroplane.c) Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.d) Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns.

81.4.6.2 (5574)Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct?a) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive. (spiral instability)b) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of each other because they take place about different axis.c) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to ""Dutch roll"".d) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.

81.4.6.2 (5575)Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when :a) the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak.b) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.c) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.d) the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.

81.4.6.3 (5576)Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to ""Dutch roll""?a) Yaw damper.b) Roll spoilers.c) Spoiler mixer.d) Rudder limiter.

81.4.6.3 (5577)Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?a) Dutch roll.b) Tuck under.c) Spiral dive.d) Buffeting.

81.4.6.3 (5578)What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?a) An increased static lateral stability.b) An increased static directional stability.c) A forward movement of the centre of gravity.d) An increased anhedral.

81.4.6.4 (5579)With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:a) (1) increase (2) decrease.b) (1) increase (2) increase.c) (1) decrease (2) decrease.d) (1) decrease (2) increase.

81.5.1.1 (5580)Rotation about the lateral axis is called :a) pitching.b) rolling.c) yawing.d) slipping.

81.5.1.1 (5581)Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:a) longitudinal axis.b) vertical axis.c) lateral axis.d) wing axis.

81.5.2.0 (5582)What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down?a) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is smaller.b) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is smaller.

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c) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is larger.d) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is larger.

81.5.2.4 (5583)The centre of gravity moving aft will:a) increase the elevator up effectiveness.b) decrease the elevator up effectiveness.c) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.d) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

81.5.2.4 (5584)In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the centre of gravity could be limited by the:a) elevator capability, elevator control forces.b) engine thrust, engine location.c) trim system, trim tab surface.d) wing surface, stabilizer surface.

81.5.2.4 (5585)When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be:a) larger.b) smaller.c) unchanged.d) dependent on trim position.

81.5.3.2 (5586)An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is :a) less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes.b) easier maintenance of the engines.c) a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.d) lighter wing construction.

81.5.3.3 (5587)What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers:a) More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.b) The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.c) The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.d) Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.

81.5.4.1 (5588)A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this casea) only the inboard ailerons are active.b) only the outboard aileron are active.c) the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.d) only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.

81.5.4.1 (5589)Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously asa) ailerons and flaps.b) ailerons and elevator.c) flaps and speed brakes.d) flaps and elevator.

81.5.4.1 (5590)When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ?a) Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.b) Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value..c) Landing gear retracted.d) Landing gear extended.

81.5.4.3 (5591)During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:a) downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.b) upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.c) on the upgoing wing only.d) on the downgoing wing only.

81.5.4.5 (5592)Differential aileron deflection:a) equals the drag of the right and left aileron.b) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.c) increases the CLmax.d) is required to achieve the required roll-rate.

81.5.4.5 (5593)An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:a) Left aileron: 5° upRight aileron: 2° downb) Left aileron: 2° upRight aileron: 5° downc) Left aileron: 5° downRight aileron: 2° upd) Left aileron: 2° downRight aileron: 5° up

81.5.4.5 (5594)How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn ?a) Differential aileron deflectionb) Horn-balanced controlsc) Anti-balanced rudder controld) Servo tabs

81.5.4.5 (5595)One method to compensate adverse yaw is aa) differential aileron.b) balance tab.c) antibalance tab.d) balance panel.

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81.5.4.5 (5596)Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?a) In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection.b) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.c) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.d) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.

81.5.4.5 (5597)Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?a) Adverse yaw.b) Aileron reversal.c) Sensitivity for spiral dive.d) Turn co-ordination.

81.5.5.0 (5598)If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes:a) a roll to port (left).b) a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.c) an increase in lift on the port (left) wing.d) a roll to starboard (right).

81.5.5.0 (5599)Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?a) Rolling and yawing.b) Pitching and yawing.c) Pitching and rolling.d) Pitching and adverse yaw.

81.5.6.1 (5600)Which statement is correct about a spring tab ?a) At high IAS it behaves like a servo tabb) At low IAS it behaves like a servo tabc) At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevatord) Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g

81.5.6.1 (5601)Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered flight controls ?a) Servo tabb) Spring tabc) Balance tabd) Anti-balance tab

81.5.6.1 (5602)An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the elevator jams during flight ?a) Pitch control reverses direction.b) Pitch control has been lost.c) The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.d) The pitch control forces double.

81.5.6.1 (5603)A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:a) to decrease stick forces.b) to prevent flutter.c) to obtain mass balancing.d) to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.

81.5.6.1 (5604)Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct ?a) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.b) The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.c) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.d) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

81.5.6.1 (5605)Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:a) seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balanceb) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surfacec) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balanced) Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder

81.5.6.1 (5606)Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:a) servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface.b) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.c) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.d) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.

81.5.6.2 (5607)elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.a) stabilizer position, static pressure.b) elevator deflection, static pressure.c) stabilizer position, total pressure.d) 1994-08-01 0:00

81.5.6.2 (5608)When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this:a) ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.b) makes trimming superfluous.c) makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless.d) can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.

81.5.7.1 (5609)When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:a) in front of the hinge.b) below the hinge.

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c) above the hinge.d) behind the hinge.

81.5.8.0 (5610)What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim ?a) The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position of the centre of gravity.b) The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero.c) At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected downward.d) The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining flare capability.

81.5.8.0 (5611)How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase ?a) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tabb) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tabc) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliserd) The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change

81.5.8.2 (5612)In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because :a) effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanesb) the pilot does not feel the stick forces at allc) mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problemsd) trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

81.5.8.2 (5613)How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a speed decrease ?a) The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected trimtab.b) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser.c) Nothing changes in the exterior view.d) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trimtab.

81.5.8.3 (5614)If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents:a) nose-down.b) neutral.c) nose-up.d) nose-left.

81.5.8.3 (5615)One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that:a) it is a more powerful means of trimming

b) the structure weighs lessc) it leads to greater stability in flightd) the system's complexity is reduced

81.5.8.3 (5616)What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ?a) choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting for landing.b) choose a lower landing speed than normal.c) if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.d) use the Mach trimmer until after landing.

81.5.8.3 (5617)Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND (Aeroplane Noise Down) position.a) The rotation will require extra stick force.b) If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system will be activated.c) Early nose wheel raising will take place.d) Nothing special will happen.

81.5.8.3 (5618)Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position ?a) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy aeroplaneb) Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only.c) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane.d) At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum Nose Down to obtain maximum elevator authority at take off rotation.

81.6.1.0 (5619)""Flutter"" may be caused by:a) distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.b) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.c) roll control reversal.d) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

81.6.1.1 (5620)A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:a) VMO.b) VNE.c) VD.d) MMO.

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81.6.1.1 (5621)VMO :a) should be not greater than VC.b) should be chosen in between VC and VDc) is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.d) is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35 000 ft.

81.6.1.2 (5622)A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:a) MMO.b) VMO.c) VA.d) MD.

81.6.1.2 (5623)Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ?a) At constant IAS the Mach number increasesb) At constant IAS the TAS decreasesc) At constant Mach number the IAS increasesd) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases

81.6.2.1 (5624)The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:(SQRT= square root)a) VA= VS SQRT(2.5)b) VS= VA SQRT(2.5)c) VS= VA SQRT(3.75)d) Va= VA SQRT(3.75)

81.6.2.1 (5625)By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%?a) 10% lower.b) 4.36% lower.c) no changed) 19% lower.

81.6.2.1 (5626)Which load factor determines VA?a) manoeuvring limit load factor.b) manoeuvring ultimate load factor.c) gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.d) manoeuvring flap limit load factor.

81.6.2.1 (5627)What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ?a) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwardsb) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.c) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic

pressure.d) It will collapse if a turn is made.

81.6.2.1 (5628)What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram?a) 2.5b) 1.5c) 3.75d) 6

81.6.2.1 (5629)VA is:a) the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.b) the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.c) the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.d) the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.

81.6.2.1 (5630)Load factor is :a) Lift/Weightb) Weight/Liftc) 1/Bank angled) Wing loading

81.6.2.1 (5631)For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is :a) the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW.b) the maximum speed in smooth airc) the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factord) just another symbol for the rough air speed

81.6.2.1 (5632)The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:a) 2.0b) 1.5c) 2.5d) 3.75

81.6.2.1 (5633)The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration is:a) 4.4b) 2.5c) 3.8d) 6.0

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81.6.3.0 (5634)Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being constant) ?1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor.2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor.a) 1 and 2 are correct.b) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.d) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

81.6.3.0 (5635)Which of the following statements is true?a) Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin to the structural limitationsb) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is possible to reduce the speed and increase the margins to the structural limitsc) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreasedd) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the centre of pressure will move aft which will increase the margins to the structural limits

81.6.3.1 (5636)The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be :a) 1.71b) 0.74c) 1.49d) 2.49

81.6.3.1 (5637)The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be :a) 2.13b) 1.09c) 2.0d) 3.18

81.6.3.1 (5638)The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration) :a) 25, 50, 66b) 15, 56, 65c) 25, 55, 75d) 35, 55, 66

81.6.3.1 (5639)Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration) ?a) 50 ft/sec and VC.

b) 66 ft/sec and VD.c) 65 ft/sec at all speeds.d) 55 ft/sec and VB.

81.6.3.1 (5640)The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:a) VDb) VCc) Vflutterd) VMO

81.6.3.1 (5641)The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load factor will be :a) 1.45b) 0.9c) 0.45d) 1.9

81.6.3.1 (5642)Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being constant)a) Vertical gustsb) Increased aeroplane massc) Increased air densityd) Rearward CG location

81.6.3.2 (5643)What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :a) swept wingsb) straight wingsc) wing dihedrald) winglets

81.6.3.2 (5644)Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance remaining constant) ?1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases.2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.b) 1 and 2 are correct.c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.d) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

81.7.1.0 (5645)The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and:a) Local air speed vector.b) Direction of propeller axis.c) Aeroplane heading.d) Principal direction of propeller blade.

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81.7.1.1 (5646)Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?a) geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolutionb) Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axisc) Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical planed) Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of propeller blade occurs.

81.7.1.2 (5647)Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?a) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane.b) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.c) To ensure that the root produces most thrust.d) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.

81.7.1.3 (5648)Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they:a) produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.b) have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.c) produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.d) have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.

81.7.1.3 (5649)If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.b) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.c) increase and the rate of descent will increase.d) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.

81.7.1.3 (5650)Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence?a) Yes slightly.b) Yes strongly.c) No.d) Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.

81.7.1.3 (5651)Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?a) The blade angle increases with increasing speed.b) The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.c) The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.d) The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.

81.7.1.3 (5652)The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when :a) RPM increases and forward velocity decreasesb) velocity and RPM increasec) forward velocity increases and RPM decreasingd) velocity and RPM decrease

81.7.1.3 (5653)If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio willa) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.d) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.

81.7.1.3 (5654)If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio willa) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.

81.7.1.4 (5655)For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference section:a) is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.b) decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).c) is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).d) is always positive during idling descent.

81.7.1.4 (5656)Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:a) usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power.b) the thrust and the maximum thrust.c) the usable (power available) power and the maximum power.d) the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.

81.7.2.1 (5657)If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.

81.7.2.1 (5658)An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a non rotating (2) propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct?a) (1) is larger than (2).b) (1) is equal to (2).

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c) (2) is larger than (1).d) impossible to say which one is largest.

81.7.2.1 (5659)When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position:a) the drag of the propeller is then minimal.b) the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.c) the windmilling RPM is the maximum.d) the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.

81.7.3.3 (5660)Increasing the number of propeller blades will:a) increase the maximum absorption of power.b) increase the propeller efficiency.c) increase the noise level at maximum power.d) decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power.

81.7.3.3 (5661)Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades ?a) decrease propeller efficiencyb) Increased noisec) Less power can be absorbed by the propellerd) Higher tip-speed

81.7.4.1 (5662)A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The torque effect in the take-off will:a) roll the aeroplane to the left.b) pitch the aeroplane nose down.c) roll the aeroplane to the right.d) pitch the aeroplane nose up.

81.7.4.2 (5663)Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by:a) pitching and yawing.b) pitching and rolling.c) increasing RPM and yawing.d) increasing RPM and rolling.

81.7.4.4 (5664)A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by:a) high angles of attack.b) high speed.c) large angles of yaw.d) large angles of climb.

81.7.4.4 (5665)A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will:

a) yaw the aeroplane to the left.b) roll the aeroplane to the left.c) yaw the aeroplane to the right.d) roll the aeroplane to the right.

81.8.1.2 (5666)The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately:a) Wcos.gamma.b) W(1-sin.gamma).c) W(1-tan.gamma).d) W/cos.gamma.

81.8.1.3 (5667)An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this condition:a) weight is greater than liftb) lift is equal to weightc) lift is less than dragd) drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward

81.8.1.4 (5668)What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide ?a) The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attackb) The wind and the aeroplane's massc) The wind and CLmaxd) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the weight

81.8.1.4 (5669)What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) for minimum sink rate (VR/Dmin) and best glide angle (VBest glide) at a given altitude?a) VR/Dmin < VBest glideb) VR/Dmin = VBest glidec) VR/Dmin > VBest glided) VR/Dmin > VBest glide or VR/Dmin < VBest glide depending on the type of aeroplane.

81.8.1.4 (5670)Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?a) The gliding angle is minimum.b) The CL/CD ratio is minimum.c) Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.d) Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.

81.8.1.4 (5671)Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide ?a) tailwindb) headwind

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c) increase of aeroplane weightd) decrease of aeroplane weight

81.8.1.5 (5672)A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:a) increase thrust and angle of attack.b) increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.c) increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.d) increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.

81.8.1.5 (5673)An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is equal to:(given: g= 10 m/s²)a) 2381 metres.b) 4743 metres.c) 9000 metres.d) 3354 metres.

81.8.1.5 (5674)By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight?a) 41%.b) 19%.c) 31%.d) 52%.

81.8.1.5 (5675)A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:a) turn at the same turn radius.b) turn at a bigger turn radius.c) turn at a smaller turn radius.d) turn at a higher turn rate.

81.8.1.5 (5676)The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:a) TAS.b) weight.c) load factor.d) wind.

81.8.1.5 (5677)The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is left of neutral. To coordinate the turn:a) more right bank is required.b) more right rudder is required.c) less right bank is required.d) a higher turn rate is required.

81.8.1.5 (5678)What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ?a) 70 000 Nb) 60 000 Nc) 50 000 Nd) 80 000 N

81.8.2.1 (5679)Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level ?a) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.b) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.c) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.d) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.

81.8.2.9 (5680)Which of the following statements is correct ?I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection.a) I is incorrect, II is incorrectb) I is correct, II is correctc) I is correct, II is incorrectd) I is incorrect, II is correct

81.8.2.9 (5681)I is incorrect, II is correcta) I is correct, II is correctb) I is incorrect, II is incorrectc) I is correct, II is incorrectd) 1998-10-05 0:00

81.8.2.9 (5682)I is correct, II is correcta) I is incorrect, II is incorrectb) I is correct, II is incorrectc) I is incorrect, II is correctd) 1998-10-05 0:00

81.8.2.10 (5683)Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?a) Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.b) Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.c) Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground.d) Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

81.8.2.11 (5684)decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.

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a) decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing densityb) increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder forcec) increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreasesd) 1998-10-05 0:00

81.8.3.3 (5685)(For this question use annex 081-6262A)Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate?a) Point cb) Point ac) Point bd) Point d

81.8.3.3 (5686)(For this question use annex 081-6263A)Which point in the diagram gives the best glide condition?a) Point bb) Point ac) Point cd) Point d

81.8.3.3 (5687)(For this question use annex 081-6264A)Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight?a) Point db) Point ac) Point bd) Point c

81.8.3.3 (5688)From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read:a) the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient.b) the minimum drag and the maximum lift.c) the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.d) the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag.

81.8.3.3 (5689)(CL/CD)maxa) CLmaxb) (CL/CD^2)maxc) (CL^3/CD^2)maxd) 1998-10-05 0:00

91.1.1.0 (5690)What does the term ""blind transmission"" mean?a) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

b) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.c) A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.d) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.

91.1.2.0 (5691)Which abbreviation is used for the term ""control zone""?a) CTR.b) CZ.c) CTZ.d) CTA.

91.1.2.0 (5692)What does the abbreviation ""AFIS"" mean?a) Aerodrome flight information service.b) Automatic flight information service.c) Aeronautical flight information system.d) Aerodrome flashing identification signal.

91.1.2.0 (5693)What does the abbreviation ""FIR"" mean?a) Flight information region.b) Flight information required.c) Flow information received.d) Flight information radar.

91.1.2.0 (5694)What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?a) Sunrise to sunset.b) Sunset to sunrise.c) No specific working hours.d) Continuous day and night service.

91.1.2.0 (5695)What does the abbreviation ""HX"" mean?a) No specific working hours.b) Sunrise to sunset.c) Sunset to sunrise.d) Continuous day and night service.

91.1.2.0 (5696)Which abbreviation is used for ""Co-ordinated universal time""?a) UTC.b) CUT.c) GMT.d) COUT.

91.1.3.0 (5697)What does QTE mean?

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a) True bearing from the station.b) Magnetic bearing from the station.c) True heading to the station (no wind).d) Magnetic heading to the station.

91.1.3.0 (5698)What is the Q-code for ""true bearing from the station""?a) QTEb) QDRc) QDMd) QFE

91.1.3.0 (5699)What does QDR mean?a) Magnetic bearing from the stationb) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)c) True bearing from the stationd) True heading to the station

91.1.3.0 (5700)What is the Q-code for ""magnetic bearing from the station""?a) QDRb) QTEc) QDMd) QFE

91.1.3.0 (5701)If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ?a) QFEb) QNHc) QDMd) QBI

91.1.3.0 (5702)Which Q-code is used to report altitude ?a) QNHb) QFEc) QFFd) QNJ

91.1.3.0 (5703)What does QDM mean?a) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)b) Magnetic bearing from the stationc) True heading to the station (no wind)d) True bearing from the station

91.1.3.0 (5704)What is the Q-code for ""magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?

a) QDM.b) QDR.c) QNE.d) QTE.

91.1.4.0 (5705)A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:a) A flight regularity message.b) An urgency message.c) A flight safety message.d) A flight security message.

91.1.4.0 (5706)Flight safety messages are:a) Air traffic control messages.b) Operation messages concerning non-routine landings.c) Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person.d) Messages relating to direction finding.

91.1.4.0 (5707)A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called:a) Distress message.b) Flight safety message.c) Urgency message.d) Class B message.

91.1.4.0 (5708)Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?a) Radio teletype messages.b) Meteorological messages.c) Flight safety messages.d) Urgency messages.

91.1.4.0 (5709)The message to an aeronautical ground station ""please call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045"" is:a) An unauthorized message.b) A flight regularity message.c) A flight safety messages.d) An urgency message.

91.1.4.0 (5710)The priority of the instruction ""taxi to runway 05"" is:a) Same as ""line-up runway 07 and wait"".b) Greater than ""transmit for QDM"".c) Greater than ""caution, construction work left of taxiway"".d) Less than ""cleared to land"".

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91.1.4.0 (5711)The message addressed to an Area Control Center ""request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather"" is:a) A flight safety message.b) A meteorological message.c) An urgency message.d) A message relating to direction finding.

91.1.4.0 (5712)Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:a) Flight safety messages.b) Class B messages.c) Flight regularity messages.d) Service messages.

91.1.4.0 (5713)The clearance : ""cleared for immediate take-off runway 03"" is:a) A flight safety message.b) An urgency message.c) An unauthorized message.d) A flight regularity message.

91.1.4.0 (5714)The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:a) Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.b) Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.c) Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.d) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.

91.1.4.0 (5715)The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:a) Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.b) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.c) Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.d) Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.

91.1.4.0 (5716)The priority of the pilot's message ""request QDM"" is:a) Greater than ""turn left heading...""b) Less than ""request climb to flight level...""c) Less than ""descend to flight level...""d) Same as ""latest QNH 1018"".

91.2.1.0 (5717)What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?a) Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlieb) Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo

c) Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlied) Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie

91.2.2.0 (5718)What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height ?a) three thousand five hundredb) three five zero zeroc) three five hundredd) three five double zero

91.2.2.0 (5719)What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?a) QNH one zero zero oneb) QNH one double ""O"" onec) QNH one thousand and oned) QNH one double zero one

91.2.2.0 (5720)During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point :a) The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.b) The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.c) The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.d) The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.

91.2.3.0 (5721)When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?a) Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)b) Local time (LT), 24-hour clockc) Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.d) No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required

91.2.3.0 (5722)The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour ?a) Two zero.b) Twenty.c) Two zero this hour.d) Nine twenty A.M.

91.2.4.0 (5723)My message will be more effective and understandable if I :a) Maintain the speaking volume at a constant levelb) Use the words twice methodc) Stress the end of messaged) Stress every beginning of message

91.2.4.0 (5724)What is meant by good microphone technique ?a) Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly.

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b) Speak very loudly into the microphone.c) Keep the microphone far away since it improveds the readability.d) Make large use of hesitation sounds as ""er"".

91.2.5.0 (5725)Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:""I understand your message and will comply with it"":a) Wilcob) Rogerc) Will comply with your instructiond) OK, will do it

91.2.5.0 (5726)Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""Yes"":a) Affirmb) Yesc) Rogerd) Affirmative

91.2.5.0 (5727)How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off:a) Ready for departure or readyb) Ready for take-offc) Ready to line-upd) Ready to go

91.2.5.0 (5728)Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach:a) Going aroundb) Overshootingc) Will make another approachd) Pulling up

91.2.5.0 (5729)What does the instruction ""Go around"" mean ?a) Carry out a missed approachb) Overtake the aircraft aheadc) Make a 360° turnd) Proceed with your message

91.2.5.0 (5730)What does the instruction ""Orbit right"" mean ?a) Make 360° turns to the rightb) Turn right to avoid other trafficc) Right-hand circuits are in used) Leave the runway to the right

91.2.5.0 (5731)What does the instruction ""Vacate left"" mean ?

a) Turn left to leave the runwayb) Give way to aircraft from the leftc) Clear the runway immediatelyd) Hold position on the left side of the runway

91.2.5.0 (5732)What does the phrase ""Go ahead"" mean:a) Proceed with your messageb) Taxi onc) Pass me the following information...d) Yes

91.2.5.0 (5733)What does the phrase ""Roger"" mean:a) I have received all of your last transmissionb) A direct answer in the affirmativec) A direct answer in the negatived) Cleared for take-off or cleared to land

91.2.5.0 (5734)Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase ""Standby"" ?a) Wait and I will call youb) Continue on present heading and listen outc) Select STANDBY on the SSR transponderd) Permission granted for action proposed

91.2.5.0 (5735)What does the phrase ""Read back"" mean:a) Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as receivedb) Let me know that you have received and understood this messagec) Did you correctly receive this message?d) Check and confirm with originator

91.2.5.0 (5736)Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""I should like to know..."" or ""I wish to obtain...""?a) Requestb) Reportc) Acknowledged) Confirm

91.2.5.0 (5737)Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""Pass me the following information..."":a) Reportb) Requestc) Say againd) Check

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91.2.5.0 (5738)Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly:a) Correctb) That is rightc) Affirmd) That is affirmative

91.2.5.0 (5739)Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ..."":a) QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016b) QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016c) QNH 1017, negative 1016d) QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

91.2.5.0 (5740)Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:a) Say againb) Repeat your messagec) What was your message?d) Repeat your last transmission

91.2.5.0 (5741)Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use ?a) ""Request backtrack on runway"".b) ""Clearance to backtrack"".c) ""To enter back runway"".d) ""Backtrack clearance"".

91.2.5.0 (5742)Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say :""Wait and i will call you""?a) Standby.b) Go ahead.c) Roger.d) Wilco.

91.2.6.0 (5743)What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service:a) TOWERb) CONTROLc) AERODROMEd) APRON

91.2.6.0 (5744)What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service:a) INFORMATIONb) FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE

c) FLIGHT CENTREd) CONTROL

91.2.6.0 (5745)What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:a) GROUNDb) APPROACHc) TOWERd) CONTROL

91.2.6.0 (5746)When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ?a) When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do sob) Neverc) Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call signd) In dense traffic during rush hours

91.2.7.0 (5747)Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:a) X-BCb) XY-BCc) ABCd) BC

91.2.7.0 (5748)Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:a) Cherokee BCb) Cherokee XY-BCc) Cherokee X-BCd) Cherokee X-ABC

91.2.7.0 (5749)When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?a) After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground stationb) Only after satisfactory communication has been establishedc) Provided no confusion is likely to resultd) In dense traffic

91.2.8.0 (5750)How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?a) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABCb) Stephenville TOWER X-BCc) Stephenville XY-ABCd) TOWER XY-ABC

91.2.8.0 (5751)Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency

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118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?a) 118.7 X-BCb) Will change to TOWER X-BCc) Changing over X-BCd) Stephenville TOWER X-BC

91.2.8.0 (5752)Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?a) Monitoring 123.25 X-BCb) Changing to 123.25 X-BCc) Will contact 123.25 X-BCd) Checking 123.25 X-BC

91.2.8.0 (5753)What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 KHz):a) One two zero decimal three sevenb) One twenty decimal three sevenc) One two zero decimal three seven fived) One two zero three seven

91.2.9.0 (5754)Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:a) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7b) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC preflight checkc) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal checkd) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check

91.2.9.0 (5755)On the readability scale what does ""Readability 3"" mean:a) Readable but with difficultyb) No problem to understandc) Loud and cleard) Unreadable

91.2.9.0 (5756)On the readability scale what does ""Readability 5"" mean:a) Perfectly readableb) Unreadablec) Problem to understandd) Readable but with difficulty

91.2.10.0 (5757)Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?a) Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructionsb) Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settingsc) Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and

speed instructionsd) Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes

91.2.10.0 (5758)Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:a) Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concernedb) No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID)c) No, if the communication channel is overloadedd) No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise

91.2.10.0 (5759)An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?a) Holding shortb) Rogerc) Will stop befored) Wilco

91.2.10.0 (5760)Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: ""X-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take-off"".What is the correct read back:a) Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BCb) Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BCc) Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BCd) Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC

91.2.10.0 (5761)How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ?a) With his own aircraft call signb) With the word ""wilco""c) With the ATC ground station call signd) With the word ""roger""

91.2.11.0 (5762)An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response:a) Heading 045 at 2500 feetb) Heading north-east at level 25c) Heading 45 at 2500 feetd) 045 and 2500

91.2.11.0 (5763)What does the phrase ""Squawk 1234"" mean:a) Select code 1234 on the SSR transponderb) Give a short count for DF (direction finder)c) Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHzd) Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz

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91.2.11.0 (5764)RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: ""X-BC identified"". What does this mean:a) Radar identification has been achievedb) X-BC is not visible on the radar screenc) X-BC should perform an identification turnd) X-BC should operate the IDENT-button

91.2.11.0 (5765)RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:""X-BC squawk ident"". What does this mean:a) X-BC shall operate the IDENT buttonb) Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABCc) X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degreesd) X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code

91.2.11.0 (5766)RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:""X-BC squawk standby "". What does this mean?a) X-BC is requested to switch to standby positionb) X-BC is requested to standby on the frequencyc) X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectorsd) X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy

91.2.11.0 (5767)RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: ""X-BC recycle 1015"". What does this mean:a) X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015b) X-BC is requested to set new code 1015c) X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015d) X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)

91.2.11.0 (5768)How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder:a) Negative transponderb) No SSRc) Transponder not availabled) Negative squawk

91.3.1.0 (5769)When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:a) 5 to 7 octasb) 1 to 4 octasc) 8 octas below 10000 feetd) No clouds below 5000 feet

91.3.1.0 (5770)When the term ""Overcast"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:a) 100%b) 50% or more

c) Less than 50%d) No clouds but poor ground visibility

91.3.1.0 (5771)When the term ""CAVOK"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:a) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GNDb) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GNDc) Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GNDd) Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND

91.3.1.0 (5772)How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language:a) Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometresb) Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometresc) In feet and nautical milesd) In nautical miles only

91.3.1.0 (5773)What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?a) Visibility 1200 metresb) Visibility 1200 feetc) Visibility 1.2 nautical milesd) Visibility 1.2 kilometres

91.3.1.0 (5774)When the term ""Scattered"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:a) Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)b) More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)c) Sky entirely covered (8 octas)d) No clouds below 5000 feet/GND

91.3.2.0 (5775)What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ?a) Discrete VHF frequency or/and VORb) Voice channel of an ILSc) NDB frequenciesd) DME voice channel

91.3.2.0 (5776)How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight:a) VOLMETb) ATISc) AFISd) SIGMET

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91.3.2.0 (5777)Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:a) Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airportsb) SPECI and TAFc) SIGMETd) Runway reports

91.4.0.0 (5778)What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:a) 7600b) 6700c) 7500d) 7700

91.4.0.0 (5779)An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:a) It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failureb) It is diverting to the alternate aerodromec) It is requesting immediate level changed) It is about to make a forced landing

91.4.0.0 (5780)An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot:a) Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequencyb) Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communicationc) Return to the airport of departured) Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit

91.4.0.0 (5781)What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?a) Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stationsb) Divert to the alternate airportc) Squawk mode A code 7500d) Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight

91.4.0.0 (5782)A message preceded by the phrase ""Transmitting blind due receiver failure"" shall be transmitted:a) On the frequency presently in useb) On the regional guard frequencyc) On the international emergency frequencyd) On all available aeronautical stations

91.4.0.0 (5783)If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:a) ""Transmitting blind""b) ""Read you one, read you one""

c) ""How do you read?""d) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

91.4.0.0 (5784)In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made:a) Twice on the designated frequencyb) Only once on the designated frequencyc) On the emergency frequency onlyd) During VFR flights only

91.4.0.0 (5785)When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase ""Transmitting blind due to receiver failure"" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:a) Advise the time of its next intended transmissionb) Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landingc) Land at the nearest airfield/airportd) Return to the airport of departure

91.4.0.0 (5786)Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?a) In case of radio communication failureb) When entering bad weather areasc) When approaching a prohibited aread) When flying over desert areas

91.4.0.0 (5787)When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals ?a) When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodromeb) When flying VFR above cloudsc) When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airportd) When entering a FIR during an IFR flight

91.5.1.0 (5788)An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:a) 7700b) 6700c) 7600d) 7500

91.5.1.0 (5789)Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?a) In distressb) When following a SIDc) When flying within controlled airspaced) When passing the transition level

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91.5.1.0 (5790)Distress is defined as:a) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistanceb) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistancec) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approachd) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

91.5.1.0 (5791)An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAYb) DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFAc) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PANd) URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

91.5.1.0 (5792)The frequency used for the first transmission of a ""MAYDAY"" call shall be:a) The frequency currently in useb) The distress frequency 121.5 MHzc) Any other international emergency frequencyd) Any frequency at pilot's discretion

91.5.1.0 (5793)The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:a) Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and headingb) Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airportc) Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and leveld) Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required

91.5.1.0 (5794)Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency:a) 121.500 MHzb) 122.500 MHzc) 6500 KHzd) 121.050 MHz

91.5.2.0 (5795)Urgency is defined as:a) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistanceb) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistancec) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approachd) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

91.5.2.0 (5796)An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:a) PAN PAN, spoken three timesb) URGENCY,spoken three timesc) MAYDAY, spoken three timesd) ALERFA, spoken three times

91.5.2.0 (5797)Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:a) The air-ground frequency in use at the timeb) The international emergency frequencyc) The regional guard frequencyd) Any frequency at pilot's discretion

91.6.0.0 (5798)Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?a) 118.000 - 136.975 MHZb) 108.000 - 117.975 MHzc) 1810 - 2850 KHzd) 11650 - 13200 KHz

91.6.0.0 (5799)Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ?a) Level of aircraft and terrain elevationsb) The ionospherec) Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstormsd) Day- and night effect

91.6.0.0 (5800)Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of theTOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:a) Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground stationb) Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground stationc) Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hilld) Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill

91.6.0.0 (5801)Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50:a) About 85 NMb) About 8 NMc) About 15 NMd) About 150 NM

91.6.0.0 (5802)Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100:a) About 120 NMb) About 300 NM

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c) About 30 NMd) About 12 NM

91.6.0.0 (5803)To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ?a) Very high frequencyb) Very low frequencyc) Low frequencyd) Medium frequency

91.6.0.0 (5804)Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band:a) 25 KHzb) 50 KHzc) 75 KHzd) 250 KHz

91.6.0.0 (5805)What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:a) Practically straight-line similar to light wavesb) The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-wavesc) The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influenced) Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance

92.1.1.0 (5806)What does the term ""broadcast"" mean?a) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.b) A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.c) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.d) A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.

92.1.1.0 (5807)What does the term ""air-ground communication"" mean?a) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earthb) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earthc) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earthd) Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

92.1.1.0 (5808)What does the term ""Expected Approach Time"" mean:a) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landingb) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination

aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landingc) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodromed) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated

92.1.1.0 (5809)When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term ""Visual approach"" ?a) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrainb) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMCc) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minimad) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach

92.1.1.0 (5810)What does the term ""clearance limit"" mean:a) The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearanceb) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearancec) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearanced) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced

92.1.1.0 (5811)An ""Automatic Terminal Information Service"" provides:a) Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast .b) Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation.c) Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR.d) Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR).

92.1.1.0 (5812)What does the term ""way point"" mean:a) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigationb) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation systemc) A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-used) A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport

92.1.2.0 (5813)What does the abbreviation ""IMC"" mean?a) Instrument meteorological conditions.b) In most cases.

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c) International meteorological channel.d) In meteorological conditions.

92.1.2.0 (5814)What does the abbreviation ""H24"" mean?a) Continuous day and night service.b) Sunrise to sunset.c) Sunset to sunrise.d) No specific working hours.

92.1.2.0 (5815)What does the abbreviation ""AIS"" mean?a) Aeronautical information service.b) Aerodrome identification signal-area.c) Airport information system.d) Aerodrome information service.

92.1.2.0 (5816)What does the abbreviation ""SAR"" mean?a) Search and rescue.b) Surveillance airport radar.c) Standard arrival route.d) Secondary altimeter responder.

92.1.2.0 (5817)What does the abbreviation ""ATIS"" mean?a) Automatic terminal information service.b) Airport terminal information service.c) Automatic terminal information system.d) Air traffic information service.

92.1.2.0 (5818)What does the abbrevation ""INS"" mean:a) Inertial navigation systemb) Instrument navigation systemc) International NOTAM systemd) International navigation service

92.1.2.0 (5819)What does the abbrevation ""MLS"" mean:a) Microwave landing systemb) Minimum safe levelc) Mean sea leveld) Minimum sector level

92.1.2.0 (5820)What does ""SELCAL"" mean:a) A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraftb) A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

c) A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneouslyd) A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units

92.1.2.0 (5821)What does the abbreviation ""SSR"" mean:a) Secondary surveillance radarb) Search and surveillance radarc) Surface strength of runwayd) Standard snow report

92.1.2.0 (5822)What does the abbrevation ""RNAV"" mean:a) Area navigationb) Radar aided navigationc) Route navigationd) Radio navigation

92.1.2.0 (5823)What does the abbreviation ""RVR"" mean:a) Runway visual rangeb) Radar vectors requestedc) Runway visibility reportd) Recleared via route...

92.1.3.0 (5824)QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:a) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).b) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.c) The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.d) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.

92.1.3.0 (5825)QNH is the Q-code to indicate:a) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.b) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).c) The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).d) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.

92.2.2.0 (5826)What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?a) one one eight decimal oneb) one eighteen onec) one one eight oned) one one eight point one

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92.2.2.0 (5827)What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13.500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height ?a) one three thousand five hundredb) one three five hundredc) one three five zero zerod) thirteen thousand five hundred

92.2.2.0 (5828)During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is :a) Heading three six zero, X-BC.b) Heading north, X-BC.c) Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.d) A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified

92.2.3.0 (5829)The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour ?a) One six one fiveb) Four fifteen P.M.c) Sixteen fifteend) Four fifteen in the afternoon

92.2.4.0 (5830)Before transmitting the pilot should...:a) Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur.b) Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.c) Always write the message and read it during the transmission.d) Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.

92.2.4.0 (5831)What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched ""on"") ?a) The frequency can not be used by others.b) None.c) Other stations will have to use the ""words twice"" technique.d) Readability will improve for all stations.

92.2.5.0 (5832)Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: ""Consider that transmission as not sent"":a) Disregardb) Cancel my last messagec) Forget itd) My last transmission is cancelled

92.2.5.0 (5833)When shall the phrase ""Take-off"" be used by a pilot :a) To acknowledge take-off clearance only

b) Never, it is used only by the control towerc) To inform TOWER when ready for departured) Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway

92.2.5.0 (5834)How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre:a) Stoppingb) Abandoning take-offc) Aborting take-offd) Cancelling take-off

92.2.5.0 (5835)What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received:a) Information Golfb) Weather Golf receivedc) We have the Informationd) We have the ATIS Golf

92.2.5.0 (5836)What does the phrase ""Verify"" mean:a) Check and confirm with originatorb) Repeat your last transmissionc) Read back VDF bearingd) Consider that transmission as not sent

92.2.5.0 (5837)What does the word ""Monitor"" mean:a) Listen out on (frequency).b) Wait and I will call youc) Establish radio contact with...d) Examine a system or procedure

92.2.5.0 (5838)What does the instruction:""Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER"" mean:a) Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further communicationsb) Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being broadcastc) Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9d) Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency

92.2.5.0 (5839)Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:a) 118.0 Fastair 345b) Changing over Fastair 345c) Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345d) Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345

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92.2.5.0 (5840)Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out:a) Unable to complyb) Negative instructionc) Impossible to make itd) Disregard

92.2.5.0 (5841)Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure:a) Going aroundb) Missed approachc) Pulling upd) Overshooting

92.2.5.0 (5842)What does the word ""report"" mean ?a) Pass me the following information.b) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.c) Say again.d) Examine a system or procedure.

92.2.5.0 (5843)Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : ""Reduce your rate of speech"" ?a) Speak slower.b) Words twice.c) Repeat.d) Say again.

92.2.5.0 (5844)What does the word ""wilco"" mean ?a) I understand your message and will comply with it.b) I have received all of your last transmission.c) I read you five.d) As communication is difficult, I will call you later.

92.2.5.0 (5845)What does the phrase ""break break"" mean ?a) It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.b) It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.c) The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.d) My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

92.2.5.0 (5846)What does the word ""acknowledge"" mean ?a) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.b) Pass me the following information.

c) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.d) Repeat all of your last transmission.

92.2.5.0 (5847)What does the word ""approved"" mean ?a) Permission for proposed action granted.b) That is correct.c) Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.d) I repeat for clarity or emphasis.

92.2.5.0 (5848)Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message ?a) Break.b) Stop.c) I say again.d) Over.

92.2.5.0 (5849)What does the word ""cancel"" mean ?a) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.b) A change has been made to your last clearance.c) Wait and I will call you.d) Consider that transmission as not sent.

92.2.5.0 (5850)What does the word ""check"" mean ?a) Examine a system or procedure.b) Confirm your last transmission.c) Read back my last instruction.d) I understand your message.

92.2.5.0 (5851)Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions ?a) Cleared.b) Go ahead.c) Approved.d) I say again : proceed.

92.2.5.0 (5852)Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc ?a) Confirm.b) Correct.c) Acknowledge.d) Verify.

92.2.5.0 (5853)What does the word ""contact"" mean ?

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a) Establish radio contact with ... .b) Radar contact established .c) Listen out on (frequency) .d) That is correct .

92.2.5.0 (5854)Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ?a) I say again .b) Confirm .c) Read back .d) Verify .

92.2.5.0 (5855)What does the word ""correct"" mean ?a) That is correct.b) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ... .c) Permission for proposed action not granted.d) Negative, the correct version is ... .

92.2.5.0 (5856)Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message ?a) Correction.b) Correct.c) Negative.d) Disregard.

92.2.5.0 (5857)What does the word ""disregard"" mean ?a) Consider that transmission as not sent.b) An error has been made in this transmission.c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.d) Wait and I will call you.

92.2.5.0 (5858)What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ?a) How do you read ?b) Read back .c) Report readability .d) Read you loud and clear .

92.2.5.0 (5859)What does the word ""negative"" mean ?a) Permission not granted.b) Proposed action granted.c) Disregard last instruction.d) Consider that transmission as not sent.

92.2.5.0 (5860)What does the word ""negative"" mean ?

a) That is not correct.b) Consider that transmission as not sent.c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.d) I say again.

92.2.5.0 (5861)Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof ?a) Recleared.b) Cleared.c) Approved.d) Break break.

92.2.5.0 (5862)What does the word ""recleared"" mean ?a) A change has been made to your last clearance.b) Permission for proposed action granted.c) An error has been made in my last transmission.d) Consider that transmission as not sent.

92.2.5.0 (5863)Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : ''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or group of words twice'' ?a) Words twiceb) Say again, say againc) Repeat twiced) Message second time

92.2.5.0 (5864)To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller :a) Runway vacated.b) Runway cleared.c) Runway free.d) Clear of runway.

92.2.6.0 (5865)What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar service) ?a) APPROACHb) ARRIVALc) RADARd) CONTROL

92.2.6.0 (5866)What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar):a) ...CONTROLb) ...CENTRE

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c) ...APPROACHd) ...RADAR

92.2.6.0 (5867)What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures:a) ...DEPARTUREb) ...CONTROLc) ...RADARd) ...APPROACH

92.2.6.0 (5868)What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals:a) ...ARRIVALb) ...APPROACHc) ...RADARd) ...DIRECTOR

92.2.6.0 (5869)What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general) ?a) RADAR.b) CONTROL.c) RADAR-CONTROL.d) RADAR-SERVICE.

92.2.6.0 (5870)What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ?a) DELIVERY.b) CLEARANCE.c) CLEARANCE DELIVERY.d) RADIO.

92.2.7.0 (5871)What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ?a) No abbreviated formb) Fastair 345c) Fastair 45d) 2345

92.2.7.0 (5872)What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes:a) Fastair 345 heavyb) Heavy Fastair 345c) Fastair 345d) Fastair 345 widebody

92.2.7.0 (5873)When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word ""Heavy"" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy:a) In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unitb) Neverc) In all callsd) In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit

92.2.9.0 (5874)Which of the following calls is a ""general call"" ?a) ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.b) YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.c) YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.d) YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.

92.2.9.0 (5875)Must a ""general call"" be acknowledged""?a) No.b) Yes, but only from the station first called.c) Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been adressed.d) Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.

92.2.9.0 (5876)What is meant by the phrase ""readability 2""?a) Readable now and then.b) Readable.c) Unreadable.d) Readable but with difficulty.

92.2.9.0 (5877)On the readability scale what does ""readability 1"" mean ?a) Unreadable.b) Readable.c) Perfectly readable.d) Readable but with difficulty.

92.2.9.0 (5878)What is meant by the phrase "" readibility 4""?a) Readable.b) Readable now and then.c) Perfectly readable.d) Readable but with difficulty.

92.2.9.0 (5879)When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with :a) ""All stations""b) ""General broadcast""c) ""Message to all aircraft on this frequency""d) ""Please listen""

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92.2.10.0 (5880)Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?a) SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructionsb) QNH, weather information, runway-in-usec) ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state informationd) QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability

92.2.10.0 (5881)Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back?1 - ""descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet""2 - ""wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots""3 - ""turn right heading 210""4 - ""reduce speed to 160 knots""5 - ""squawk 1723""6 - ""braking action poor""a) 1, 3, 4, 5b) allc) 1, 2, 3, 5d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6

92.2.12.0 (5882)What shall the pilot's readback be for ""climb to 2500 feet"":a) Climbing to two thousand five hundred feetb) Up to two thousand five hundredc) Climbing to two point fived) Climbing to two thousand five hundred

92.2.12.0 (5883)ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct readback by the pilot:a) Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345b) Descending to 80, Fastair 345c) Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345d) Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345

92.2.12.0 (5884)Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted ?a) Aircraft identification, position, timeb) Aircraft identification, position, time, levelc) Aircraft identification, position, leveld) Aircraft identification, position, next position

92.2.12.0 (5885)What shall the pilot's readback be for""Climb to FL 280"":a) Climbing to flight level two eight zerob) Climbing to flight level two eightyc) Climbing two eight zerod) Climbing to two eighty

92.3.0.0 (5886)Blind transmission shall be made:a) On the designated frequency (frequency in use)b) To all available aeronautical stations

c) On regional guard frequencies onlyd) During IFR flights only

92.3.0.0 (5887)An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to:a) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrivalb) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspacec) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodromed) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case

92.3.0.0 (5888)An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to :a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodromeb) Return to the aerodrome of departurec) Land at the alternate aerodromed) Land at the destination aerodrome

92.3.0.0 (5889)An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to:a) Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodromeb) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rulesc) Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flightd) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome

92.3.0.0 (5890)An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:a) Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledgedb) Under no circumstancesc) 5 minutes in any cased) 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

92.3.0.0 (5891)An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received):a) At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight planb) 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledgedc) Immediately after reaching in any cased) After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

92.3.0.0 (5892)An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:a) 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is laterb) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

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c) 30 minutes after waiting for the EATd) 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer

92.3.0.0 (5893)Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and:a) Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then climb in accordance with the flight planb) Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight planc) Land at the departure aerodrome in any cased) Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan

92.3.0.0 (5894)A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to:a) Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct mannerb) Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight planc) Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest wayd) Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

92.3.0.0 (5895)In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall:a) Inform the competent ATC unit immediatelyb) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repairc) Squawk 7600d) Continue the flight in VMC

92.3.0.0 (5896)In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall:a) Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flightb) Inform FIS for relay to AISc) Insert under item 18 of the flight plan ""transponder unserviceable""d) Inform ATC after departure

92.3.0.0 (5897)The expression "" transmitting blind due to receiver failure"" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be used by:a) An aircraft station being aware of receiver failureb) An aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a ""non-towered"" airfieldc) A radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach.d) A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.

92.4.1.0 (5898)What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ?a) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by

aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportationb) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to landc) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airportd) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony

92.4.1.0 (5899)A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal:a) PAN PAN MEDICALb) MEDICAL TRANSPORTc) PROTECTED TRANSPORTd) PAN PAN TRANSPORT

92.4.2.0 (5900)The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:a) An international emergency frequencyb) A frequency for air-to-air communicationc) A regional UHF frequencyd) An airline operation frequency

92.4.2.0 (5901)An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:a) The aircraft is in distressb) The aircraft is being hijackedc) The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceabled) There is a sick passenger on board

92.4.2.0 (5902)A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means:a) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is requiredb) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehiclec) The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flightd) The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure

92.4.2.0 (5903)The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on:a) The air-ground frequency in use at the timeb) The emergency frequency in any casec) The regional guard frequencyd) The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned

92.4.2.0 (5904)When an aircraft station receives the call ""ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY"" it is requested :a) Not to interfere with the distress communication.b) To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.

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c) To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.d) To leave the frequency in use.

92.4.2.0 (5905)When an aircraft station receives the call ""ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended"" it is requested :a) To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR.b) To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity.c) Acknowledge receipt of this message.d) Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR.

92.4.2.0 (5906)Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence ?a) Stop transmitting, MAYDAYb) Stop transmitting, DISTRESSc) Stop transmitting, EMERGENCYd) All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic

92.4.2.0 (5907)The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include ?a) Distress traffic endedb) Emergency communication finishedc) MAYDAY traffic endedd) Disregard distress communication, OUT

92.4.2.0 (5908)When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include ?a) ... cancel distressb) ... MAYDAY, resuming normal operationsc) ... MAYDAY cancelledd) ... distress condition terminated

92.4.2.0 (5909)Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of :a) Distress traffic.b) Urgency communication.c) Overload of the frequency.d) Technical difficulties.

92.4.3.0 (5910)A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means:a) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not requiredb) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is requiredc) The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearanced) An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure

92.4.3.0 (5911)On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:a) Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if requiredb) Acknowledge the message immediatelyc) Impose radio silence on the frequency in used) Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use

92.4.3.0 (5912)Which of the following statements is correct ?a) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distressb) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communicationsc) There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency communicationsd) ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications

92.4.3.0 (5913)The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details :a) Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and headingb) Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flightc) Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance requiredd) Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading

92.5.1.0 (5914)When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase:a) RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metresb) The values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metresc) RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metresd) RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres

92.5.1.0 (5915)What does ""Friction coefficient 45"" in a runway report mean:a) Braking action goodb) Braking action mediumc) Braking action poord) Braking action not measurable

92.5.1.0 (5916)What does ""Friction coefficient 20"" in a runway report mean:a) Braking action poorb) Braking action mediumc) Braking action goodd) Braking action unreliable

92.5.1.0 (5917)Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be ""Unreliable"":a) Runway covered with wet snow and slushb) Runway covered with ice

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c) Runway covered with dry snowd) Runway conditions normal

92.5.1.0 (5918)If you are requested to ""Report flight conditions"", what does that mean:a) Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMCb) Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperaturec) Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landingd) Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR

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