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<p>PHARMACOLOGY Basic &amp; Clinical Pharmacology by Katzung 8th Edition)</p> <p>1.</p> <p>This measure relates the dose of the drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect. (p. 8) A. therapeutic index*** B. Idiosyncratic effect C. Tolerance D. Potency</p> <p>2. 3. 4. 5.</p> <p>This is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following administration by any route:(p. 41) A. Absorption B. First Pass Effect C. Bioavailability*** D. Bioequivalence</p> <p>In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is studied in patients with the target disease to determine its efficacy. (p. 72) A. Phase 1 B. phase 2*** C. phase 3 D. phase 4 In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is studied in patients with the target disease to determine its efficacy. (p. 72) A. Phase 1 B. phase 2*** C. phase 3 D. phase 4 This is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase and is useful in the treatment of partial seizures and WEST syndrome: (p. 404) A. vigabatrin **** C. lamotrigine B. tiagabine D. gabapentin</p> <p>6.</p> <p>Action of Insulin in the liver: (p. 717) A, increase storage of glucose as glycogen** B. increase glycogenolysis C.Increase ketogenesis D.increase gluconeogenesis</p> <p>7. 8. 9. 10.</p> <p>Most common adverse effect of insulin: (p. 721) A. hypoglycemia*** C. lipodystrophy B. allergy D. bleeding Effect of digitalis in the AV node during arrythmias: (p. 207) A. prolonged PR interval B. AV blockade C. bradycardia</p> <p>D. prolonged QT interval</p> <p>Immediate metabolic precursor of dopamine that penetrates the blood-brain barrier: (p.464) A. carbidopa B. levodopa C. selegiline The following are true of phenoxybenzamine: (p. 141) A. causes reversible blockade of alpha receptors B. blocks catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction C. significantly reduces blood pressure in supine individuals</p> <p>D. ropinorole</p> <p>D.</p> <p>stimulates histamine (H1) acetylcholine and serotonin receptors</p> <p>11. Antiarrhythmic drugs that prolong effective refractory period by prolonging action potential duration: (p. 239)A. Bepridil B. Bretylium C. Esmolol D. Lidocaine</p> <p>12. Antiarrhytmic of choice for suppression of recurrences of ventricular tachycardia &amp; fibrillation after termination of thearrhythmia by cardioversion: (p. 240) A. Adenosine B. Esmolol D. Procainamide C. Lidocaine</p> <p>13.</p> <p>The most serious toxic reaction to local anesthetics is: (p. 441) A. circumoral numbness C. nystagmus B. metabolic acidosis D. tonic-clonic convulsions</p> <p>14. Lithiums most common side effect/s (p. 491)A.polyuria and subclinical hypothyrodism*** C.polyuria and polydipsia B.polydipsia and subclinical hypothyroidism D. Polyuria and polyphagia</p> <p>15. Most important unwanted effect of anti-psychotics secondary to relative choline deficiency.(p. 488)A. Akathisia B. Parkinsonian syndrome C. Tardive dyskinesia**** D. Perioral rabbit syndrome</p> <p>16. Blocks norepinephrine &amp; serotonin reuptake pumps-the the off switches of amine transmission (p. 503)A. MAO inhibitors B. tricyclics*** C. SSRI D. heterocyclics</p> <p>17. Drug interaction of older MAO inhibitorA. depression</p> <p>with tyramine ingested in food:(p. 505) B. Hypertensive reactions*** C. hypotension D. mania</p> <p>18. The following are sites of the major classes of anti-hypertensive drugs, except:(p.158 )A. B. C. D. Sympathetic nerve terminals -receptors of juxtaglomerular cells that release rennin Hypothalamus Vasomotor center</p> <p>19. The following statements regarding selection of anti-hypertensive drugs are correct, except: (p. 179)A. ACE inhibitors are particularly useful in diabetic patients with evidence of renal disease. B. White race responds better to diuretics and calcium channel blockers than to -blockers and ACE inhibitors. C. Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers are useful in patients who have angina. D. Diuretics or ACE inhibitors are useful who also have CHF</p> <p>20. The following are the determinants of vascular tone, except:(p. 182)a.Increasing cGMP b.Increasing cAMP in the vascular cells c.Decreasing intracellular calcium d.Stabilizing or preventing depolarization of the vascular smooth muscle cell membrane</p> <p>21. The following are the pharmacodynamics of nitroglycerine, except: (p. 184-185)A. B. C. Smooth muscle relaxation Decreased ventricular preload Responsible for a decrease in platelet aggregation Increased cardiac output</p> <p>D.A. B. C. D.</p> <p>22. The following are the pharmacodynamics of NSAIDs, except: (p. 598-599)Mediated chiefly through inhibition of biosynthesis of prostaglandins All NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation All NSAIDs are anagesic, anti-inflammatory and antipyretic They are all gastric irritants as well</p> <p>23. The following are disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs, except: (p. 608)a. b. c. d. Methotrexate Cyclosporins Corticosteroids Azathioprine</p> <p>24. This agent inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding firmly to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide.It inhibits the transglycosylase, preventing further elongation of peptidoglycan and cross-linking. ( p. 768 ) A. Cycloserine B. Vancomycin C. Teicoplanin D. Bacitracin</p> <p>25. This agent is a potent inhibitor of microbial protein synthesis. It binds reversibly to the 50 S subunit of the bacterial ribosomeand inhibits peptidyl transferase step of protein synthesis. This agent is active against rickettsiae but not chlamydiae: ( p. 774) A. Chloramphenicol B. Chlortetracycline C. Amikacin D. Penicillins</p> <p>26. These agents readily bound to calcium deposited in newly formed bone or teeth in young children. When drug is givenduring pregnancy, it can be deposited in the fetal teeth, leading to fluorescence, discoloration, and enamel dysplasia: ( p. 778 ) A. Azithromycin B. Linezolid C. Tetracyclines D. Aminoglycosides</p> <p>27. This drug is split by intestinal microflora to yiels sulfapyridine and 5 aminosalicylate and is widely used in ulcerative colitis,enteritis and other inflammatory bowel diseases. (p. 794-795) A. Sulfadoxine B. Sulfamethoxazole C. Sulfasalazine D. Sulfadiazine</p> <p>28. Blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnanolone and causes reduction in the synthesis of all hormonally active steroids;used in pts. with breast Ca (page 674) A. metyrapone B. trilostane C. aminoglutethimide D. spirinolactone</p> <p>29. A glucocoorticoid antagonist that is an antifungal imidazole derivative, that is potent and rather nonselective inhibitor ofadrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis: (page 674) A. aminogluthetimide B. ketoconazole C. trilostane D. mitotane</p> <p>30. The most widely used mineralocorticoid, with both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid activity: (page 672)A. aldosterone B. deoxycortisone C. fludrocortisone D. cortisone</p> <p>31. Act as a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in the pituitary, to treat infertility in women by stimulating ovulation: (page 699)A. tamoxifen B. clomiphene C. danazol D. mifepristone</p> <p>32. An antiandrogen that prevents synthesis of dihydrotestosterone by inhibiting the activity of 5- reductase: (page 705)A. spirinolactone B. cyproterone C. finasteride D. flutamide</p> <p>33. Effects of progesterone: (page 690)A. increase basal insulin levels B. promotes blood coaguability C. promotes breast development D. affects protein metabolism</p> <p>34. Mazzoti reaction, as an adverse effect is seen with the use of this agent, characterized as eosinophilia, rashes due to therelease of foreign particles from the dying microfilariae: : (page 908) A. niclosamide B. diethylcarbamazine C. piperazine D. chloroquine</p> <p>35. A</p> <p>depolarizing muscular blocking agent used as an alternative to mebendazole in the treatment of ascariasis and enterobiasis: (page 917) A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. praziquantel D. primaquine</p> <p>36. Kills dormant liver forms in malaria: (page 889)A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. praziquantel D. primaquine</p> <p>37. The drug that could accelerate antithrombin activity resulting to blockade of the coagulation cascade at the at the thrombinlevel, thus preventing the formation of a clot is: (p. 567) A. Warfarin B. Heparin ans C. Coumarin D. Plasmin</p> <p>38. This is an antiplatelet drug whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of thromboxane synthesis, thus consequently,prevention of platelet aggregation &amp; thrombus formation: (p. 574) A. Clopidogel B. Ticlopidine C. Aspirin ans D. Dipyridamole</p> <p>39. Among the thioamide antithyroid drug, which one is preferred for pregnant women because it crosses the placental barrierless readily thus will not affect the fetus?( p. 651) A. Methimazole B. Carbimazole C. Propylthiouracil ans D. Ipodate</p> <p>40. Which beta blocker is most widely used to control the symptom of hyperthyroidism? (p. 653)A. B. C. D. Propranolol ans Metoprolol Labetalol Guanithidine</p> <p>41. Drugs that competitively inhibit CYP enzymes cause a. Decrease in concentration of the object drug b. Increase in concentration of object drug c. Decrease efficacy of object drug d. Irreversible inactivation of the enzyme 42. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is explained by: a. Substitution for GABA b. Direct activation of GABA receptors c. Increase duration of GABA gated chloride channel opening d. Increase frequency of GABA gated chloride channel opening 43. The use of benzodiazepines in the chronic treatment of seizures is limited because of their</p> <p>a.b.</p> <p>high toxicity effects slow absorption</p> <p>c. tolerance d. low therapeutic index</p> <p>44. Which should be observed to minimize adverse effects of sedative hypnotics? a. Always give a very low dose. b. Doses should be given at daytime. c. Combine two drugs with different toxicities d. Efficacy of therapy is based on patients subjective response 45. A 50 y/o male coca cola executive was using fluoxetine for depression but decided to stop taking the drug for it affects his sexual performance and even said he is getting older. He is also a tobacco user. What is the next best drug to use?</p> <p>a.</p> <p>Bupropion b. Sertraline</p> <p>c. citalopram d venlafaxine</p> <p>46. A fly catching movement of the tongue commonly observed as a drawback of all typical antipsychotics is called</p> <p>a.b.</p> <p>lead pipe rigidity rabbit syndrome</p> <p>c. tardive dyskinesia d. akathisia c. isoflurane d. halothane Which is not a recommended drug?</p> <p>47. The most hepatotoxic general inhalational anesthetic a. Nitrous oxide</p> <p>b.</p> <p>Sevoflurane</p> <p>48. A 55 year old female has post-menopausal osteoporosis. a. Estrogen c.b. Calcium 49. Corticosteroid with most potent anti-inflammatory activity:</p> <p>Biphosphonate d. Calcitonin</p> <p>a.b.</p> <p>Prednisone Dexamethasone</p> <p>c. Betamethasone d. Cortisone</p> <p>50. Drug of choice (DOC) for endometriosis in young women</p> <p>a. b. a.b.</p> <p>danazol leuprolide</p> <p>c. mifepristone d. misoprostol</p> <p>51. The effect of diethylstilbestrol intake taken during pregnancy on female infants: vaginal adenocarcinoma endometrial carcinoma c. cervical polyp d. breast fibroadenoma</p> <p>52. The most common adverse effect of clomiphene is</p> <p>a.b.</p> <p>hot flushes hair loss</p> <p>c. constipation d. headache</p> <p>53. A 65 year old married man was found to have greatly enlarged prostate. Which one of the following drug is MOST likely to suppress prostatic growth without affecting libido? a. Spironolactone c. Ketoconazole</p> <p>b. b. a.b.</p> <p>Finasteride</p> <p>d. Flutamide</p> <p>54. Testosterone therapy may be indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction in which of the following situation? a. Aged patient c. Alcoholism Hypogonadism d. Depression</p> <p>55. Major mechanism of action of aspirin as NSAID is Reversible COX inhibitor Chemotaxis inhibition c. Irreversible PG biosynthesis inhibition d. Down regulation of IL-1</p> <p>56. Which of the following is the drug of choice for inducing labor</p> <p>a.b.</p> <p>Oxytocin Misoprostol</p> <p>c. Methyl ergonovine d. Dinoprostone</p> <p>57. The primary consideration in all clinical trials is to a. Determine the safety of the drug b. Determine the efficacy of the drug c. Ensure that there is no risk to the subject d. Provide for the welfare of the subject</p> <p>58. According to the Philippine National Drug Formulary (PNDF), complementary drugs are:A. B. C. D. those drugs italicized in the guide drugs that satisfy the health care needs of majority of population drugs with special pharmacological properties not to be used as an alternative to core drugs</p> <p>Ans. C. Philippine National Drug Formulary, 2000 edition, p. 109. Essential Drugs Concept 59. Which of the following is considered a regulated drug? A. pseudoephedrine C. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) B. meperidine D. cocaine Ans. A. Dangerous Drug Board Info Republic Act 6425 Dangerous Drugs 60. Differences in the rate of acetylation of isoniazid among groups of individuals exemplifies. A. pharmacodynamics C. pharmacogenetics B. posology D. biochemorphology Ans. C. Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 2 and 5. Pharmacogenetics</p> <p>61. Absorption of most orally administered drugs occurs in the small intestine.A. taking agents that accelerate gastric emptying time B. the presence of food C. stimulation of hepatic microsomal CYP3A4 enzymes D. increasing intestinal motility Ans. A. Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 41, 42, 53, and 56. Pharmacokinetics 62. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are categorized as to which type? A. G protein coupled C. kinase-linked B. ion channel-linked D. nuclear Ans. B Katzung, 9th edition pp. 18-23 Pharmacodynamics 63. If a drug has a high distribution volume, it indicates: A. it is highly bound to plasma proteins B. the drug is highly retained in the vascular compartment C. the plasma drug concentration will increase D. there is extensive tissue uptake Ans. D. Katzung, pp. 35 and 47. Pharmacokinetics 64. The index of safety of a drug decreases as the median toxic dose : A. decreases and the median effective dose increases B. increases and the median effective dose decreases C. and the median effective dose decrease D. and the median effective dose increase Ans. A. Katzung, 9th edition, p. 30. Pharmacodynamics</p> <p>This may be enhanced by:</p> <p>65. What is the major second messenger of beta receptor activation that participates in signal transduction? A. inositol triphosphates C. calcium B. cAMP D. adenylyl cyclase Ans. B. Katzung, 9th edition, p. 25-27. Pharmacodynamics 66. In what condition are the drugs phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine useful?</p> <p>A. pheochromocytoma B. migraine attacks Ans. A. Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 144-146. Adrenergic Receptor Blockers 67. Acetylcholine acts by: A. increasing adenylyl cyclase activity B. decreasing cGMP concentrations C. activating the IP3, diacylglycerol pathway D. all of the above Ans. C Katzung, 9th edition, p.97 Cholinergic Agonists</p> <p>C. essential hypertension D. benign prostatic hyperplasia</p> <p>68. Which of the following antihypertensive agents has the best documented evidence for prophylaxis against migraine attacks?A. pindolol B. propranolol Ans. B. Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 148 and 156 Adrenoceptor Antagonists C. clonidine D. prazosin</p> <p>69. Which is a direct effect of nitrates when gi...</p>