parishram test 1

Sample Test

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SAMPLE TEST – 1

(TEST CODE: 201201)

QUESTION 1

DOMAIN: Space in News Q1. Consider the following statements in about Mission Chandrayaan 2 that was launched by India recently: 1. It is the first space expedition to attempt a soft landing on the lunar surface with domestically developed technology. 2. It has made India the fourth country ever to soft land on the lunar surface. 3. Pragyan Lander and Vikram Rover are two of its important components. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

Out of given statements only 2nd statement is correct, the other two statements contain a JUMLAA. In statement 1, it is being implied that Chandrayaan 1 is world’s first space mission to attempt a soft landing on moon with domestically developed technology. This is false, as China earlier this year had done the same and USA had also done it a while ago. In Statement 3, the names of Lander and Rover have been interchanged making it incorrect. Recent Context:

Recently, Indian Space Research Organization successfully launched India’s second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan – 1. Why is it needed to study the Moon?

Moon provides the best linkage to Earth’s early history.

It offers an undisturbed historical record of the inner Solar system environment. Though there are a few mature models, the origin of Moon still needs further explanations.

Extensive mapping of lunar surface to study variations in lunar surface composition is essential to trace back the origin and evolution of the Moon.

Evidence for water molecules discovered by Chandrayaan-1, requires further studies on the extent of water molecule distribution on the surface, below the surface and in the tenuous lunar exosphere to address the origin of water on Moon.

What makes Chandrayaan 2 so special?





1st space mission to conduct a soft landing on the Moon’s south polar region.

1st Indian expedition to attempt a soft landing on the lunar surface with home-grown technology. This implies that Chandrayaan 2 Mission is India’s (and not the world’s) first expedition to attempt soft landing on lunar surface.

1st Indian mission to explore the lunar terrain with home-grown technology.

4th country ever to soft-land on the lunar surface, after USA, Russia, and China. (Therefore statement 2 is correct)

IMPORTANT FACTS YOU NEED TO KNOW ABOUT CHANDRAYAAN 2: Mission Objective:

It seeks to demonstrate key technologies for end-to-end lunar mission capability.

This will include soft-landing and roving on lunar surface.

It will also carry detailed study of moon’s topography and atmosphere that would allow scientists to a better understanding of the Moon.

Rocket / Launch Vehicle used:

The mission deployed Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) MK-III to launch the mission.

GSLV MK-III is India’s most powerful launcher (so far). It has been completely designed and fabricated indigenously.

It is a three-stage launch vehicle capable of launching 4-ton class of satellite into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbits (GTO).

There are three main components of GSLV MK-III:

S-200 Solid Rocket Boosters

L110 Liquid Stage

C25 Upper Stage

With the launch of Chandrayaan-2 GSLV MK-III has marked its first operational flight as well. Launch Site:

The launcher carrying the components of Chandrayaan 2 mission was lifted off from the Second Launch Pad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre SHAR (SDSC SHAR), Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.

Fun Fact:

Most of the space launch programmes are deployed from the eastern coast. Reason: Earth rotates from West to East, therefore in case of a failure, a space vehicle is likely to sink into ocean rather than hit a populated area on the land.





Components of Chandrayaan 2: Mission Chandrayaan 2 consists of a Rover (Pragyan Rover); Orbiter and lander (Vikram) and that makes statement 3 incorrect.

Pragyan Rover:

Weight 27kg

Electric Power Generation Capacity 50 W

It is a six 6-wheeled robotic vehicle named Pragyan, which translates to 'wisdom' in Sanskrit.

It can travel up to 500 m (½-a-km) and leverages solar energy for its functioning. It can only communicate with the Lander.

Vikram Lander:

Weight 1,417 kg

Electric Power Generation Capacity 650 W

The Lander of Chandrayaan 2 is named Vikram after Dr Vikram A Sarabhai, the Father of the Indian Space Programme.





It is designed to function for one lunar day, which is equivalent to about 14 Earth days.

Vikram has the capability to communicate with IDSN at Byalalu near Bangalore, as well as with the Orbiter and Rover.

The Lander is designed to execute a soft landing on the lunar surface. Orbiter:

Weight 2,379 kg

Electric Power Generation Capacity 1,000 W

At the time of launch, the Chandrayaan 2 Orbiter will be capable of communicating with Indian Deep Space Network (IDSN) at Byalalu as well as the Vikram Lander. The mission life of the Orbiter is one year and it will be placed in a 100X100 km lunar polar orbit. Chandrayaan 2 Landing Site: Chandrayaan 2 will be making an attempt at landing a lander and the moon rover in a high plain situated between two craters called as Manzinus C and Simpelius N. The location has a latitude of about 70-degrees south. Why is Chandrayaan making a landing at the south pole?

The lunar South Pole is especially interesting because of the lunar surface area here that remains in shadow is much larger than that at the North Pole.

There is a possibility of the presence of water in permanently shadowed areas around it.

In addition, the South Pole region has craters that are cold traps and contain a fossil record of the early Solar System.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Space in news SIGNIFICANCE OF CHANDRAYAAN 2:

1st space mission to conduct a soft landing on the Moon’s south polar region.





1st Indian expedition to attempt a soft landing on the lunar surface with home-grown technology. 1st Indian mission to explore the lunar terrain with home-grown technology.

4th country ever to soft-land on the lunar surface, after USA, Russia, and China. The given facts can be quoted in relevant mains answers in case there is a need to demonstrate the space prowess of India or role of India in contributing to the development of science and technology in general and space technology in particular. Important Sources: 1. PIB dated July 22nd, 2019 Link: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1579794 2. ISRO Wesite Link: https://www.isro.gov.in/chandrayaan2-home-0

QUESTION 2

DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies Q. Recently RBI has mandated risk officers for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). Consider the following statements in this regard. 1. It is mandatory for all the shadow banks to appoint Chief Risk Officers (CROs) with clearly specified roles and responsibilities. 2. Removal or transfer of CRO would not require the approval of the NBFC Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: D

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, RBI has issued a regulation making it mandatory for the all shadow banks with a size of over ₹5,000 crore to appoint chief risk officers (CROs) with clearly specified roles and responsibilities. Statement 1 is therefore incorrect, because not all, but only those NBFCs or shadow banks with size of more than ₹5,000 crore need to appoint Chief Security Officer to augment the risk management practices.

MORE ABOUT THE DEVELOPMENT:

The CRO shall be a senior official in the hierarchy of an NBFC [non-banking finance company].

He/she shall possess adequate professional qualification/ experience in the area of risk management.



http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1579794

https://www.isro.gov.in/chandrayaan2-home-0



Removal or transfer will need the NBFC board’s approval and has to be reported to the regulator. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.

The CRO shall have direct reporting lines to the Managing Director (MD) & CEO or the Risk Management Committee (RMC) of the Board.

In case the CRO reports to the MD & CEO, the Risk Management Committee of the NBFC Board shall meet the CRO without the presence of the MD & CEO, at least on a quarterly basis.

RATIONALE BEHIND THIS MOVE:

RBI's directive comes at a time when India's shadow banks are facing a funding crisis as some of the firms are burdened with over-leveraging and mismatch between assets and liabilities.

With the increasing role of NBFCs in direct credit intermediation, there is a need for NBFCs to augment risk management practices.

WHAT IS A SHADOW BANKING?

The term refers to the practice of banking like activities performed by non-banking finance companies, which are not subject to strict regulation.

However, these institutions function as intermediaries between the investors and the borrowers, providing credit and generating liquidity in the system.

Although these entities do not accept traditional demand deposits offered by banks, they do provide services similar to what commercial banks offer.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-mandates-risk-officers-for-nbfcs/article27153421.ece 2. The Economic Times dated May 16th, 2019 Link: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/banking/finance/banking/rbi-directs-nbfcs-to-appoint-credit-risk-officer/articleshow/69360566.cms

QUESTION 3

DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices Q. ‘Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision 2019 – 2021’ was sometimes seen in news. Which of the following statements about it is/are correct? 1. It is published by Reserve Bank of India (RBI). 2. The theme of this publication is: ‘Empowering Exceptional E-payment Experience’. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: C





EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, on 15th May 2019, RBI released its vision document titled - ‘Payment and Settlement Systems in India: Vision 2019 – 2021’. Hence statement 1 is correct. CORE THEME OF THE DOCUMENT: ‘Empowering Exceptional (E)payment Experience’. Hence statement 2 is also correct. OBJECTIVE ENSHRINED IN THE DOCUMENT:

It aims at empowering every Indian with access to a bouquet of e-payment options that is safe, secure, convenient, quick and affordable.

It envisages to achieve a ‘highly digital’ and ‘cash-lite’ society through the goal posts of Competition, Cost effectiveness, Convenience and Confidence (4Cs).

OTHER SALIENT FEATURES OF THE VISION DOCUMENT:

The Payment Systems Vision 2021 has been formalised based on inputs from various stakeholders and guidance of the Board for Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS).

With concerted efforts and involvement of all stake holders, the Payment Systems Vision 2021, with its 36 specific action points and 12 specific outcomes, aspires to: (a) Enhance customer experience, including robust grievance redressal (b) Empower Payment System Operators and Service Providers (c) Enable the payments eco-system and infrastructure (d) Put in place forward-looking regulations (e) Undertake risk-focused supervision.

The ‘no-compromise’ approach towards safety and security of payment systems remains a hallmark of the Vision.

The Reserve Bank of India will implement the approach outlined in this Vision during the period 2019 – 2021. The previous Vision document covered the period 2016-2018.

The payment systems landscape will continue to change with further innovation and entry of more players which is expected to ensure optimal cost to the customers and freer access to multiple payment system options. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu Business Line dated May 16th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-sets-2021-target-for-digital-transactions/article27141050.ece 2. RBI Website





Links: https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=47045






QUESTION 4

DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies



https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=47045





Q. Consider the following statements in context of Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) that was seen in news sometimes: 1. It is a law enforcement agency and economic intelligence agency, primarily responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crime in India. 2. It works under Central Board of indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

Only statement 2 is correct because there is a JUMLAA in statement 1. Statement 1 is describing about the Enforcement Directorate and not Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI). Recent Context:

Recently, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) busted a network operating across India, China, Pakistan and Myanmar that had been engaged in smuggling high-end drones. Now, UPSC won’t ask you what all items were seized and what is their worth. Rather certain static questions based in DRI may be asked, so let us revise some important facts about Directorate of Revenue Intelligence. ABOUT DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE INTELLIGENCE:

The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. Statement 1 is therefore incorrect, because it is referring to Enforcement Directorate (ED). While the ED is entrusted with the responsibility of enforcing economic laws and fighting economic crimes in India, DRI on the other hand is primarily concerned with the anti-smuggling operations.

It is working under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Statement 2 is therefore correct.

It is tasked with detecting and curbing smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty.

DRI enforces provisions of the Customs Act in addition to over 50 other statutes including the NDPS Act, Arms Act, WMD Act etc.

DRI is also a part of the Cabinet Secretariat's National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention, the Special Investigation Team on Black Money, the Task Force on Shell Companies, the Multi Agency Center (MAC) on National Security, the Ministry of Home Affairs/NIA's special wings on





Left Wing Extremism Financing, as well as various inter-ministerial committees on Terror Financing, Coastal Security, Fake Indian Currency Notes, etc.

Though its early days were committed to combating the smuggling of gold, it now also addresses narcotics and economic crimes.

DRI routinely makes fake Indian currency note seizures.

In the last 5 years, the DRI has seized more than 540 kg of heroin and 7,409 kg of ephedrine along with other narcotics and psychotropic substances.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dri-busts-drone-smuggling-network/article27153733.ece

QUESTION 5

DOMAIN: Environment in news Q. Consider the following statements in context of Asian Summer Monsoon: 1. The rainfall from the Asian Summer Monsoon has been declining over the past 80 years. 2. Tree Ring records can help in reconstructing the chronological record of the monsoon with a great accuracy. 3. The decline in the rainfall from Asian Summer Monsoon coincides with the boom in industrial development in Asia. 4. Sulphate aerosols have been identified as the major cause for the decline in the rainfall from Asian Summer Monsoon. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) All given statements are correct CORRECT ANSWER: D

EXPLANATION

All the given statements are correct. Let us understand the recent context of this question and also some important facts needed to answer this question correctly. Recent Context:





Recently a study conducted by University of Arizona in US has revealed that rainfall from the Asian summer monsoon, which influences water availability, ecosystems and agriculture in India, has been decreasing over the past 80 years. Statement 1 is therefore correct. METHODOLOGY OF THE STUDY:

The study, used tree ring records to reconstruct the Asian summer monsoon back to 1566. The researchers were able to gather nearly 450 years’ worth of tree ring data with clear annual resolution from an area where tree ring growth correlates very strongly with rainfall. Hence statement 2 is also correct.

In wetter years, trees tend to grow thicker rings and precipitation records can be gleaned by measuring the thickness and density of the individual layers.

One of the primary advantages of using tree rings to study precipitation is the annual resolution and the exact dating. This again validates the correctness of statement 2.

The tree rings captured drought periods such as the one that struck in 1928 and 1929 that led to widespread famine where more than 500,000 people died in China alone.

The findings were also cross-checked with Chinese historical records of locust plagues, which tend to occur in drought years, as well as previously published tree ring chronologies.

The new study found that the 80-year declining rainfall trend is unprecedented in the last 450 years, with more thin growth rings in the last 80 years than any other period.

Prior to the 1940s, drought periods tended to be intermittent and shorter in duration with no other decades-long declines since 1566.

Several factors are thought to affect the strength of the Asian Summer Monsoon, including solar variability, volcanic eruptions and anthropogenic aerosols.

The researchers used climate models to show sulphate aerosols — atmospheric pollutants that cause haze — are likely the dominant forcing agent controlling the decline of the Asian Summer Monsoon over the past 80 years. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

MORE ABOUT THE STUDY:





The study found that the monsoon has been weakening since the 1940s, resulting in regional droughts and hardships.

The researchers have identified that the man-made atmospheric pollutants are likely the reason for the decline – which was unprecedented in the last 448 years.

The 80-year decline in the monsoon coincides with the ongoing boom in industrial development and aerosol emissions in China and the northern hemisphere that began around the end of World War II, according to the study. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct.

IMPACT OF THE DECLINING MONSOON RAINFALL:

Nearly half of the world’s population is affected by the Asian summer monsoon, which dumps the majority of the continent’s rainfall in a few short, torrential months.

Summer rainfall has been declining in recent decades, influencing water availability, ecosystems and agriculture from India to Siberia.

These trends have serious ramifications not just for the people in Asia but also for the entire world.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Statistics

Recently a study conducted by University of Arizona in US has revealed that rainfall from the Asian summer monsoon, which influences water availability, ecosystems and agriculture in India, has been decreasing over the past 80 years.

The 80-year decline in the monsoon coincides with the ongoing boom in industrial development and aerosol emissions in China and the northern hemisphere that began around the end of World War II, according to the study.


Link: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/asian-summer-monsoon-weakening-unprecedented-study/article27146879.ece

QUESTION 6

DOMAIN: International Treaties, Declarations and Protocols Q. Consider the following statements in context of Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA), which was often seen in news: 1. It is an India-specific version of the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). 2. It is a part of the foundational agreements that USA signs with its allies and close partners to facilitate interoperability between militaries and sale of high-end technology. 3. It came into force in the year 2016. 4. It gives access, to both countries (India & USA), to designated military facilities on either side for the purpose of refuelling and replenishment. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only





(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, on the side-lines of the Asia Pacific naval and maritime event, International Maritime Defence Exhibition (IMDEX), John Richardson (the US Navy, chief of naval operations) remarked that COMCASA Agreement between India and USA will help both the countries to exchange critical information that will help them fight against terrorism. WHAT IS COMCASA?

COMCASA stands for Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement.

It is one of the four foundational agreements that the U.S. signs with allies and close partners to facilitate interoperability between militaries and sale of high-end technology. Hence statement 2 is correct.

COMCASA is an India-specific version of the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). Therefore statement 1 is correct.

It came into force on September 6th, 2018 - immediately after India and USA signed this agreement.

It shall be valid for a period 10 years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. SIGNIFICANCE OF COMCASA FOR INDIA

It will allow India to procure transfer specialised equipment for encrypted communications for US origin military platforms like the C-17, C-130 and P-8Is.

It would facilitate access to advanced defence systems and enable India to optimally utilize its existing U.S.-origin platforms.

Statement 4 is therefore incorrect. The JUMLAA in statement 4 is that it is trying to confuse the aspirants by mentioning the objective of LEMOA and not COMCASA.

LEMOA is another foundational agreement that USA signs with its allies and close partners to facilitate interoperability between militaries and sale of high-end technology. We shall be explaining LEMOA in the upcoming sections of this answer.

DOES IT COMPROMISE THE SOVEREIGNTY AND SECURITY OF INDIA?





Not likely. Specific additional provisions have been incorporated in the text to safeguard our security and national interests.

The US. Data acquired through such systems cannot be disclosed or transferred to any person or entity without India’s consent.

Both countries will implement this agreement in a manner that is consistent with the national security interests of the other.

WHAT ARE THE OTHER FOUR FOUNDATIONAL AGREEMENTS THAT THE USA SIGNS WITH ITS ALLIES AND ITS CLOSE PARTNERS?

In addition to Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA), there are 3 other agreements:

1. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) which India had signed in 2002. 2. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) which India had signed in 2016. 3. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA) India is yet to

sign this agreement. Significance of Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement LEMOA:

LEMOA gives access, to both countries, to designated military facilities on either side for the purpose of refuelling and replenishment. The JUMLAA of statement 4.

India and the U.S. already hold large number of joint exercises during which payments are done each time, which is a long and tedious process.

Under this agreement, a mechanism has been instituted for book-keeping and payments and officials, who will act as nodal points of contact, will be designated on both sides. Thus, streamlining the process.

The agreement will primarily cover four areas — port calls, joint exercises, training and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief.

Any other requirement has to be agreed upon by both sides on a case-by-case basis. Apprehensions against LEMOA:

Many believe that LEMOA will allow USA to use Indian Soil to base its military troops.

However, LEMOA is not a basing agreement.

There will be no basing of the U.S. troops or assets on Indian soil.

This is purely a logistical agreement. India can access the string of U.S. facilities across the globe for logistical support and the U.S., which operates in a big way in Asia-Pacific, will benefit from Indian facilities.

Significance of General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA):

It allows the sharing of classified information from the U.S. government and American companies with the Government of India and Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSU) but not with Indian private companies.

It helps to develop defence services of both the countries. Significance of Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA):





It would provide India with topographical and aeronautical data and products, which will aid navigation and targeting.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: International Treaties, International Declarations, International Protocols

The four foundational agreements mentioned below can be quoted in various answers to substantiate the strategic tis between India and USA. Alternately it can also be quoted in answers to substantiate India’s efforts to strengthen its military partnership.

a. General Security of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) b. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement LEMOA c. Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) d. Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA)


Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/comcasa-agreement-will-enable-info-exchange-to-fight-terror-says-us-admiral/article27153024.ece

2. The Hindu dated September 6th, 2018

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-is-comcasa/article24881039.ece 3. The Hindu dated August 30th, 2018

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/What-is-LEMOA/article15604647.ece

QUESTION 7

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. In context of Parliament of India, which of the following best describes the term ‘casual vacancy’? (a) It refers to a situation when a Member of Parliament is on a casual leave and is unable to discharge his/her parliamentary obligations. (b) It refers to a situation when a member of Parliament is unable to discharge his/her Parliamentary obligations on account of being suspended from the house by the speaker or chairman on the grounds of indiscipline. (c) It refers to a situation in which a Parliamentary seat becomes vacant during its term on account of death, resignation or disqualification of the sitting member, or for other reasons. (d) None of the above. CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:





The term ‘casual vacancy’ was in news due to the 17th Lok Sabha Elections being conducted this year. What does casual vacancy mean?

When the seat of a member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha or a State Legislative Assembly or a State Legislative Council becomes vacant, or when his or her election is declared void, the constituency from where the member was elected can vote for another person to fill up the vacancy.

Such a vacancy is referred to as ‘Casual Vacancy’

If the vacancy is in a seat reserved for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, the person to fill that seat must also belong to a Scheduled Caste or Tribe, as the case may be.

A by-election to fill up such a vacancy should be held within a period of six months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.

Hence all other options except option C are incorrect and our correct answer is option C. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019

Link: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-does-casual-vacancy-mean/article27140048.ece

QUESTION 8

DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions Q. Consider the following statements in context of ‘Christchurch Call to Action Summit’ which was in news recently: 1. It is a political summit initiated by New Zealand. 2. It is aimed at stopping abuse of the Internet by extremists. 3. It concluded with ‘Christchurch Call to Action’ – which is a non-binding agreement on the signatories. 4. France has refrained from signing the agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 4 only (d) All statements are correct CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

The first thing to be noted here is that the question has asked for the incorrect statements. Hence the correct option will consist of the statements which are incorrect. And a spoiler alert – at least one of the statements is incorrect and therefore option D can also not be our answer.





Recent Context:

WHAT IS ‘CHRISTCHURCH CALL TO ACTION’ Summit?

The Christchurch Call to Action Summit (also called the Christchurch Call), is a political summit initiated by New Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Ardern following the Christchurch mosque shootings of 15 March 2019. Statement 1 is therefore correct.

The summit took place in Paris on 15 May 2019.

It was Co-chaired by Prime Minister of New Zealand Jacinda Ardern and President Emmanuel Macron of France. Hence, statement 3 cannot be correct because France co-hosted the Summit and therefore it is unlikely that it refrained from signing the agreement.

OBJECTIVE OF THE SUMMIT:

It aims to "bring together countries and tech companies in an attempt to bring to an end “the ability to use social media to organise and promote terrorism and violent extremism".

The World leaders and technology companies pledged to "eliminate terrorist and violent extremist content online"

17 countries signed the non-binding agreement – referred to as “Christchurch Call to Action.

The pledge/agreement consists of three sections or commitments: one for governments, one for online service providers, and one for the ways in which the two can work together.

India is also a signatory to this agreement.

Online Service Providers like – Amazon, Microsoft, Dailymotion, Qwant, Facebook, Twitter, Google and YouTube are also the signatories of the agreement.

USA did not participate?

The United States declined to attend the summit, expressing concerns that US compliance with the agreement could create conflicts with free-speech protections in the country's Constitution.

The United States however did support the summit's "overarching message" and "endorsed its overall goals.

Although, the document stresses on the need to ensure that it does not impinge upon the rights of free speech of citizens of any country. Yet, USA has refrained from being a signatory to this agreement.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Summits, Conferences and Conventions “Christchurch call to action” is an important agreement to tackle the growing menace of extremism that has made deep in roots into various social media platforms. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-signs-christchurch-call-to-action/article27142874.ece 2. India Today





Link: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/christchurch-call-to-action-1526118-2019-05-16






QUESTION 9

DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices







Q. Consider the following statements in context of Lancet Global Health Report 2015: 1. India has missed the Millennium Development Goals (MDG) Target for reducing under 5 mortality rate. 2. Most of the deaths among children below 5 years in India was primarily caused by preventable infectious diseases. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, a new study in The Lancet Global Health has flagged the deaths among children under five in India, which was higher than in any other country in 2015.

Researchers at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health also found large disparities in the child mortality rate between richer and poorer states.

MORE ABOUT THE NEWS: Status of under 5 Mortality in India:

Annual mortality among children under 5 in India was 2.5 million in 2000. While the under 5 mortality rates was 90.5 per 1000 live birth.

This has reduced significantly since then and as per the Lancet report, the annual under 5 mortality in India in 2015 reduced to 0.12 million out of 2.5 million live births. This translates to the under 5 mortality rate of 47.8 per 1000.

In spite of this improvement, the annual mortality among children under the age of 5 years in India was still the highest in the world.

Disparity among States:

Among the states, the highest mortality rate, in Assam at 73.1 per 1,000, was more than seven times that in Goa’s 9.7.

Among the regions, the mortality rate ranged from a low of 29.7 per 1,000 (South) to 63.8 (Northeast).





Mortality Rate & Millennium Development Goals:

The United Nations Millennium Development Goals (MDG) set in 2000 was to reduce the under-five mortality rate in 2015 to one-third of the 1990 figure.

For India, that would have meant reducing the under-five mortality rate to 39 deaths per 1,000 live births.

However, as per the lancet data, India could not achieve this target. Hence statement 1 is correct. Reasons for higher Mortality among children below 5 years of age: The Lancet analysis found that although most under-five deaths were due to preterm complications, preventable infectious diseases featured prominently as causes of death in higher-mortality states. Hence statement 2 is also correct. Way forward for India: • The Lancet Report Suggests that India can accelerate its reduction of under-five mortality rates by

scaling up vaccine coverage and improving childbirth and neonatal care, especially in states where mortality rates remain high.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Statistics; Reports, Rankings and Indices 1. According to Lancet Report, annual mortality among children under

5 in India was 2.5 million in 2000 and the under 5 mortality rate was 90.5 per 1000 live births (year 2000).

2. The Lancet report found that in 2015, the annual mortality in India among children under 5 years was 0.12 million out of 2.5 million live births which was the highest in the world. The under 5 mortality rate in India was 47.8 per 1000 live birth (year 2015).

3. The United Nations Millennium Development Goals (MDG) set in 2000 was to reduce the under-five mortality rate in 2015 to one-third of the 1990 figure. For India, that would have meant reducing the under-five mortality rate to 39 deaths per 1,000 live births. Which means India missed the MDG Target of under 5 mortality rate.

4. Disparity among States: a. Among the states, the highest mortality rate, in Assam at 73.1

per 1,000, was more than seven times that in Goa’s 9.7. b. Among the regions, the mortality rate ranged from a low of

29.7 per 1,000 (South) to 63.8 (Northeast). 5. The Lancet Report Suggests that India can accelerate its reduction

of under-five mortality rates by scaling up vaccine coverage and improving childbirth and neonatal care, especially in states where mortality rates remain high.

Source: Lancet Global Health Report 2019 Important Sources: 1. The Indian Express Explained dated May 16th, 2019





Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/under-5-mortality-in-india-study-flags-disparity-among-states-5729952/

QUESTION 10

DOMAIN: Latest technology in news Q. Facial Recognition Technology is a newly emerging technology that has a wide range of applications but at the same time there are certain apprehensions associated with it. Which of the following may be the reasons for such apprehensions? 1. Concerns over loss of privacy. 2. Lower accuracy as compared to other biometric technologies. 3. Ability of this technology to classify the people based on their race, age and gender. 4. It includes a contactless and non-invasive process for identification. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Out of the given statements all the statements except statement 4 is a reason for apprehensions against the facial recognition technology. Statement 4 is rather considered an advantage of the facial recognition technology over the other biometric technologies. Recent Context:

Recently, there has been some unease around the use of facial recognition which stems from concerns over the loss of privacy, and fears that the state may be unwilling or incapable of protecting this fundamental right of citizens. WHAT IS FACIAL RECOGNITION?

Facial recognition is a biometric technology that uses distinctive features on the face to identify and distinguish an individual.





There are multiple methods in which facial recognition systems work, but in general, they work by comparing selected facial features from given image with faces within a database.

It is also described as a Biometric Artificial Intelligence based application that can uniquely identify a person by analysing patterns based on the person's facial textures and shape.

The accuracy of facial recognition system as a biometric technology is lower than iris recognition and fingerprint recognition which leads to an apprehension against its use.

However, it is widely adopted due to its contactless and non-invasive process. EMERGING APPLICATIONS OF FACE RECOGNITION TECHNOLOGY: A. Access control in security systems:

The technology is extensively used to offer access to secure environments or devices.

This technology is now incorporated into various affordable smartphones which are now able to identify faces as male and female, and even mark an age.

B. Public Surveillance for Law and Order:

With machine learning, the technology has become capable of sorting out types of faces.

CCTV cameras in public places, plugged into powerful computers, can pick out faces and match them against a database, or just pick out certain types of faces.

As camera capabilities have improved, facial recognition has become possible in low light, and even from long distances.

Such applications can be useful for Law Enforcement Agencies to trace the movements of a notorious criminal or terrorist on streets.

Advantages of Facial Recognition:

Compared to other biometric techniques, facial recognition is of a non-contact nature. Hence statement 4 is incorrect as contactless nature of this technology is actually an advantage.

Face images can be captured from a distance and can be analyzed without ever requiring any interaction with the user/person.

As a result, no user can successfully imitate another person.

Facial recognition can serve as an excellent security measure for time tracking and attendance. Facial recognition is also cheap technology as there is less processing involved, like in other biometric techniques.

APPREHENSIONS ASSOCIATED WITH FACIAL RECOGNITION TECHNOLOGY: Misuse by the ‘STATE’

With rapid penetration of facial recognition technology, avenues have opened up for the misuse or abuse of facial recognition technologies. Example: China, which has possibly the most extensive network of CCTV cameras in the world, has reportedly been using facial recognition to pick out wanted individuals from crowds at airports and railways station.

There have also been reports of China using facial recognition technology to racially profile its citizens — sorting faces into categories of Han Chinese and Uyghur Muslim. Statement 3 is therefore correct.





The Uyghurs, a Turkish race people living in China’s western Xinjiang Autonomous Region, have been restive under Beijing’s rule, and the Chinese state has responded with an oppressive system of surveillance, arrests and detentions.

Given the fact that the technology continues to have a not-insignificant error rate, punitive state action based on such profiling could lead to grave miscarriages of justice.

Privacy Concerns:

The unease around the use of facial recognition stems from concerns over the loss of privacy, and fears that the state may be unwilling or incapable of protecting this fundamental right of citizens.

Civil liberties advocacies have warned that the identification of people without their knowledge and consent stands in the way of their ability to act and move about freely. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Technological Drawbacks:

Facial recognition can only identify people when the conditions such as lighting are favourable.

The application could be less reliable in case of insufficient light or if the face is partially obscured. Another disadvantage is that facial recognition is less effective when facial expressions vary. This implies statement 2 is correct.

FACIAL RECOGNITION IN INDIA:

Recently, Bengaluru’s Kempegowda International Airport has prepared itself to roll out facial recognition as part of the boarding procedure for passengers later this year.

The facial biometric programme will be implemented as part of the Ministry of Civil Aviation’s Digi Yatra initiative.

Airport operator Bengaluru International Airport Ltd had signed an agreement last year with a Portuguese software firm to implement the technology.

Impact:

There is massive potential for both the use and misuse of facial recognition technology in India.

This is because the country has the largest verified biometric database of faces in the world, thanks to the Unique Identification Authority of India’s (UIDAI) efforts to capture the data of as many citizens as possible.

With UIDAI opening up its face recognition API, the same can be used as an additional verification method for financial or other transactions.

At the same time, the system can, unless strong checks are put in place, be subject to massive abuse or misuse.

Important Sources: 1. The Indian Express Explained dated May 16th, 2019

Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/the-push-for-and-the-pushback-against-facial-recognition-technology-5729943/

QUESTION 11

DOMAIN: Space in news





Q. Consider the following statements in context of “Chang’e-4 spacecraft” which was often seen in news: 1. It is a Japanese space craft, named after the moon Goddess in mythology. 2. It is the first ever space craft to touch down on the far side of the Lunar Surface. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION

Aspirants should first note the JUMLAA in this question. That is, it has asked us for the incorrect statements, therefore the correct answer should contain the incorrect statement. Recent Context:

Recently, in January this year China has become the first country in the world to have send its space

rover onto the far side of the Moon.

The Rover has started its expeditions and is bringing out some important facts associated with the far side of the moon.

MORE ABOUT THE NEWS:

China used Chang’e-4 Lunar Rover to make a soft landing on the far side of the Lunar Surface and send back close up images of the hitherto unexplored region of the moon.

Statement 1 is therefore incorrect as Chang’e-4 is a Chinese Lunar rover and not a Japanese one. ABOUT CHANG’E-4:

It is named after a Chinese moon goddess and comprises of a lander and a rover.

It landed on the Von Karman crater in the South Pole-Aitken basin and then sent back a picture of the landing site shot by one of the monitor cameras on the probe’s lander, marking the world’s first image taken on the moon’s far side.

The robotic spacecraft is carrying instruments to analyse the unexplored region’s geology and will conduct biological experiments.

It includes two main parts: 1. The main lander weighing about 2,400 pounds 2. 300-pound rover.

The probe was launched by a Long March-3B carrier rocket on December 8 from the Xichang Satellite Launch Centre in Sichuan Province.





Chang’e-4: Lander & Rover

Chang’e Legacy:

Chang’e-4 is the fourth lunar probe launched by China since the country’s lunar programme was opened in 2004.

The spacecraft is largely a clone of Chang’e-3, which landed on the moon in 2013.

Named after the goddess of the moon in Chinese legends, the first Chang’e spacecraft was launched in 2007 to verify China’s lunar probe technology, obtain lunar images and perform scientific surveys.

The Chang’e 2 followed in 2010 to carry out high-definition imaging of the moon and investigate landing conditions for the Chang’e 3.

Chang’e 3 landed on the moon in 2013. Chang’e 3 released the first Chinese lunar rover, Yutu, on the moon. It worked there for around 1,000 days.

Why has no one tried to send a probe to the far side of the Moon for so many years?

Direct communication with the far side of the moon, however, is not possible, which is also one of the many challenges for the Chang’e-4 lunar probe mission.

How has China tackled this issue?

China launched a relay satellite, named Queqiao, in May, to set up a communication link between the Earth and Chang’e-4 lunar probe.

What is far side of the moon?

The far side of the moon is the hemisphere that never faces Earth, due to the moon’s rotation.

It is sometimes mistakenly referred to as the “dark side of the moon,” even though it receives just as much sunlight as its Earth-facing side.

How will Chang’e-4 aid the exploration to the unexplored side of the Moon? The scientific tasks of the Chang’e-4 mission include:

1. Low-frequency radio astronomical observation 2. Surveying the terrain and landforms 3. Detecting the mineral composition and shallow lunar surface structure 4. Measuring the neutron radiation and neutral atoms to study the environment on the far side of the moon, according to CNSA

Equipment onboard Chang’e-4:





It has four scientific payloads developed by scientists from the Netherlands, Germany, Sweden and Saudi Arabia. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/chinese-probe-reveals-secrets-of-the-moon/article27153353.ece 2. The Hindu dated January 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/chinas-change-4-lunar-rover-lands-on-moons-far-side-sends-back-images/article25899235.ece

QUESTION 12

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. The term Magma Ocean Hypothesis was often seen in News, which of the following correctly describe it? (a) It is a hypothesis according to which a large amount of energy was liberated in the formation of the moon as a result of which a large portion of the moon was once completely molten forming a lunar magma ocean. (b) It is a hypothesis according to which Moon was formed as a result of the collision between the Earth with an ancient planet Thea which also caused tilting of the Earth on its axis and exposed the molten magma of the Earth’s Crust. (c) It is a hypothesis according to which nearly a third of Mars Surface was covered by an ocean of liquid water that later turned into molten magma due to an incident of solar flare. (d) None of the above CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION

Only option A is correct. Recent Context:

Recently, Chines rover on the far side of the moon has started to send important data back to Earth which supports Magma Ocean Theory. What is Magma Ocean Theory?

It is also referred to as Magma Ocean hypothesis or Giant impact hypothesis.





According to it a large amount of energy was liberated in the formation of moon due to which a huge portion of the body was once completely molten, forming a lunar magma ocean.

The Chinese rover has detected materials such as olivine and low-calcium pyroxene that are rare elsewhere on the surface and their presence supports Magma Ocean Hypothesis and Giant Impact Hypothesis.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated May 16th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/chinese-probe-reveals-secrets-of-the-moon/article27153353.ece 2. Wikipedia: Link: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Giant-impact_hypothesis

QUESTION 13

DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions Q. Consider the following statements in context of the recently held joint meeting of the three international conventions on Chemicals and Waste: 1. The meeting was held on the theme - Clean Planet, Healthy People: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste. 2. Decision to include plastic waste into PIC (Prior Informed Consent) procedure was a major outcome of the meeting. 3. It was decided to add ‘Dicofol’ and ‘PFOA’ without any exemption in the Annex A of the Stockholm Convention. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, joint meetings of three conventions on chemicals and waste that is:





1. 14th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal (COP 14)

2. 9th meeting of the COP to Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade

3. 9th meeting of the COP to Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. Theme of the meetings this year was:

“Clean Planet, Healthy People: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste”. Statement 1 is therefore correct. KEY HIGHLIGHTS OF THE MEETING: A. Basel Convention: Developments regarding Technical Guidelines on e-waste (Basel Convention):

The draft technical guidelines stipulated the conditions that used electrical and electronic equipment should be considered as non-waste if they are destined for direct reuse, repair, refurbishment or failure analysis.

India’s Stance on these draft guidelines:

The Indian delegation strongly objected the proposed decision on these guidelines during plenary and did not allow it to be passed by the conference of the parties (COP).

Apprehensions of India: In the name of re-use, repair, refurbishment and failure analysis there was a possibility of dumping from the developed world to the developing countries including India in view of the growing consumption of electronic equipment and waste across the world.

Addressing India’s Apprehensions:

On the final day of the COP, a modified decision was adopted in which all the concerns raised by India were incorporated (on an interim basis).

B. Rotterdam Convention i. Inclusion of plastic waste in the PIC (Prior Informed Convention) procedure:

A decision was also taken to amend the convention to include unsorted, mixed and contaminated plastic waste under PIC (Prior Informed Consent) procedure and improve the regulation of its transboundary movement. This makes statement 2 correct.

This is a significant step taken towards addressing plastic pollution which has become a major environmental concern across the globe.

These steps will help prevent the illegal dumping of plastic wastes in developing countries.

India has already imposed a complete prohibition of import of solid plastic waste into the country.

India has also made an international commitment to phase-out single-use plastic. Single Use Plastics: Single-use plastics, or disposable plastics, are used only once before they are thrown away or recycled. These items are things like plastic bags, straws, coffee stirrers, soda and water bottles and most food packaging

ii. In addition two new chemicals (Phorate and HBCD) were added in the list for mandatory PIC procedure in international trade.





C. Stockholm Convention:

Under the Stockholm Convention the COP decided to list “Dicofol” in Annex A without any exemption.

The “PFOA” i.e. Teflon and Perfluorooctanoic Acid was also listed with some exemptions in the Annex A of the Stockholm Convention.

Hence statement 3 is not correct because out of Dicofol and PFOA, the addition of PFOA into the Annexure A of the Stockholm Convention comes with some exceptions.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Summits, Conferences and Conventions

Decision to include Plastic Waste in the Prior Informed Convention procedure in the backdrop of COP 14 on Basel Convention is a major international development in context of solid waste management in general and Plastic Waste Management in particular.

India has made an international commitment to phase out single-use plastic. Important Sources: 1. PIB dated May 16th, 2019

Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1572102

QUESTION 14

DOMAIN: Summits, Conferences and Conventions Q. Match the following pairs in context of International Conventions on Chemical and Waste:

Select the correct Answer using the codes given below: (a) 1-B; 2-C; 3-A (b) 1-A; 2-C; 3-B (c) 1-C; 2-B; 3-A (d) 1-B; 2-A; 3-C CORRECT ANSWER: A





EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, joint meetings of three conventions on chemicals and waste that is: 4. 14th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to Basel Convention on the Control of

Transboundary Movement of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal (COP 14) 5. 9th meeting of the COP to Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for

Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade 6. 9th meeting of the COP to Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. Hence the correctly matched pair is as follows:

Therefore, option A is the correct answer. Important Sources: 1. PIB dated May 16th, 2019

Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1572102

QUESTION 15

DOMAIN: Indian institutions and bodies Q. Recently, the website of Lokpal was launched, which of the following statements in this context is/are correct? 1. The Website has been developed by NIC and provides the basic information with respect to the working and functioning of the Lokpal. 2. The Lokpal is the first institution of its kind in independent India, established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. 3. The selection committee for the appointment of the chairperson of Lokpal must consist of the Prime Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Leader of Opposition of Lok Sabha, Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.





Select the answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, the website of the Lokpal was inaugurated by the first chairperson of Lokapal in India –

Justice Shri Pinaki Chandra Ghose. Who developed the website?

The Website has been developed by NIC and provides the basic information with respect to the working and functioning of the Lokpal. The Website can be accessed at http://lokpal.gov.in. Hence statement 1 is correct.

What is Lokpal?

It is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represents the public interest in the Republic of India.

The Lokpal is the first institution of its kind in independent India, established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 to inquire and investigate into allegations of the corruption against public functionaries who fall within the scope and ambit of the above Act. Hence statement 2 is also correct.

In India Lokpal is a non-constitutional, statutory body that derives its powers from Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013).

Salient Features of Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013: 1. It seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the level of the

State and thus seeks to provide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map for the nation both at the Centre and at the States.

2. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and officials of the Central Government.

3. The Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.

4. 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.





5. The selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal shall be through a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee. However, the recent appointment of the Lokpal Chairperson has been made without taking into account the opinion Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha as no political party had this status. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect as it says that the selection committee must have the Leader of Opposition of the Lok Sabha.

6. A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection. 50% of the members of the Search Committee shall also be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.

7. The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.

8. Lokpal’s jurisdiction will cover all categories of public servants, including Group A, Group B, Group C, and Group D officers and employees of Government.

9. On complaints referred to the CVC by the Lokpal, the CVC will send its report of preliminary enquiry in respect of Group A and Group B Officers back to the Lokpal for further decision.

Important Sources: 1. PIB dated May 16th, 2019 Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1572089 2. Indian Polity by M. Lakshmikant – 5th Edition

Chapter 59

QUESTION 16

DOMAIN: Awards Q. Consider the following statements in context of Sasakawa awards that was in news recently: 1. It is awarded to an individual or institutions that have taken active efforts in the sphere of Environmental Conservation. 2. The theme of 2019 Sasakawa award was – Building Inclusive and Reselient Society. 3. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the administrator of the Sasakawa Award. 4. P.K. Mishra from India has received the 2019 Sasakawa Award on account of his long term dedication to improve the resilience of communities most exposed to disasters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION





Recent Context:

Sasakawa Award was in news because recently, Dr. P.K. Mishra (Adnl Principal Secretary to Prime Secretary) was conferred this award by United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).

The award was announced during 6th Session of Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDRR) 2019 at Geneva.

About Sasakawa Award:

It is awarded to an individual or institutions that have taken active efforts in reducing disaster risk in their communities and advocates for disaster risk reduction (and not environmental conservation). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

UNDRR – United Nations office for Disaster Risk Reduction (formerly known as UNISDR) is the administrator of the UN Sasakawa Award for Disaster Reduction. Hence statement 3 is also incorrect.

The United Nations Sasakawa Award for Disaster Reduction is one of three prestigious prizes established in 1986 by founding Chairman of the Nippon Foundation, Mr. Ryoichi Sasakawa.

It is worth approximately US $50,000 and is shared among the Laureates.

Nominees also receive Certificates of Distinction and Merit.

The Award recognizes individuals, organizations and initiatives that have best contributed to ensuring inclusive, accessible and non-discriminatory participation in disaster risk reduction activities for all sections of society, especially the poor.

The theme of the 2019 Sasakawa award was “Building Inclusive and Resilient Societies” Statement 2 is therefore correct.

About Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDR):

GPDRR is a biennial multi-stakeholder forum established by the UN General Assembly to review progress, share knowledge and discuss the latest developments and trends in reducing disaster risk.

About UNDRR:

The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) was created in December 1999 to ensure the implementation of the International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (General Assembly (GA) resolution 54/219).

UNDRR (formerly UNISDR) is part of the United Nations Secretariat and it supports the implementation & review of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction adopted by the Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction on 18 March 2015 in Sendai, Japan.





The Sendai Framework is a 15-year voluntary people-centred approach to disaster risk reduction, succeeding the 2005-2015 framework.

UNDRR coordinates international efforts in Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) and it reports on the implementation of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction.

It convenes the biennial Global Platform on Disaster Risk Reduction. Why did Dr. P.K Mishra received the award?

Dr. P. K. Mishra from India received the 2019 Sasakawa award in recognition of his long-term dedication to improve the resilience of communities most exposed to disasters and his personal commitment to social inclusion as a critical principle to reduce inequality and poverty, enhancing the safety net of the socially and economically marginalized. Statement 4 is therefore correct.

FODDER FOR MAINS:

Fodder Type: Awards

“Dr. P. K. Mishra from India received the 2019 Sasakawa award in recognition of his long-term dedication to improve the resilience of communities most exposed to disasters and his personal commitment to social inclusion as a critical principle to reduce inequality and poverty, enhancing the safety net of the socially and economically marginalized.”

(Can be quoted as example in Questions asked in context of Disaster Management) Important Sources: 1. PIB dated May16th, 2019 Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1572143 2. UNDRR Website Link: https://www.unisdr.org/we/campaign/sasakawa Link: https://www.unisdr.org/who-we-are

QUESTION 17

DOMAIN: Government Schemes and Programmes Q. Consider the following statements in context of International Day of Yoga: 1. The first International Day of Yoga was celebrated in the year 2015. 2. The theme of 2019 edition of International Day of Yoga was “Yoga for Peace”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION





Out of the given statements, only statement 1 is correct. The JUMLAA in statement 2 is that the given theme i.e. “Yoga for Peace” was the theme for 2018 edition of the International Day of Yoga. Let us learn the recent context and some important facts associated with this development. Recent Context:

A Two-day Yoga Mahotsava – a Curtain Raiser for International Day of Yoga (IDY) 2019 was inaugurated

by the Vice-Chairman, NITI AYOG Shri Rajeev Kumar at New Delhi.

The Yoga Mahotsav-2019 is being organized by Morarji Desai National Institute of Yoga (MDNIY) under Ministry of AYUSH.

On this occasion Ministry of AYUSH announced two Applications ‘Yoga Locator’ and ‘Bhuvan App’ related to International Day of Yoga 2019.

The Theme of International Day of Yoga 2019 was Yoga for Climate Change. Background of International Day of Yoga:

The idea of International Day of Yoga was first proposed by the current Prime Minister of India, Mr. Narendra Modi during his speech at the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), in September 2014.

Following this initial proposal, the UNGA held informal consultations on the draft resolution entitled "International Day of Yoga", in October 2014.

The consultations were convened by the delegation of India. And it was then decided to earmark June 21st of every year as the International Day of Yoga.

The first International Yoga Day was celebrated in 2015.

In 2015 Reserve Bank of India issued a 10 rupees commemorative coin to mark the International Day of Yoga.

Significance of June 21 for the International Day of Yoga:

When proposing 21 June as the date, Modi said that the date was the longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere, having special significance in many parts of the world.

From the perspective of yoga, the summer solstice marks the transition to Dakshinayana.

The second full moon after summer solstice is known as Guru Poornima. Shiva, the first yogi (Adi Yogi), is said to have begun imparting the knowledge of yoga to the rest of mankind on this day, and became the first guru (Adi Guru).

Dakshinayana is also considered a time when there is natural support for those pursuing spiritual practices.

About Bhuvan Yoga Mobile App:

It has been designed in collaboration with Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It will provide geo time location and documentation during IDY 2019.

The Bhuvan Yoga mobile app helps in capturing the event by collecting the location information (Longitude/Latitude) automatically with provision for the user to take two photographs and fill in parameters like number of participants, event organizer, name of the instructor and place of event.





The Bhuvan Yoga mobile app is designed with a simple Graphic User Interface (GUI) and user friendly work flow on Android platform.

When the user installs and opens the app, he/she is taken to the data collection page, where user has to fill in all the mandatory parameters.

The user is requested to ensure location is enabled on the device with high

accuracy before opening the application. There are 3 main tasks in this app 1) Filling event related information 2) Taking photograph(s) of the location (two photos) and 3) Sending the collected information to Bhuvan Yoga servers, either immediately or later.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Quote “Yoga is an invaluable gift of India's ancient tradition. It embodies unity of mind and body; thought and action; restraint and fulfilment; harmony between man and nature; a holistic approach to health and well-being. It is not about exercise but to discover the sense of oneness with yourself, the world and the nature. By changing our lifestyle and creating consciousness, it can help in well-being. Let us work towards adopting an International Yoga Day.” - Narendra Modi Important Sources: 1. PIB dated June 1st, 2019 Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573138

QUESTION 18

DOMAIN: Environment in news Q. Consider the following statements in context of Dung Beetles and identify the correct ones: 1. Dung Beetles are considered beneficial to the environment as they help in nutrient cycling of the soil. 2. They act as a keystone species for the pasture ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, a new species of dung beetle has been discovered in Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh.

The species, Enoplotrupes tawangensis, is shining dark blue in colour and, measuring up to 27 mm, is relatively bigger than most of the dung beetles.



http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573138



Important distinguishing characteristic of this species is the strong sexual dimorphism, with the fronto-clypeal horn shorter in females than males.

Important points about Dung Beetles:

Dung beetles belong to the super family scarabaeoidea, having clubbed antennae and pro-tibiae (pro-legs) modified for burrowing dung inside the soil.

This group of insects are considered beneficial to the environment as they help in nutrient cycling of the soil. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Often referred to as little recyclers, these scavenger beetles require mammalian dung to survive.

Dung beetles are the one of the fascinating group of insects because of their ability to bury dung deep in the soil and are indicators of the ecological health of an ecosystem.

Keystone Species:

A keystone species is a species that has a disproportionately large effect on its natural environment relative to its abundance.

Such species are described as playing a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community, affecting many other organisms in an ecosystem and helping to determine the types and numbers of various other species in the community.

Why are Dung Beetles considered to be a keystone species?

Dung beetles are considered keystone species because of their role in decomposition, seed dispersal, and control of vertebrate parasites in grazed habitats.

They have a significant ecological importance for the functioning of pasture ecosystem. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 1st, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/tawang-yields-a-new-species-of-dung-beetle/article27401472.ece

QUESTION 19

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. ‘Kasturirangan Committee’ was often seen in the news in context of (a) National Health Policy (b) Doubling Farmer’s Income (c) National Education Policy (d) reviewing the methodology for measuring poverty CORRECT ANSWER: C



https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/tawang-yields-a-new-species-of-dung-beetle/article27401472.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/tawang-yields-a-new-species-of-dung-beetle/article27401472.ece



EXPLANATION

The question has been framed in context of the Draft National Education Policy which has been released by MHRD to invite inputs from various domain experts and state governments. Recent Context:

Recently, Ministry of Human Resource Development released a clarification regarding the draft National

Education Policy.

The draft National Education Policy was recently submitted by Dr. Kasturirangan. Hence option C is the correct answer.

The Ministry clarified that the policy submitted by the Kasturirangan Committee is a draft Policy submitted and is placed for views of the general public.

It is not the Policy announced by Government. After getting feedback from general public, and after consulting State Governments, the National Education Policy will be finalised by Government.

We shall be covering this policy comprehensively when it will be finalised by the government. Important Sources: 1. PIB dated June 1st, 2019 Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573139

QUESTION 20

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. The term Generalized System of Preference (GSP) was often seen in news. Which of the following statements in this regard is not true? (a) It is a trade program designed to promote economic growth in the developing world by providing preferential duty-free entry to the products being imported from developing countries. (b) It is an exclusive programme of US Government. (c) It comes under the ambit of World Trade Organization. (d) All the given statements are correct. CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

The first thing to be noted is that the question is asking for the statements which are not true. Recent Context:






Recently, the United States of America (USA) has w.e.f. 5 June 2019 withdrawn India’s GSP benefits. What is GSP?

GSP stands for Generalized System of Preference.

It is a form of unilateral, non-reciprocal and non-discriminatory benefits extended by some developed countries (not just USA) to developing countries (like India). Hence option B is not true.

It is a preferential tariff system which provides tariff reduction on various products being imported into a developed country from a developing country. By doing so, it seeks to promote economic growth in the developing countries.

In USA, GSP was instituted on January 1, 1976, by the Trade Act of 1974.

Over the past few months, USA has been following the policies of Trade Protectionism which has resulted in actions like tariffs on a plethora of Chinese Goods, withdrawal of GSP benefits for India etc on the pretext that they were more beneficial to other countries than the USA.

As part of the bilateral trade discussions, India had offered resolution on significant US requests in an effort to find a mutually acceptable way forward. However, this did not find acceptance by the US.

Now UPSC can do a JUMLAA and try to confuse our dear aspirants between another similarly sounding term i.e. Most Favoured Nation Status (MFN). COMPARISON BETWEEN GSP & MFN

MFN status provides equal treatment in the case of tariff being imposed by a nation but in case of GSP differential tariff could be imposed on the products being imported from different countries irrespective of its developing status.

Both the rules come under the purview of WTO.

GSP provides tariff reduction for least developed countries but MFN is only for not discriminating among WTO members.

Important Sources: 1. PIB dated June 1st, 2019 Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573061

QUESTION 21

DOMAIN: Terms in news; Disease in news Q. Consider the following statements in context of World No Tobacco Day: 1. It was adopted by the international community through a resolution by the United Nations General Assembly. 2. The theme of 2019 edition of the World Tobacco Day is ‘Tobacco and Lung Health’.






3. It is one of eight official global public health campaigns marked by the WHO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Out of the given statements, 2 and 3 are correct. Let us learn the recent context and some important facts associated with the World No Tobacco Day. Recent Context:

Recently, on May 31, World No Tobacco Day was observed.

It is an annual event, which the World Health Organization (WHO) and its global partners celebrate.

Theme for year 2019 was ‘Tobacco and Lung Health’. Statement 2 is therefore correct. Background of World No Tobacco Day:

The member states of the World Health Organization (WHO) created World No Tobacco Day in 1987.

In 1988, Resolution WHA42.19 was passed by the World Health Assembly (and not UN General Assembly), calling for the celebration of World No Tobacco Day, every year on 31 May. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Since then, the WHO has supported World No Tobacco Day every year, linking each year to a different tobacco-related theme.

‘World No Tobacco Day’ is one of eight official global public health campaigns marked by the WHO, along with: 1. World Health Day (7th April; Theme: “Health for all – Everyone, Everywhere”) 2. World Blood Donor Day (14th June; Theme: “Safe Blood for All”) 3. World Immunization Week (Last week of April; Theme: “Protected Together – Vaccines Work”) 4. World Tuberculosis Day (24th March; Theme: “It’s Time”) 5. World Malaria Day (25th April; Theme: “Zero Malaria Starts with Me”) 6. World Hepatitis Day (28th July; Theme will be discussed when it is released; Theme for 2018 was “Find

the missing millions”) 7. World AIDS Day (1st December; Theme will be discussed when it is released; Theme for 2018 was

“Know Your Status”) This implies statement 3 is correct. More about World No Tobacco Day The annual campaign on this day is an opportunity to raise awareness on the harmful and deadly effects of tobacco use and second-hand smoke exposure, and to discourage the use of tobacco in any form.





The focus of World No Tobacco Day 2019 is on "tobacco and lung health". The campaign will increase awareness on:

1. The negative impact that tobacco has on people’s lung health, from cancer to chronic respiratory disease,

2. The fundamental role lungs play for the health and well-being of all people. The campaign also serves as a call to action, advocating for effective policies to reduce tobacco consumption and engaging stakeholders across multiple sectors in the fight for tobacco control. Goals of the World No Tobacco Day 2019 campaign: The World No Tobacco Day 2019 campaign will raise awareness on the:

Risks posed by tobacco smoking and second-hand smoke exposure;

Awareness on the particular dangers of tobacco smoking to lung health;

Magnitude of death and illness globally from lung diseases caused by tobacco, including chronic respiratory diseases and lung cancer;

Emerging evidence on the link between tobacco smoking and tuberculosis deaths;

Implications of second-hand exposure for lung health of people across age groups;

Importance of lung health to achieving overall health and well-being;

Feasible actions and measures that key audiences, including the public and governments, can take to reduce the risks to lung health posed by tobacco.

The cross-cutting theme of tobacco and lung health has implications for other global processes, such as international efforts to control noncommunicable diseases (NCDs), TB and air pollution for promoting health. It serves as an opportunity to engage stakeholders across sectors and empower countries to strengthen the implementation of the proven MPOWER tobacco control measures contained in the WHO Framework Convention for Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC). What is MPOWER?

The WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control and its guidelines provide the foundation for countries to implement and manage tobacco control.

To help make this a reality, WHO introduced the MPOWER measures which correspond to one or more articles of the Framework Convention, to assist in reducing the demand for tobacco products at country-level.

This updated brochure charts MPOWER’s journey to defeat the Global Tobacco Epidemic from 2007 to 2013.





It sets out some examples of country successes and shows how, with the support of key partners and donors, MPOWER is having successes on the ground and showing impact.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 1st, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/rallies-meets-mark-world-no-tobacco-day/article27397878.ece 2. WHO Website Link: https://www.who.int/news-room/events/detail/2019/05/31/default-calendar/world-no-tobacco-day

QUESTION 22

DOMAIN: Latest technology in news Q. A term “excitons” was sometimes seen in news. It is a (a) subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero. (b) subatomic particle with the same mass as an electron and a numerically equal but positive charge. (c) bound state of an electron and an electron hole which are attracted to each other by the electrostatic Coulomb force. (d) None of the above CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

This question has been framed in context of the recent development wherein researchers from IIT Madras are studying materials like Tungsten Diselenide (WSe2) and Molybdenum Diselenide for their opto-electronic properties – a combination of optics and electronics. Based on this there are some important terms and properties of matter that are to be revised: 1. Photoluminescence (PL):

It is light emission from any form of matter after the absorption of photons (electromagnetic radiation).

It is one of many forms of luminescence (light emission) and is initiated by photoexcitation (i.e. photons that excite electrons to a higher energy level in an atom)

2. Conduction Property of Semi-conductors:

The electrons in semiconductors occupy bands of energy known as valence bands.

Valence bands are the bands of electron orbitals that electron can jump out of when excited.

As long as they live in these bands, they do not move and contribute to conduction.

If excited by a small energy input, they get kicked into what is called the conduction band where they can actually be delocalised and contribute to the conduction by moving around.



https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/rallies-meets-mark-world-no-tobacco-day/article27397878.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/rallies-meets-mark-world-no-tobacco-day/article27397878.ece

https://www.who.int/news-room/events/detail/2019/05/31/default-calendar/world-no-tobacco-day



3. Exciton:

When an electron jumps from the valence to the conduction band, it leaves behind a shadow called a “hole.”

The electron in the conduction band and the hole in the valence band can bind together and form a composite object (or pseudo particle) known as an exciton.

It is therefore a bound state of an electron and an electron hole which are attracted to each other by the electrostatic Coulomb force. Hence option C is the correct Answer.

It is an electrically neutral quasiparticle that exists in insulators, semiconductors and some liquids.

Photoluminescence in tungsten selenide is a result of such excitons. OTHER SIMILAR TERMS: 1. Positron:

The positron or antielectron is the antiparticle or the antimatter counterpart of the electron.

It is a subatomic particle that same mass as an electron and a numerically equal but positive charge. 2. Neutrino:

A neutrino is a subatomic particle that is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass, which might even be zero.

Neutrinos are one of the most abundant particles in the universe. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 1st, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iit-madras-develops-material-with-properties-suitable-for-quantum-optoelectronics/article27399706.ece

QUESTION 23

DOMAIN: Government Schemes and Programmes Q. Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme was sometimes seen in the news. It is a government scheme being implemented under the aegis of: (a) Prime Minister’s Office (b) Ministry of Defence (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development (d) Ministry of Home Affairs CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

Out of the options given here only option B is correct. Let us understand the context of this question and revise some important facts associated with the news. Recent Context:



https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iit-madras-develops-material-with-properties-suitable-for-quantum-optoelectronics/article27399706.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iit-madras-develops-material-with-properties-suitable-for-quantum-optoelectronics/article27399706.ece



Recently, upon taking charge as the Prime Minister of India for a second term, PM Modi approved changes in the PM’s scholarship scheme under ‘National Defence Fund’. MAJOR CHANGES SANCTIONED:

PM sanctioned an increase in the money awarded under scholarships for the children of the armed forces, paramilitary forces and the railway protection forces killed in the line of duty.

The rates of scholarship have been increased from ₹2,000 per month to ₹2,500 per month for boys and from ₹2,250 per month to ₹3,000 per month for girls.

The scheme has also been extended to the wards of state police personnel killed in terrorist and Maoist violence.

The quota of new scholarships for wards of state police officials will be 500 in a year. ABOUT PM SCHOLARSHIP SCHEME:

Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Defence (Hence the correct answer is option B)

Nodal Implementing Agency: Secretariat of Kendriya Sainik Board, Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare

Primary Objective: It is a scholarship scheme that aims at encouraging higher professional and technical education for the dependent wards and widows of Ex-Servicemen/Ex-Coast Guard personnel.

Source of Finances: National Defence Fund

Mechanisms/Beneficiaries: Under PMSS new scholarships are given every year for about 5500 wards of armed forces (which is controlled by Ministry of Defence), 2000 wards of paramilitary forces (by Ministry of Home Affairs) and for 150 wards of forces (by Ministry of Railways).

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Quotes; Government Schemes and Programmes “Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme stands as a testimony the Prime Minister’s vision for India’s safety, security and the well-being of those who protect the nation.” Important Sources: 1. PIB dated June 1st, 2019 Link: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=190160



http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=190160



QUESTION 24

DOMAIN: National and International Funds Q. Consider the following statements in context of National Defence Fund (NDF): 1. All donations towards NDF are exempted from income tax. 2. It is administered by an executive committee chaired by ‘Raksha Mantri’. 3. It is used for the welfare schemes for armed forces personnel and their families but the welfare of the state police personnel is out of its ambit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Out of the given statements, statements 1 is correct, while statement 2 and 3 is incorrect. Let us understand the context of this news and learn some important facts that could have helped us to solve this questions. Recent Context:

National Defence Fund (NDF) was in news because, recently Prime Minister of India approved certain changes in the Prime Minister’s Scholarship Scheme which is funded through NDF. ABOUT NATIONAL DEFENCE FUND:

Year of Establishment: NDF was set up in 1962.

Objective and Purpose of the fund: o It was meant to take charge of voluntary donations (in cash and kind) received for promotion of

national defence effort, and also to decide on their utilisation. o National Defence Fund also accepts online voluntary contributions. o It is used for welfare of members of Armed Forces, Para Military forces and Railway Protection

Force, and their dependents.

o Recently, Prime Minister has approved that quota of new scholarships (financed from NDRF) for wards of state police officials will be 500 in a year. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

All donations towards NDF are exempt from Income Tax. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Who administers the fund?





An Executive Committee chaired by Prime Minister and with Defence Ministers, Finance Ministers and Home Ministers as Members administers the fund. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Important Sources: 1. Live Mint dated May 31st, 2019 Link: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/on-day-1-modi-approves-changes-in-prime-minister-s-scholarship-scheme-under-ndf-1559307073024.html

QUESTION 25

DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news Q. Siachen Glacier was sometimes seen in news. Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. It is located in Ladakh Range of Himalayas. 2. It lies to the North East of Point NJ9842. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Siachen was recently in news as the Defence Minister of India made a visit there. The Defence Minister interacted with troops at the world’s highest battle field and motivated them to continue serving the motherland. About Siachen:



https://www.livemint.com/news/india/on-day-1-modi-approves-changes-in-prime-minister-s-scholarship-scheme-under-ndf-1559307073024.html

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/on-day-1-modi-approves-changes-in-prime-minister-s-scholarship-scheme-under-ndf-1559307073024.html



The Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas (and not Ladakh Range) at about, just northeast of the point NJ9842 where the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends. Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

It is the longest glacier (76 km) in the Karakoram and second-longest in the world's non-polar areas.

It falls from an altitude of 5,753 m above sea level at its head at Indira Col on the China border down to 3,620 m at its terminus.

The entire Siachen Glacier, with all major passes, is currently under the administration of India since 1984.

Pakistan controls the region west of Saltoro Ridge, far away from the glacier, with Pakistani posts located 3,000 ft below more than 100 Indian posts on Saltoro Ridge.

Some other important Glaciers:

Fedchenko Glacier in Tajikistan is the longest glacier in the non-polar areas.

Lambert Glacier in Antarctica is the longest Glacier in the world. Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Quotes While interacting with the troops at Siachen, the minister said: “I am proud of all Army personnel serving in Siachen who are leaving no stone unturned to defend our motherland. I am also proud of their parents who have sent their children to serve the Nation by joining the Armed Forces…” This could be readily used in certain essays. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 1st, 2019 Link: http://www.pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573297

QUESTION 26

DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context of Sudan – an African nation that often-made headlines? (a) It is located at the tip of horn of Africa. (b) It opens out to Red Sea and Gulf of Aden. (c) After secession from South Sudan, the Republic of Sudan got hold of 80 percent of the oil fields of undivided Sudan. (d) All the given statements are incorrect CORRECT ANSWER: D

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, violence in Sudan made the Headlines.






Reason for the Violence:

The financial instability in Sudan has been identified as the root-cause of the Protests that started over the rising costs of bread and fuel in December.

It had a cascading effect on the political stability of the region and the protests have now widened with calls for the overthrow of Omar al-Bashir (President of Sudan).

IMPORTANT FOR UPSC – GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION

From the figure above it can be clearly seen that Sudan is neither located at the tip of Horn of Africa nor does it open out to Gulf of Aden.

Capital: Khartoum

Important River: River Nile

Important Lake: Lake Nubia (on Sudanese Egyptian Border) called as Lake Nasser in Egypt. It is a manmade lake (reservoir).

Important Dam: Merowe Dam (on the river Nile)

Secession from South Sudan led to the loss of 80 % of Sudan’s Oil Fields.

Neighbouring Countries: Egypt, Libya, Chad, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Ethiopia, Eritrea.

Sudan opens out to the Red Sea. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/13-killed-as-sudan-military-breaks-up-sit-in/article27429354.ece

QUESTION 27

DOMAIN: Government Schemes and Programmes Q. Consider the following statements in context of ‘UdChalo’ which was often seen in news: 1. It is a travel portal that caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts. 2. It is an initiative under Ministry of Civil Aviation Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2



https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/13-killed-as-sudan-military-breaks-up-sit-in/article27429354.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/13-killed-as-sudan-military-breaks-up-sit-in/article27429354.ece



(d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

In a bid to make wounded soldiers (who are now confined to wheelchairs, self-reliant) an initiative ‘UdChalo’ is all set to take off at the Army’s Paraplegic Rehabilitation Centre (PRC) in Punjab’s Mohali. About ‘UdChalo’:

‘UdChalo’ is a travel portal, that caters for the personal travel of the military and paramilitary forces personnel by aggregating defence fares and getting exclusive discounts. Statement 1 is therefore correct.

It is an initiative by UpCurve Business Services Private Limited, a company registered under Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), Govt of India. (Therefore statement 2 is incorrect).

In order to honour our brave men for their hard work, dedication, sacrifice and their unwavering families for the sacrifices they make for our safeguard, graduates from Army Institute of Technology, partnered with the major airlines to provide concessional air ticket exclusively to soldiers for all their travel needs and is proud to term itself as “Recognised Travel Partner for Indian Armed Forces”.

The PRC has joined hands with ‘UdChalo’ with an aim to empower the disabled military veterans.

Eight of PRC Mohali residents have started working with ‘UdChalo’ after the requisite training. They will work in shifts for two hours a day and will be paid ₹5,000 a month.

The inception of idea for such a venture lies in the background of people behind it. While most of the people working at “udChalo” are defence kids, more than 70 Veterans & Veer Naris are working with “udChalo” currently.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Government Schemes and Programmes ‘UdChalo’ can be quoted as an important example of public private partnership for social justice and social welfare in various mains answers. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/travel-portal-udchalo-to-give-a-new-lease-of-life-to-wounded-soldiers/article27429255.ece

QUESTION 28

DOMAIN: Places, Regions, People and Communities in news Q. North Korea has often made the headlines. Consider the following statements about this country and identify the correct one/s: 1. It shares its coast line with Yellow Sea and Sea of Japan in its east and west respectively.



https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/travel-portal-udchalo-to-give-a-new-lease-of-life-to-wounded-soldiers/article27429255.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/travel-portal-udchalo-to-give-a-new-lease-of-life-to-wounded-soldiers/article27429255.ece



2. It shares its border with Russia, China and South Korea only. 3. It is known as the hermit kingdom. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) All given statements are correct CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

First of all the aspirant should identify the JUMLAA in this question. It has asked for incorrect statements. Therefore, the correct option should have the incorrect statements and not the correct one. Out of the given statements only statement 1 is not true. Recent Context:

North Korea has remained in news since past many months due to the illegal Nuclear Proliferation and remains a threat to the regional stability of the East Asian Region. IMPORTANT FACTS ABOUT NORTH KOREA

North Korea is an East Asian Country located on the Korean Peninsular.

It shares its coast with Yellow Sea in the west (South West to be more precise) and Sea of Japan in the east. The statement 1 reversed this order and therefore it was incorrect.

From the diagram it can be seen that Hence statement 2 is correct.

Capital of North Korea: Pyongyang

Capital of South Korea: Seoul





North Korea is separated from the South Korea by the 38th parallel in the northern hemisphere.

Although, North Korea has had cordial nations with many countries in its past (example it was a joined Non Alignment Movement), yet the present the ruthless and rash administration of Kim Jong-un has led to the isolation of the country.

Dur to this isolation it is many a times referred to as the Hermit Kingdom as well. Therefore statement 3 is also correct.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/north-koreas-former-nuclear-envoy-kim-yong-chol-reappears/article27429374.ece

QUESTION 29

DOMAIN: Government Rules and Regulations Q. Consider the following statements in context of recent amendments in the Large Exposure Framework (LEF) of RBI: 1. The sum of all the exposure values of a bank to a single counterparty can never be higher than 20% of the bank’s available eligible capital base at all times. 2. The sum of all the exposure values of a bank to a group of connected counterparties can never be higher than 25% of the bank’s available eligible capital base at all times. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 CORRECT ANSWER: D

EXPLANATION

This is a difficult question. Out of the given statements both are incorrect because there is a catch. As per the recent amendment to the Large Exposure Framework (LEF), banks’ exposure to a group of connected parties has been reduced to 25% of its capital base (from earlier 40%), while the exposure to a single party has been capped at 20% (from earlier 15%). However, bank boards can allow an additional 5% exposure in ‘exceptional cases.’ Recent Context:

Recently, the central bank i.e. RBI has made certain amendments in its Large Exposures Framework. This move aims at reducing the capital risks of the bank and reduce their exposure to any group of connected parties.



https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/north-koreas-former-nuclear-envoy-kim-yong-chol-reappears/article27429374.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/north-koreas-former-nuclear-envoy-kim-yong-chol-reappears/article27429374.ece



What is Large Exposures Framework?

Large Exposure Framework refers to a policy framework that seeks to contain the exposure of a bank to a single counter party or a group of counter party.

A bank’s exposures to its counterparties may result in concentration of its assets to a single counterparty or a group of connected counterparties.

As a first step to address the concentration risk, the Reserve Bank, in March 1989, fixed limits on bank exposures to an individual business concern and to business concerns of a group.

RBI’s prudential exposure norms have evolved since then and a bank’s exposure to a single borrower and a borrower group was restricted to 15 percent and 40 percent of capital funds respectively.

More about the development:

However, recently, the RBI has decided to change these levels of exposures.

Banks’ exposure to a group of connected parties has been increased to 25% of its capital base, while the exposure to a single party has been capped at 20%. However, bank boards can allow an additional 5% exposure in ‘exceptional cases.’ Both the statements are therefore incorrect.

As per the new framework notified by RBI, the entities connected with the sovereign have been excluded from the definition of group of connected counterparties.

The RBI has introduced “economic interdependence criteria” in definition of connected counterparties in the new guidelines.

The sum of all the exposure values of a bank to a single counterparty must not be higher than 20% of the bank’s available eligible capital base at all times. (Except the 5 % in exceptional cases approved by Bank Boards).

The sum of all the exposure values of a bank to a group of connected counterparties must not be higher than 25% of the bank’s available eligible capital base at all times. (Except the 5 % in exceptional cases approved by Bank Boards).

Banks have to report large exposures — defined as 10% of capital — to RBI.

In some cases, a bank may have exposures to a group of counterparties with specific relationships or dependencies such that, were one of the counterparties to fail, all of the counterparties would very likely fail. A group of this sort, referred to in this framework as a group of connected counterparties, must be treated as a single counterparty.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-sets-banks-group-exposure-limit-at-25-of-capital-base/article27429456.ece 2. RBI Website Link: https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11573&Mode=0

QUESTION 30

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. In context of latest amendments in the “Large Exposure Framework” of RBI, which of the following statements best describe ‘Large Exposure’? (a) It is the sum of all exposure values of a bank to a counterparty or a group of connected counterparties.



https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-sets-banks-group-exposure-limit-at-25-of-capital-base/article27429456.ece


https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11573&Mode=0



(b) It is the sum of all exposure values of a bank to a counterparty or a group of connected counterparties which is either equal to or exceeding the 10 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base. (c) It is the sum of all exposure values of a bank to a counterparty or a group of connected counterparties exceeding the 30 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base. (d) None of the above CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, the central bank i.e. RBI has made certain amendments in its Large Exposures Framework. This move aims at reducing the capital risks of the bank and reduce their exposure to any group of connected parties. What is Large Exposures Framework?

Large Exposure Framework refers to a policy framework that seeks to contain the exposure of a bank to a single counter party or a group of counter party.

What is Large Exposure? Under the LEF, the sum of all exposure values of a bank to a counterparty or a group of connected counterparties is defined as a ‘Large Exposure(LE)’, if it is equal to or above 10 percent of the bank’s eligible capital base. Hence, option B is the correct answer. Banks will be required to report these large exposures to the Reserve Bank of India. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-sets-banks-group-exposure-limit-at-25-of-capital-base/article27429456.ece 2. RBI Website Link: https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11573&Mode=0 3. Live Mint Link: https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/rbi-norms-on-bank-exposure-come-into-effect-from-monday-1554051833887.html

QUESTION 31

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. ‘Tiananmen Protests’ that were often seen in news is related to which of the following countries? (a) Myanmar (b) Japan





https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11573&Mode=0

https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/rbi-norms-on-bank-exposure-come-into-effect-from-monday-1554051833887.html

https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/rbi-norms-on-bank-exposure-come-into-effect-from-monday-1554051833887.html



(c) North Korea (d) China CORRECT ANSWER: D

EXPLANATION

The correct answer is China. Recent Context:

Recently, the international community is commemorating the 30th Anniversary of ‘Tiananmen Protests’

that took place in China in 1989.

This incident led to brutal massacre of people at the hands of state forces in China. About the Tiananmen Square Incident:

The Tiananmen Square protests were student-led demonstrations calling for democracy, free speech and a free press in China. They were halted in a bloody crackdown, known as the Tiananmen Square Massacre, by the Chinese government on June 4 and 5, 1989.

Impact of the incident:

Critics say the Tiananmen crackdown, which left hundreds, possibly thousands, dead, set the ruling Communist Party on its present course of ruthless suppression, summary incarceration and the frequent use of violence against opponents in the name of “stability maintenance.”

Dichotomy of China: Economic & Scientific Progress at the cost of political peace and freedom

The June 4 incident changed the direction of Chinese history, the narrative that China would grow strong and normal, become a stable country through a process of political reform, was destroyed.

China’s navy now sails around the globe, its space program has launched half a dozen crewed missions and its sprawling cross-border infrastructure projects are extending its influence from Nairobi to the Netherlands.

Politically, however, the state has never been more repressive. Restrictions on freedom of speech have been extended from publishing into social media, and the slightest act of perceived defiance can prompt a near instantaneous response from the authorities.

The sprawling domestic security apparatus operates with impunity, coerced confessions are broadcast on state television and prison sentences are handed out on the flimsiest of charges, including “picking quarrels” and “incitement to subversion.”

About Tiananmen Square:

Tiananmen Square is a city square in the centre of Beijing, China, named after the Tiananmen ('Gate of Heavenly Peace') located to its north, separating it from the Forbidden City.

The square contains the Monument to the People's Heroes, the Great Hall of the People, the National Museum of China, and the Mausoleum of Mao Zedong.

Fodder for MAINS:





Fodder Type: Quotes 1. “The moment the government ordered its army to fire on its own people, it lost its legitimacy,” (The statement can be quoted in various Mains Answers. Example in context of Internal Security, Governance, etc.) 2. “Of course, those in power can easily manipulate history and twist our memory. But that kind of manipulation and suppression of history is always followed by distortions of all kinds social, political, psychological,” 3. “It is indeed impossible to understand today’s China without understanding the spring of 1989.” Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/prosperity-repression-mark-china-30-years-after-tiananmen/article27413424.ece

QUESTION 32

DOMAIN: Latest technology in news Q. Which of the following factors will have an impact on the output of the Solar Rooftop Power Station? 1. Time of the year 2. Latitude of the place where it has been installed 3. Weather conditions of the place where it has been installed 4. Slope of the roof 5. Roof Aspect 6. Vegetation around the building where it has been installed Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) All except 1 (b) All except 1 and 6 (c) All except 4, 5 and 6 (d) All the given factors will impact the output of the Solar Rooftop CORRECT ANSWER: D

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Rooftop is seen in news every now and then. It is an important means to help India achieve its ambitious target of 175GW of Renewable Energy by the year 2022. Out of which 100 GW will be from Solar power alone. Let us now learn some important facts about Rooftop Solar Power Stations. How does Rooftop Solar Work?



https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/prosperity-repression-mark-china-30-years-after-tiananmen/article27413424.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/prosperity-repression-mark-china-30-years-after-tiananmen/article27413424.ece



Rooftop solar panels rely on the ability of the solar cells to harness the energy of the sun and convert it to electricity. It is a small, square-shaped semiconductor that is made from conductive materials such as silicon. When sunlight strikes the solar cells, it induces chemical reactions that release the electrons, thus generating electric current.

HOW ROOFTOP SOLAR CAN MAKE YOU MONEY?

With solar on your roof, your power bills will be massively reduced because you will need less electricity from the grid.

The cost of electricity from the grid is expected to rise in the coming years, so your cost savings should also rise!

And with a linear power warranty of 27 years, you can expect long-term cost savings from avoiding the cost of expensive electricity from the grid.

The output of a rooftop solar power station is dependent on the insolation, i.e. the amount of Solar Radiations being received by the solar panel. Hence the following factors which have a bearing on the insolation shall also have an impact on the output of Rooftop Solar Power Station: 1. Time of the year 2. Latitude 3. Weather conditions 4. Roof slope 5. Roof aspect 6. Shading from adjacent buildings and vegetation Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Important Targets India has set an ambitious target of deploying 175GW of Renewable Energy by the year 2022. Out of which 100 GW will be from Solar power alone; 60GW (wind power); 10 GW (biomass); 5 GW (Small Hydro).





This target is in sync with SDG 7 – Ensure Access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all. Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhra-university-to-reduce-carbon-footprint-with-rooftop-solar-power/article27411680.ece 2. United Nations India Link: https://in.one.un.org/page/sustainable-development-goals/sdg-7/

QUESTION 33

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. “Fort Williams” holds a significance in the history of India and remains in news in the present as well. Consider the following statements about it: 1. It is located in the Indian State of West Bengal. 2. It was constructed during the early years of Bengal Presidency of British India. 3. It sits on the eastern bank of River Teesta. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

The Indian Army has recently, commissioned a “Continuous Ambient Air Quality Monitoring System” (CAAQMS) at its Eastern Command headquarters in Fort William Military Station, Kolkata in West Bengal. The commission of air quality monitor is part of Army’s countrywide ‘Go Green’ initiative, which was started in April 2019. Key characteristics of The CAAQMS

It will monitor air pollution of city on real time basis and its readings will be considered a benchmark of quality.

The CAAQMS installed at William Military station will measure air pollution continuously throughout the year.

It includes measuring pollutants like SO2, NO, NO2, NH3, CO, O3, VOC and particulate matters (PM 10 and PM 2.5).

It will also display relative humidity, ambient temperature, solar radiation, wind speed and direction, barometric pressure and rain gauge.



https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhra-university-to-reduce-carbon-footprint-with-rooftop-solar-power/article27411680.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/andhra-university-to-reduce-carbon-footprint-with-rooftop-solar-power/article27411680.ece

https://in.one.un.org/page/sustainable-development-goals/sdg-7/



Significance: The installation of CAAQMS is special because it will act as the ‘control station’ (i.e. it will monitor air quality at an ideal situation) and its readings will be considered a benchmark of quality.

About Fort Williams:

Fort William is a fort in Calcutta (Kolkata), built during the early years of the Bengal Presidency of British India. It sits on the eastern banks of the River Hooghly, the major distributary of the River Ganges.

One of Kolkata's most enduring Raj-era edifices, it extends over an area of 70.9 hectares.

The fort was named after King William III.

In front of the Fort is the Maidan, the largest park in the city.

An internal guard room became the Black Hole of Calcutta. Important Sources: 1. PIB dated June 3rd, 2019 Link: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1573273

QUESTION 34

DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices Q. SDG Gender Index has been developed by which of the following organizations (a) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) (b) United Nations Education Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) (c) Equal Measures 2030 (d) World Economic Forum CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Recent Context:

Recently, a new index to measure global gender equality was launched on June 3rd, 2019.

The new index ranks India at 95th among 129 countries.

It is known by the name of “SDG Gender Index”.

It has been developed by Equal Measures 2030, a joint effort of regional and global organisations including African Women’s Development and Communication Network, Asian-Pacific Resource and Research Centre for Women, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, and International Women’s Health Coalition.

India’s Performance in Comparison to its neighbourhood. Among its neighbourhood, India ranks behind China, Sri Lanka and Bhutan.



http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1573273



Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Reports, Rankings and Indices

India’s performance in the newly developed ‘SDG Gender Index’ relative to its neighbours, Important Sources: 1. Indian Express Explained dated June 4th, 2019 Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nearly-40-per-cent-of-worlds-girls-and-women-live-in-countries-failing-on-gender-equality-sdg-index-finds-5762398/

QUESTION 35

DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices Q. Consider the following statements regarding the newly developed SDG Gender Index that was often in news: 1. It has been developed by Equal Measures 2030, a joint effort of regional and global organisations. 2. It accounts for 14 out of 17 SDGs (sustainable development goals) that cover aspects such as poverty, health, education, literacy, political representation and equality at the workplace. 3. The ranking found that the world is getting really close to achieve gender equality. Which of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) All given statements are correct CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION



https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nearly-40-per-cent-of-worlds-girls-and-women-live-in-countries-failing-on-gender-equality-sdg-index-finds-5762398/




First of all the aspirant should identify the JUMLAA in this question. The question is asking for incorrect statements; therefore, the correct option would have the incorrect statements. Since only statement 2 is incorrect, therefore, option C is the correct answer. Recent Context:

Recently, a new index to measure global gender equality was launched on June 3rd, 2019. About the Index:

The SDG Gender Index has been developed by Equal Measures 2030. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

It accounts for 14 out of 17 SDGs (sustainable development goals) that cover aspects such as poverty, health, education, literacy, political representation and equality at the workplace. Hence statement 2 is correct.

What does the score tell?

A score of 100 in SDG Gender Index reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator.

It means, for example, that 100% of girls complete secondary education, or that there is around 50-50 parity for women and men in Parliament.

A score of 50 signifies that a country is about halfway to meeting a goal. MAJOR FINDING OF THE INDEX:

The ranking found that the world is far from achieving gender equality with 1.4 billion girls and women living in countries that get a “very poor” grade. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The global average score of the 129 countries — which represent 95% of the world’s girls and women — is 65.7 out of 100 (“poor” in the index).

Altogether, 2.8 billion girls and women live in countries that get either a “very poor” (59 and below) or “poor” score (60-69) on gender equality.

Just 8% of the world’s population of girls and women live in countries that received a “good” gender equality score (80-89) and no country achieved an “excellent” overall score of 90 or above.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Reports, Rankings and Indices MAJOR FINDING OF THE “SDG GENDER INDEX”:

The ranking found that the world is far from achieving gender equality with 1.4 billion girls and women living in countries that get a “very poor” grade. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The global average score of the 129 countries — which represent 95% of the world’s girls and women — is 65.7 out of 100 (“poor” in the index).

Altogether, 2.8 billion girls and women live in countries that get either a “very poor” (59 and below) or “poor” score (60-69) on gender equality.

Just 8% of the world’s population of girls and women live in countries that received a “good” gender equality score (80-89) and no country achieved an “excellent” overall score of 90 or above.





Important Sources: 1. Indian Express Explained dated June 4th, 2019 Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nearly-40-per-cent-of-worlds-girls-and-women-live-in-countries-failing-on-gender-equality-sdg-index-finds-5762398/

QUESTION 36

DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices Q. Arrange the following countries in the descending order of their performance in the recently launched SDG Gender Index (i.e. from best performer to worst performer): 1. Norway 2. Slovenia 3. Germany 4. Denmark Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 3-2-1-4 (b) 4-1-2-3 (c) 1-4-3-2 (d) 4-1-3-2 CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

First of all the student should be clear with what is being asked. In this question, we have to arrange the country in such a way that the country with the best performance and highest score should be the first and the country with the lowest score should be the last. Option B shows the correct sequence and is therefore the correct answer. Recent Context:

Recently SDG Gender Index was released by Equal Measures 2030. What is ‘Equal Measures’ 2030?

Equal Measures 2030 is an independent civil society and private sector-led partnership that connects data and evidence with advocacy and action, helping to fuel progress towards gender equality.

It is a joint effort of regional and global organisations including African Women’s Development and Communication Network, Asian-Pacific Resource and Research Centre for Women, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, and International Women’s Health Coalition.

Scoring System:

The overall index score and individual goal scores are based on a scale of 0-100.







A score of 100 reflects the achievement of gender equality in relation to the targets set for each indicator in the index (for example, that 100% of girls’ complete secondary education or that there is around 50-50 parity for women and men in Parliament).

A score of 50 signifies that a country is about halfway to meeting that goal.

The scoring system further classifies the countries as follows: 1. Excellent: 90 and above 2. Good: 80-89 3. Fair: 70-79 4. Poor: 60-69 5. Very Poor: 59 and below

Performance of the Top 8 Countries:

Based on this graph, we can safely conclude that option B is correct. Top 8 countries along with their SDG Gender Index arranged in descending order of their performance: 1. Denmark (89.3) 2. Finland (88.8) 3. Sweden (88.0) 4. Norway (87.7) 5. Netherlands (86.8) 6. Slovenia (86.5) 7. Germany (86.2) 8. Canada (85.8) Important Sources: 1. Equal Measures 2030 Website Link: https://data.em2030.org/em2030-sdg-gender-index/

QUESTION 37

DOMAIN: Reports, Rankings and Indices Q. The recently launched SDG Gender Index identified some global trends in context of gender parity. Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. Higher income countries always have greater gender equality than lower income countries. 2. The 10 lowest scoring countries in this index appeared in the OECDs (Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development) ‘List of Fragile States’ 2018. 3. This report will now be released on an annual basis.



https://data.em2030.org/em2030-sdg-gender-index/



Which of the statements given above are incorrect? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 CORRECT ANSWER: B

EXPLANATION

First thing to note – the question asked for incorrect statement and therefore the correct option would have the incorrect statements in it. Out of the given statements only statement 2 is correct and therefore 1 and 3 are incorrect and that makes option B the correct answer. Recent Context:

Recently, a new index to measure global gender equality was launched on June 3rd, 2019.

The new index ranks India at 95th among 129 countries.

It is known by the name of “SDG Gender Index”.

It has been developed by Equal Measures 2030, a joint effort of regional and global organisations including African Women’s Development and Communication Network, Asian-Pacific Resource and Research Centre for Women, Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, and International Women’s Health Coalition.

GLOBAL FINDINGS by SDG Gender Index:

Global areas of improvement: The world is furthest behind on gender equality issues related to public finance and better gender data (SDG 17), climate change (SDG 13), gender equality in industry and innovation (SDG 9) and – worryingly – the standalone ‘gender equality’ goal (SDG 5).

Global areas of relative strength: Overall, countries have performed best on issues where coordinated and concerted policy focus and funding has been directed over the past 10-20 years, including on hunger and nutrition (SDG 2), water and sanitation (SDG 6), health (SDG 3) and education (SDG 4).

Highest scoring 10 countries by overall index score: Denmark, Finland, Sweden, Norway, Netherlands, Slovenia, Germany, Canada, Ireland, and Australia.

Lowest scoring 10 countries by overall index score: Sierra Leone, Liberia, Nigeria, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Yemen, Congo, Democratic Republic of Congo, and Chad – all appear in The Organisation for Economic Co-operation’s (OECD) 2018 list of fragile states.

GDP and gender equality: Overall, higher-income countries are more likely to have greater gender equality than lower-income countries. But the data show that this is not always the case:

o Finland, Georgia, Greece, Kyrgyzstan, Malawi, Rwanda, Slovenia, and Viet Nam, among others, have higher gender equality scores than would be expected based on their GDP per capita.

o Botswana, Iraq, Malaysia, Russia, South Korea, Switzerland, Turkey, and the United States, among others, have lower gender equality scores than might be expected given their income levels.

Gender equality in lower performing countries: There are pockets of progress even among the index’s lower performing regions and countries. For example:





o The majority of the top scoring countries on indicators related to women’s participation in government and the judiciary are Latin American and Sub-Saharan African countries.

o Several lower-income countries perform well on indicators that capture women’s physical safety, through their perceptions of how safe women feel walking alone at night: Rwanda, for example, has the fifth highest score globally on this indicator.

o Women are more likely to have had their need for modern methods of family planning met in Brazil, China, Costa Rica, Nicaragua, Thailand and Uruguay, than in Canada, Denmark, Netherlands, Norway and Sweden (though they still receive “good” or “excellent” scores on the measure).

o Kenya has very high rates of women who use digital banking – higher rates than three quarters of the world’s countries.

The next iteration of the index will be launched in 2021 and updated regularly until 2030. Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Important Targets

Important SDGs: a) SDG 2: End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture b) SDG 3: Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages c) SDG 4: Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for

all d) SDG 5: Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls e) SDG 6: Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all f) SDG 9: Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization and foster

innovation g) SDG 13: Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts h) SDG 17: Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the global partnership for sustainable

development. Mentioning these SDGs in your MAINS Answers can really add value to your answer and give you an extra edge. Important Sources: 1. The Indian Express dated June 4th, 2019 Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/nearly-40-per-cent-of-worlds-girls-and-women-live-in-countries-failing-on-gender-equality-sdg-index-finds-5762398/ 2. Equal Measure 2030 Website Link: https://data.em2030.org/em2030-sdg-gender-index/ 3. UN Website Link: https://www.un.org/development/desa/disabilities/envision2030.html

QUESTION 38

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. Which of the following correctly define the term ‘Parthenogenesis’ – which was sometimes seen in news? (a) It is a natural form of asexual reproduction in which growth and development of embryos occur without fertilization.





https://data.em2030.org/em2030-sdg-gender-index/

https://www.un.org/development/desa/disabilities/envision2030.html



(b) It is a concept of rebirth or re-creation, used in various contexts in philosophy, theology, politics, and biology. (c) It is Charles Darwin's hypothetical mechanism for heredity, in which he proposed that each part of the body continually emitted its own type of small organic particles called gemmules that aggregated in the gonads, contributing heritable information to the gametes. (d) None of the above. CORRECT ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION

Out of the given options only option A is correct. Other options are trying to confuse in similarly sounding terms such as: a. Pangenesis: was Charles Darwin's hypothetical mechanism for heredity, in which he proposed that each part of the body continually emitted its own type of small organic particles called gemmules that aggregated in the gonads, contributing heritable information to the gametes. Hence, Option C cannot be the answer. b. Palingenesis: Palingenesis is a concept of rebirth or re-creation, used in various contexts in philosophy, theology, politics, and biology. Its meaning stems from Greek palin, meaning again, and genesis, meaning birth. Hence option B is also incorrect. c. Parthenogenesis: It is a natural form of asexual reproduction in which growth and development of embryos occur without fertilization. In animals, parthenogenesis means development of an embryo from an unfertilized egg cell. Hence option A is the correct answer. Let us learn the recent context and some facts associated with the term Parthenogenesis. Recent Context:

Recently, a phenomenon was observed in anacondas wherein a female anaconda snake was able to give birth to babies without a male. In scientific technology this phenomenon is referred to as Parthenogenesis. What is Parthenogenesis?

The term parthenogenesis is an amalgam of the Greek words Parthenos meaning virgin and genesis meaning origin. About 2,000 species are known to reproduce through parthenogenesis, which is one of the known means of asexual reproduction.

Parthenogenesis is defined as “a reproductive strategy that involves development of a female (rarely a male) gamete (sex cell) without fertililisation.

It occurs commonly among lower plants and invertebrate animals (particularly rotifers, aphids, ants, wasps and bees) and rarely among higher vertebrates”.

What is a Gamete?

A gamete is the egg in females and the sperm in males.

In animals, parthenogenesis means development of an embryo from an unfertilised egg cell.





Process of Parthenogenesis:

Many species that reproduce through parthenogenesis do not reproduce sexually. Others switch between the two modes taking cues from the environment.

Parthenogenetic offspring tend to be clones of the parent because there has been no exchange and rearrangement of genetic information with another individual as happens in case of a sexual reproductive process.

Stillbirth is common in parthenogenesis. In some species, offspring born by parthenogenesis from a mother can also be male but it lacks one X chromosome.

Important Sources: 1. The Indian Express dated June 4th, 2019 Link: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/parthenogenesis-how-an-anaconda-gave-birth-without-a-male-5763339/

QUESTION 39

DOMAIN: Terms in news Q. Which of the following correctly describe the term – “Bailout” which is sometimes seen in context of economic news? (a) It refers to a legal agreement that allows an economic offender to stay away from jail in lieu of a monetary penalty. (b) It refers to a mechanism that provides relief to a financial institution on the brink of failure by requiring cancellation of debts owed to creditors and depositors. (c) It is an act of business, an individual, or a government providing money and resources to a failing company that prevents the cancellation of debt owed to creditors and depositors. (d) None of the above CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Out of the given statements, option A and Option B are traps. Option D is a Jholachhaap option and Option C is the correct answer. Let us see how. Recent Context:

Recently, cash trapped Pakistan secured a bailout package of $3 Billion from oil rich Qatar. From UPSC point of view, it is more important for us to understand some important terms like:



https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/parthenogenesis-how-an-anaconda-gave-birth-without-a-male-5763339/

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/parthenogenesis-how-an-anaconda-gave-birth-without-a-male-5763339/



Bail-out and another similarly sounding term Bail-in. Bailout:

Bailout is a general term for extending financial support to a company or a country facing a potential bankruptcy threat.

It can take the form of loans, cash, bonds, or stock purchases. In such a situation, the loans/ debts owed to creditors and depositors are not cancelled, once the company revives, it is liable to pay back the money owed.

A bailout may or may not require reimbursement and is often accompanied by greater government oversee and regulations.

The reason for bailout is to support an industry that may be affecting millions of people internationally and could be on the verge of bankruptcy due to prolonged financial crises.

Bail-in:

A bail-in provides relief to a financial institution on the brink of failure by requiring the cancellation of debts owed to creditors and depositors.

A bail-in is the opposite of a bailout, which involves the rescue of a financial institution by external parties, typically governments, using taxpayers’ money for funding.

Bailouts help to keep creditors from losses while bail-ins mandate creditors take losses. Some Important Points:

A bail-in provides relief to a financial institution on the brink of failure by requiring the cancellation of debts owed to creditors and depositors.

Bail-ins and bailouts are both resolution schemes used in distressed situations.

Bailouts help to keep creditors from losses while bail-ins mandate creditors take losses.

Bail-in schemes are being more broadly considered across the globe as a first phase resolution to help mitigate the number of taxpayers’ funds used in supporting distressed entities.

Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 24th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pakistan-gets-3-billion-bailout-from-qatar/article28128270.ece 2. Economic Times Link: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/bailout 3. Investopedia Link: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/bailout.asp Link: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/bailin.asp

QUESTION 40

DOMAIN: Latest technology in news Q. Recently a device – “Qua Mist” was often seen in news. It is associated with (a) exploration of water on moon (b) exploration of water on Mars (c) making water use efficient for domestic purposes



https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pakistan-gets-3-billion-bailout-from-qatar/article28128270.ece

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/pakistan-gets-3-billion-bailout-from-qatar/article28128270.ece

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/definition/bailout

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/bailout.asp

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/bailin.asp



(d) technology to create artificial rain CORRECT ANSWER: C

EXPLANATION

Option A, B and C are made just to confuse the candidates. The name Qua Mist may sound like a space mission for an exploration of water on Moon or Mars or it may even sound as if it is a technology to create Artificial Rains. But all these options are bogus and the correct answer is option C. Recent Context:

Qua Mist, is a simple solution to address the problem of water shortage especially in Urban Areas.

It is a brass extension to the tap that turns water into a fine mist. Facts about Qua Mist:

It can help save water up to 95% apparently.

Your average water taps release as much as six to 10 litres of water per minute. With the Qua Mist you can cut that down to about 600 ml per minute.

Innovated by Earth Fokus, (start-up) that works towards finding sustainable solutions to environmental problems, Qua Mist is the first of its products.

Launched in 2017, the products however have gained a lot of traction in the last couple of months as various cities in India grapple with a drought.

Fodder for MAINS: Fodder Type: Latest technology in news Qua Mist – a device that can save water up to 95% can be quoted as an example of innovative ways to solve issues such as Water shortage in India. A simple brass extension does wonders in preventing water wastage when fitted into the taps.





Important Sources: 1. The Hindu dated June 24th, 2019 Link: https://www.thehindu.com/society/a-device-that-cuts-water-use-by-over-90/article28126559.ece








https://www.thehindu.com/society/a-device-that-cuts-water-use-by-over-90/article28126559.ece



parishram test 1

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