microbiology mcq

8/9/2019 Microbiology MCQ

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Chapter 1: Microbiology: Then and Now

1. Who was the first person to see bacterial cells with the

microscope?

a.

Pasteur b. Koch

c. Leeuwenhoek

d. Hooke

2. What process was studied by Redi and Spaltanzani?

a. Spontaneous generation

b. Fermentation

c. Variolation

d.

Antisepsis3. What is the name for the field of study established by Semmelweis

and Snow in the mid l800s?

a. immunology

b. Bacteriology

c. Virology

d. Cpidcniology

4. The process of___________involved inoculation of dried small

pox scabs under the skin.a.

vaccination

b. antisepsis

c. variolation

d. immunization

5. The process of controlled heating, called__________ was used to

keep wine from spoiling.

a. curdling

b. fermentation

c.

pasteurization

d. variolation

6. What surgical practice was established by Lister?

a. antisepsis

b. chemotherapy

c. variolation

d. sterilization

7. Which one of the following is not a part of Koch‘s postulates?


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a. The microorganism must be isolated from a dead animal and

pure cultured

b. The microorganism and disease can be identified from a

mixed culture

c. The pure cultured organism is inoculated into a healthy

susceptible animal.d. The same microorganism must be present in every case of

the disease.

8. Match the lab with the correct set of identified diseases.

a. Pasteur: tetanus and tuberculosis

b. Koch: anthrax and rabies

c. Koch: cholera and tuberculosis

d. Pasteur: diphtheria and typhoid

9.

What group of microbial agent was identified from the work ofIvanowsky a Beijerinck?

a. Viruses

b. Fungi

c. Protozoa

d. Bacteria

10. What microbiological field was established by Winogradsky and

Beijerinck?

a.

Virology b. Microbial ecology

c. Bacteriology

d. Mycology

11. What group of microorganisms has a variety of internal cell

compartments and acts as decomposers?

a. Bacteria

b. Viruses

c.

Archaead.

Fungi

12. Which one of the following organisms was NOT a model organism

related the birth of molecular genetics?

a. Streptococcus

b. Penicillium

c. Escherichia

d. neurospora

13. Which group of microbial agents is eukaryotic?

a.

Bacteria


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b. Viruses

c. Archaea

d. Algae

14. The term antibiotic was coined by _________to refer to

antimicrobial substances naturally derived from _______.

a.

Waksman; bacteria and fungi b. Domagk; other living organisms

c. Fleming; fungi and bacteria

d. Ehrlich; bacteria

15. Which one of the following is NOT considered an emerging

infectious disease?

a. Polio

b. Hantavirus pulmonary disease

c.

Lyme diseased. AIDS

16. A ________is a mixture of________ that form as a complex

community.

a. genome;genes

b. biofilm; microbes

c. biofilm; chemicals

d. miasma; microbes

17.

Microbiology includes which of the following groups ofmicroorganisms?

a. bacteria

b. fungi

c. algae

d. protozoa

e. all the above

18. Which of the following early natural philosophers coined the

term cells?a.

Lister

b. Koch

c. Hooke

d. Leeuwenhoek

19. Which of the following surgeons stopped a cholera epidemic in

London by removing the pump handle of a contaminated pump?

a. Lister

b. Snow

c.

Koch


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d. Pasteur

20. Which early physician used vaccination with the mild cowpox to

prevent the deadly smallpox?

a. Jenner

b. Snow

c.

Listerd. Semmelweis

21. One of the reasons Koch was able to show the cause of disease

was that he could grow them

a. in a pure culture

b. in an animal host

c. in a tissue culture

d. in chicken eggs

22.

Which of the following scientists came up with the first vaccinefor rabies?

a. Koch

b. Pasteur

c. Lister

d. Snow

23. Ivanowsky, Beijerinck and Reed all began studies with particles

smaller than the filters they were working with. This began the

study of _____.a. measles

b. viruses

c. prions

d. bacteria

24. Which classification would include prokaryote cells that live in

extreme conditions like hot springs and the Dead sea?

a. Bacteria

b.

Fungic.

Viruses

d. Archaea

25. Which group includes single celled protozoa and algae?

a. Bacteria

b. Archaea

c. Fungi

d. Protista


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Chapter 2: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life

1. These positively charged particles are found in the atomic nucleus.

a.

Protons only b. Electrons only

c. Protons and neutrons

d. Neutrons only

2. Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons

are called _______

a. isotopes

b.

ionsc. isomers

d. inert elements

3. If an element has two electrons in the first shell and seven in the

second shell, the element is said to be what?

a. Unstable

b. Unreactive

c.

Stabled. Inert

4. For _______ bonding, one or more electrons are transferred between

atoms.

a. hydrogen

b. ionic

c. peptide

d.

covalent

5. The covalent bonding of atoms forms a/an

a. Molecule.

b. Ion.

c. Element.

d. Isomer.

6. The bond is a weak bond that can exist between poles of adjacentmolecules.


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a. hydrogen

b. ionic

c. polar covalent

d. non polar covalent

7. In what type of chemical reaction are the products of water removed

during the formation of covalent bonds?

a. Hydrolysis

b. Ionization

c. Dehydration synthesis

d. Decomposition

8. A _____ dissolves in water.

a.

solvent b. hydrophobic molecule

c. solute

d. non polar molecule

9. The pH scale relates the measure of _______ of a chemical substance.

a. ionization

b. denaturation

c.

acidityd. buffering

10. Which one of the following statements about buffers is false?

a. They work inside cells.

b. They consist of a weak acid and weak base.

c. They prevent pH shifts.

d. They enhance chemical reactions.

11. A functional group designated — COOH is known as a/an

a. Carboxyl.

b. Carbonyl.

c. Amino.

d. Hydroxyl.

12. Which one of the following is NOT a polysaccharide?

a.

Chitin


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b. Glycogen

c. Cellulose

d. Lipid

13. How do the lipids differ from the other organic compounds?

a.

They are the largest organic compounds. b. They are nonpolar compounds.

c. They have no biological role.

d. They are not used for energy storage.

14. Both DNA and RNA are composed of _______

a. polynucleotides

b. genes

c.

polysaccharidesd. polypeptides

15. The _______ structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids.

a. primary

b. secondary

c. tertiary

d. quaternary

16. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a. Protein - amino acids

b. Nucleic acid - nucleotides

c. Fats - glycogen

d. Starch - glucose

17. A nucleic acid has a "backbone" consisting of _____.

a.

The nitrogenous bases. b. sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate-...

c. N-C-N-C-N-C-N-C-...

d. functional groups.

18. Proteins are chains of _____ that sometimes function as _____.

a. monosaccharaides; energy compounds

b. lipids; structural materials

c.

amino acids; enzymes


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d. disaccharides; enzymes

19. The sum of the mass numbers of the atoms in a molecule equals the

______, which is measured in units called _______.

a. Atomic Number; Milligrams

b.

Mass Weight; Microgramsc. Chemical Weight; Moles

d. Molecular Weight; Daltons

20. An inert element has electron shells that

a. Overlap The Shells Of Other Atoms.

b. Are Completely Filled With Electrons.

c. Yield Hydrogen Ions.

d.

Form Covalent Bonds.

21. Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly?

a. Ions - covalent bonds

b. Carbon - organic compounds

c. Glucose - enzyme

d. Thymine - amino acid

22. When sulfuric acid, a strong acid, is added to water, the pH of the

solution

a. Goes Up.

b. Remains The Same.

c. Goes Down.

d. Cannot Be Determined.

23. The double helix is a structural arrangement associated with _____.

a. A Polysaccharide.

b. The DNA Molecule.

c. Glucose Molecules In Starch.

d. A Protein.

24. In order to become a/an ______, an atom of chlorine must ______

an electron.

a.

Ion; Gain


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b. Molecule; Lose

c. Ion; Lose

d. Molecule; Gain

25. Atoms with varying mass numbers are called ________.

a.

Electrons b. Ions

c. Isotopes

d. Neutrons

26. The elements with filled electron shells are called _______

a. Inert Elements.

b. Active Elements.

c.

Radioactive Elements.d. Bonded Electrons.

27. When two or more atoms are linked together the force holding them

together is called a _____.

a. charged particle

b. chemical bond.

c. electric attraction.

d.

magnetic bond.

28. Equal sharing of electrons is called _____.

a. ionic bonds

b. covalent bonds bonds

c. double bonds

d. triple bonds

29. What is the weak bond holding the nucleic acids together in DNA?

a. ionic bonds

b. covalent bonds bonds

c. polar bond

d. hydrogen bond

30. What is the name for a chemical reaction that builds up larger

molecules?


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a. dehydration synthesis

b. hydrolysis

c. reactants

d. products

31. An ___________ solution which consists of solutes in water, is

essential for chemical reactions to occur.

a. hydrophobic

b. aqueous

c. covalent

d. vitreous

32. What prevents extremes of pH in biological systems?

a.

acid b. bases

c. buffers

d. neutrons

33. What is needed in order for reactions to occur at body temperatures?

a. buffers

b.

acidsc. bases

d. enzymes

34. What are the building blocks of proteins?

a. monosaccharaides

b. amino acids

c. fatty acids

d.

glycerol

35. Denaturation refers to the loss of the ______ structure of a ______

molecule.

a. primary; carbohydrate

b. molecular; fat

c. secondary; starch

d. tertiary; protein


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Chapter 3: Concepts and Tools for Studying Microorganisms

1. What is the term that describes the ability of organisms to

maintain a stable internal state?

a.

Metabolism b. Homeostasis

c. Biosphere

d. Ecotype

2. Which one of the following is NOT an organizational pattern

common to all organisms?

a. Genetic organization

b.

Protein synthesisc. Compartmentation

d. Microcompartments

3. Which one of the following is NOT found in bacterial cells?

a. Ribosomes

b. DNA

c. Mitochondria

d.

Cytoplasm4. Who is considered to be the father of modern taxonomy?

a. Woese

b. Whittaker

c. Haeckel

d. Linnaeus

5. _______ was first used to catalog organisms into one of three

domains.

a. Photosynthesis

b. Ribosomal RNA genes

c. Nuclear DNA genes

d. Mitochondrial DNA genes

6. Which one of the following is the correct genus name for the

bacterial organism that causes syphilis?

a. pallidum


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b. Treponemo

c. pallidum

d. T. pallidum

7. Several classes of organisms would be classified into one

a.

order. b. genus.

c. phylum.

d. family.

8. An important method used in the rapid identification of a pathogen is

a. RNA gene sequencing

b. polymerase chain reaction

c.

molecular taxonomyd. biochemical tests

9. Most bacterial cells are measured using what metric system of

length?

a. Millimeters (mm)

b. Micrometers (µm)

c. Nanometers (nm)

d.

Centimeters (cm)

10. Resolving power is the ability of a microscope to

a. Estimate cell size.

b. Magnify an image.

c. See two close objects as separate.

d. Keep objects in focus.

11. Before bacterial cells are simple stained and observed with the

light microscope, they must be

a. Smeared on a slide.

b. Heat fixed.

c. Air dried.

d. All the above (A — C) are correct.

12. If you wanted to study bacterial motility you would most likely

use


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a. A transmission electron microscope.

b. A tight microscope with dark-field optics.

c. A scanning electron microscope.

d. A light microscope with phase-contrast optics.

13. If you wanted to study the surface of a bacterial cell, you would

use

a. A transmission electron microscope.

b. A light microscope with phase-contrast optics.

c. A scanning electron microscope.

d. A light microscope with dark-field optics.

14. The ability to maintain a relatively stable internal state is called

_____.

a. Homeostasis

b. Metabolism

c. Equilibrium

d. Balancing

15. A _____ is a communal association of microbes.

a. Domain

b.

Biofilmc. Division

d. Species

16. Which one of the following is not an organizational property

common to all living organisms?

a. Genetic organization

b. Metabolic organization

c.

Compartmentationd. A cell nucleus

17. In eukaryotic microbes, energy metabolism is associated with the

_____.

a. Golgi apparatus

b. flagella

c. cytoskeleton

d.

mitochondria


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18. All of the following are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, except

a. acell (plasma) membrane

b. mitochondria

c. cytoplasm

d.

ribosome

19. The second word in a species name is referred to as the _____.

a. genus

b. order

c. specific epithet

d. biotype

20. In the three domain system, fungi would belong to the _____.

a. Eukarya

b. Bacteria

c. plants

d. Archaea

21. _____ is an example of a differential stain technique.

a. Simple staining

b.

Negative staining

c. Contrast staining

d. Gram staining

22. The _____ microscope would be used to view cell structures within

ultrathin sections of cells.

a. scanning electron

b. transmission electron

c.

bright-field

d. dark-field

23: Bacterial cells in biofilms can communicate with each other through

a. osmosis

b. quorum sensing

c. diffusion

d. enzymes


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24: How can biofilms can be useful?

a. preventing tooth decay

b. keeping surgical sites sterile

c. bioremediation

d. A-C are correct

25: Which of the following statements supports the cell theory?

a. all living things are made of cells

b. all living things have a chromosome in the nucleus

c. all living things have cellular metabolism in the mitochondria

d. A-C are correct

26: Where does protein synthesis take place in all cells?

a.

mitochondria

b. cell membranes

c. ribosomes

d. Golgi apparatus

27: Which of the following do some bacterial cells use for motility?

a. flagella

b.

cillia

c. fimbriae

d. pseudopodia

28: In the 18th century Carl Linnaeus started classifying organisms

based

a. Similarities in form

b. DNA

c.

RNA

d. Enzymes

29: How many domains do we currently have?

a. 5

b. 4

c. 3

d. 2

e.

1


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30: What is evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?

a. Ribosomes are the same size in eukaryotes and prokaryotes

b. Organelles like mitochondria and cholorplasts have their own

dna and ribosomes

c. Flagella are the same in both types of cells

d.

A-C are correct

31: Place the classification categories in order from large - small.

a. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

b. domain, kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species

c. genus, species, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain

d. phylum, kingdom, domain, family, class, order, genus, species


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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function in the Bacteria andAchaea

1. Which one of the following is NOT a genus within the gram-positive bacteria?

a. Staphylococcus

b. Methanogens

c. Mycoplasma

d. Bacillus and Clostridium

2. The domain Archaea includes all the following groups except the

a.

Mycoplasmas. b. Extreme halophiles.

c. Crenarchaeota.

d. Euryarchaeota.

3. Spherical bacterial cells in chains would be a referred to as a _______

arrangement.

a. Vibrio

b.

Streptococcusc. Staphylococcus

d. Tetrad

4. Intracellular organization in bacterial and archaeal species is centered

a. Compartmentation of metabolism.

b. Growth and reproduction.

c. Sensing and responding to environment.

d.

All the above (A — C) are correct.

5. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to Pilli?

a. Pilli are made of protein.

b. Pilli allow for attachment to surfaces.

c. Pilli facilitate nutrient transport.

d. Pilli contain adhesions.

6. Flagella are


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a. Made of carbohydrate and lipid.

b. Found on all bacterial cells.

c. Contain dextran fiber

d. Important for chemo taxis.

7. Capsules are similar to pili because both

a. Contain DNA.

b. Are made of protein.

c. Contain dextran fibers.

d. Permit attachment to surfaces.

8. Gram-negative bacteria would stain_________ with the Gram stain

and have _______in the wall.

a.

orange-red; Teichoic acid b. orange-red; lipopolysaccharide

c. purple; peptidoglycan

d. purple; Teichoic acid

9. The cell membrane of archaeal cells contains

a. A monolayer.

b. Sterols.

c.

Ester linkaged. All of the above (A — C are correct.)

10. The movement of glucose into a cell occurs by

a. Facilitated diffusion.

b. Active transport.

c. Simple diffusion.

d. Phospholipid exchange.

11. When comparing bacterial and archaeal cell membranes, only

bacterial cell membranes

a. Have three layers of phospholipids.

b. Have a phospholipid bilayer.

c. Are fluid.

d. Have ether linkages.

12. Which one of the following statements about the nucleoid is NOT

true?


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b. strong

c. hard

d. rough

19. The phylum Cyanobacteria are unique because they _____.

a.

convert nitrogen to a useable form b. are poisonous

c. photosynthesize

d. have a waxy cell wall

20. The phylum Spirochaetes _____.

a. move by a corkscrew pattern

b. cause gonorrhea

c.

can photosynthesized. A-C are correct

21. Where might extreme halophiles be found?

a. at the bottom of a lake

b. in antartica

c. in the Dead sea

d. in hot springs

22. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 basic shapes of

bacteria?

a. bacillus

b. coccus

c. spirillum

d. square

23. What is a packet of 8 cocci called?

a. diplococcus

b. tetrad

c. sarcina

d. Staphylococcus

24. What is the function of the cell envelope?

a. growth and reproduction

b.

protection from osmotic pressure


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c. sensing and responding to the environment

d. acquiring nutrients

25. How can bacteria exchange pieces of DNA?

a. mitosis

b.

buddingc. meiosis

d. conjugation

26. What is the process called, when cells will move toward attractants

and away from danger?

a. run and tumble

b. chemotaxis

c.

Brownian movementd. gliding


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Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Nutrition

1. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to bacterial

reproduction?a. A fission ring apparatus is present.

b. Septum formation occurs.

c. A spindle apparatus is used.

d. Symmetrical cell division occurs.

2. If a bacterial cell in a broth tube has a generation time of 40 minutes,

how many cells will there be after 6 hours of optimal growth?

a.

18 b. 64

c. 128

d. 512

3. A bacterial species generation time would be determined during the

phase.

a. decline

b.

lagc. log

d. stationary

4. Which one of the following is NOT an event of sporulation?

a. Symmetrical cell divisions

b. Mother cell disintegration

c. DNA replication

d.

Prespore engulfment by the mother cell

5. A microbe that is a microaerophilic mesophile would grow optimally

at and

a. high 02; 30°C

b. low 02; 20°C

c. no 02; 30°C

d. low 02; 37°C


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6. If the carbon source in a growth medium is beef extract, the medium

must be an example of a/an medium.

a. complex

b. chemically defined

c. enriched

d.

synthetic

7. A medium would involve the addition of the antibiotic methicillin to

identify methicillin-resistant bacteria.

a. differential

b. selective

c. thioglycollate

d. VBNC

8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the streak-plate method?

a. Making four sets of streaks on a plate.

b. Diluting a mixed culture in molten agar.

c. Using a mixed culture.

d. Using a sterilized loop.

9. Direct methods to measure bacterial growth would include all the

following except the

a. total bacterial count

b. microscopic count

c. turbidity measurements

d. most probable number

10. Reproduction in bacterial cells occurs by the sequence of events

known as _____.

a.

mitosis

b. binary fission

c. selfing

d. budding

11. Psychrophilic bacteria species grow well at 10 degrees C, while

mesophilic bacteria species grow well at _____ degrees C.

a. 37

b.

50


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c. 75

d. 98

12. During the stationary phase of bacterial growth, the population of

living cells is _____ the population of dying cells.

a.

greater than b. smaller than

c. equal to

d. increasing faster than

13. Organisms that practice heterotrophy are able to synthesize their

own food from _____.

a. light

b.

simple carbon sourcesc. carbon monoxide

d. oxygen gas

14. When nutrients are limiting, some bacterial species can form

resistant structures called _____.

a. endospores

b. cysts

c.

seedsd. capsules

15: Facultative anaerobes can live with or without _____ gas.

a. carbon dioxide

b. hydrogen

c. nitrogen

d. oxygen

16. Barophiles are prokaryotes that withstand high _____.

a. Oxygen concentrations.

b. Nitrogen gas concentrations.

c. Hydrostatic pressures.

d. Salt concentrations.

17. In terms of temperature tolerance, human pathogens tend to be

a.

Psychrophilic


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b. Thermophiles

c. Mesophylls

d. Hyper thermophiles

18. Prokaryotes that can withstand very high salt concentrations are

called ___

a. Capnophiles

b. Barophiles

c. Halophiles

d. Microaerophiles

19: The inward pinching to the cell envelope in reproduction is called

a. Binary fission

b.

Cytokinesisc. Mitosis

d. Asexual reproduction

20. The interval of time between successive reproductions is called

a. Doubling time

b. Generation time

c. Incubation time

d.

Fission time

21. What is the period where there is the least amount of growth in the

growth curve?

a. Lag phase

b. Log phase

c. Stationary phase

d. Decline phase

22. Which of the following diseases result from germination of

endospores?

a. Pneumonia

b. Strep throat

c. Meningitis

d. Anthrax

23. Which of the following conditions are important for the growth of

microbes?


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a. Temperature

b. Gas

c. pH

d. Oxygen

e. All the above

24. An example of an anaerobe that causes disease in humans is _____.

Clostridium

a. E.coli

b. Salmonella

c. Pseudomonas

25. Which kind of organisms will grow best in a candle jar?

a.

Aerobes b. Microaerophiles

c. Anaerobes

d. A-C are correct

26. Which kind of organisms will grow everywhere in a thioglycollate

broth?

a. Aerobes

b.

Microaerophilesc. Anaerobes

d. Facultative anaerobes

27. What is a medium that contains ingredients that inhibit the growth

of some organisms while allowing the growth of others?

a. Differential

b. General purpose

c.

Enrichedd. Selective

e. All the above

28. one way to get a pure culture is by using _____.

a. Aseptic technique

b. Pour-plate method

c. Streak-plate method

d.

A and Ce. B and C


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Chapter 6: Metabolism of Microorganisms

1. Enzymes are

a. Inorganic compounds.

b.

Destroyed in a reaction. b. Proteins.

a. Vitamins.

2. Enzymes combine with a ___________at the___________ site to

lower the activation energy.

a. Substrate; Active

b. Product; Noncompetitive

c.

Product; Actived. Coenzyme; Active

3. Which one the following is NOT a metabolic pathway?

a. Citric Acid Cycle

b. The Carbon-Fixing Reactions

c. Glycolysis

d. Sucrose Glucose + Fructose

4. If an enzyme‘s active site becomes deformed, inhibition was likelyresponsible.

a. Metabolic

b. Competitive

c. Noncompetitive

d. Cellular

5. Which one of the following is NOT part of an ATP MOLECULE?

a. Phosphate group

b. Cofactor

c. Ribose

d. Adenine

6. The use of oxygen gas (02) in an exergonic pathway generating ATP

is called

a.

Anaerobic Respiration. b. Photosynthesis.


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c. Aerobic Respiration.

d. Fermentation.

7. Which one of the following is NOT produced during glycolysis?

a. ATP

b.

NADHc. Pyruvate

d. Glucose

8. All the following are produced during the citric acid cycle except:

a. CO2.

b. 02.

c. ATP.

d.

NADH.

9. The electron transport chain is directly involved with

a. ATP Synthesis

b. CO2 Production.

c. H+

Pumping

d. Generating Oxygen Gas.

10. Which one of the following macromolecules would NOT normally

be used for microbial energy metabolism.

a. DNA

b. Proteins

c. Carbohydrates

d. Fats

11. Anaerobic respiration does NOT

a.

Use An Electron Transport System. b. Use Oxygen Gas (02)

c. Occur In Bacterial Cells.

d. Generate ATP Molecule

12. In fermentation, the conversion of pyruvate into a final end product

is critical for the production of

a. CO2.

b.

glucose


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c. NAD.

d. 02.

13. Which one of the following is correct sequence for the flow of

electrons in the energy-fixing reactions of photosynthesis?

a.

Water — photosystem 1 — photosystem II — NADPH b. Photosystem I — NADPH — water — photosystem II

c. Water------ photosystem II------ photosystem I — NADPH

d. NADPH — photosystem Il — photosystem I — water

14. Microorganisms that use organic compounds as energy and carbon

sources are

a. Chemoheterotrophs.

b.

Chemoautotrophs.c. Photoautotrophs.

d. Photoheterotrophs.

15. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a. Alcohol-fermentation

b. Pyruvate-glycolysis

c. Carbon dioxide-glycolysis

d.

NADH-citric acid cycle

16. The photosynthetic pigments used by the green sulfur bacteria and

some archaeal species are

a. Chlorophyll

b. Bacteriochlorophyll

c. Cytochrome

d. Sulfate

17. A key energy compound in bacterial photosynthesis by

cyanobacteria is ______ and a major end-product is ______.

a. GTP; protein

b. citrate; lactose

c. glucose; chlorophyll

d. ATP; glucose

18. Which one of the following statements is false about enzymes?


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a. All enzyme names end in -ase.

b. Some enzymes are made entirely of protein.

c. Enzymes lower the amount of activation energy needed for a

reaction to take place.

d. Enzymes are reusable.

19. A molecule of ATP contains

a. Ribose But No Adenine.

b. Phosphate But No Ribose.

c. Adenine But No Deoxyribose.

d. Deoxyribose But No Thymine.

20. In fermentation reactions occurring in yeast, two products of

metabolism are ______ and ______.

a. Acid; Hydrogen Gas

b. Hydrogen Gas; Sucrose

c. Ethyl Alcohol; Methane

d. Carbon Dioxide; Ethyl Alcohol

21. Glucose is to photosynthesis as pyruvate is to _____.

a. Oxidative Phosphorylation

b.

Glycolysisc. Fermentation

d. Citric Acid Cycle

22. Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain the energy they need from

a. The Reactions Of Photosynthesis.

b. Sunlight.

c. Carbon Dioxide In The Atmosphere.

d.

Inorganic Chemicals.

23: All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration

except:

a. Carbonate.

b. Oxygen gas.

c. Nitrate.

d. Sulfate.

24: Anabolism involves the


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a. Synthesis of larger organic compounds.

b. Release of energy.

c. Hydrolysis of organic compounds.

d. Synthesis of organic compounds without enzymes.

25 What is the breakdown of molecules into smaller particles called?

a. Anabolism

b. Catabolism

c. Fantabolism

d. Metabolism

26 A reaction that requires energy to take place is called ______.

a.

Endergonic b. Exergonic

c. Andergonic

d. Catagonic

27 What part of the enzyme forms the enzyme substrate complex?

a. Allosteric Site

b. Active Site

c.

Productive Sited. Alternate Site

28 How do enzymes work?

a. They Lower The Activation Energy

b. They Raise The Activation Energy

c. They Cancel Energy Requirements

d. They Generate ATP

29: Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme?

a. Mg

b. Fe

c. NAD

d. Ag


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Chapter 7: Control of Microorganisms: Physical andChemical Methods

1. All the following terms apply to microbial killing except:a. Sterilization.

b. Microbicidal.

c. Bactericidal.

d. Fungistatic.

02. The thermal death time is

a. The Time To Kill A Microbial Population At A Given

Temperature. b. The Time To Kill A Microbial Population In Boiling Water.

c. The Temperature To Kill All Pathogens.

d. The Minimal Temperature Need To Kill A Microbial Population.

3. At 160°C, it takes about minutes to kilt bacterial spores in a hot-air

oven.

a. 30

b.

60c. 90

d. 120

4. An autoclave normally sterilizes material by heating the material

to_____°C for minute‘s at__________ psi.

a. 100; 10 30

b. 121.5; 15; 15

c.

100; 15; 0d. 110; 30; 5

5. Air filtration typically uses a filter.

a. HEPA

b. Membrane

c. Sand

d. Diatomaceous Earth


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6. For bactericidal activity,__________ has/have the ability to cause

thymine dimer formation.

a. X rays

b. B ultraviolet light

a. Gamma Rays

b.

Microwaves

7. The elimination of pathogens in foods by irradiation is called

a. The D Value.

b. The Pasteurizing Dose.

c. Incineration.

d. Sterilization.

8. Preservation methods such as salting result in the microbial cells.

a. Loss Of Salt From

b. Gain Of Water Into

c. Loss Of Water From

d. Lysis Of

9. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to

antiseptics?

a.

They Are Used On Living Objects.

b. They Usually Are Microbicidal.

c. They Should Be Useful As Dilute Solutions.

d. They Can Sanitize Objects.

10. All the following are chemical parameters considered when

selecting an antiseptic or disinfectant except:

a. Dehydration.

b.

Temperature.

c. Stability.

d. Ph.

11. If a chemical has a phenol coefficient (PC) of 63, it means the

chemical

a. ‗Is Better Than One With A PC Of 22.,

b. Will Kill 63P/O Of Bacteria.

c.

Kills Microbes At 63°C.


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d. Will Kill All Bacteria In 63 Minutes.

12. Which one of the following is NOT a halogen?

a. Iodine

b. Mercury

c.

Clorox Bleachd. Chlorine

13. Phenolics include chemical agents

a. Such As The Iodophores.

b. Derived From Carbolic Acid.

c. Used As Tiñctures.

d. Such As Formaldehyde. ,

14 Heavy metals, such as____work by _____ ‗‗

a. Mercury; Disrupting Membranes

b. Copper; Producing Toxins

c. Iodine; Denaturing Proteins

d. Silver; Binding Protein Molecules Together

15. Alcohols are

a.

Surfacants. b. Heavy Metals.

c. Denaturing Agents.

d. Detergents.

16. All the following statements apply to quats except:

a. They React With Cell Membranes.

b. They Are Positively Charged Molecules.

c.

They Are Types Of Soaps.d. They Can Be Used As Disinfectants.

17. Hdrogen peroxide

a. Is An Effective Sterilant.

b. Cross-Links Proteins And Nucleic Acids.

c. Can Emulsify And Solubilize Pathogens.

d. Is Not Recommended For Use On Open Wounds.

18. Ethylene oxide can be used to


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a. Kill Bacterial Spores.

b. Clean Wounds.

c. Sanitize Work Surfaces.

d. Treat Water Supplies.

19 Which of the following terms best fits the destruction of all living

micobes, spores and viruses.

a. Sanitization

b. Sterilization

c. Aseptic Technique

d. Pasteurization

20. Which of the following descriptions would tell you all microbes are

killed?

a.

Bacteriostatic

b. Fungistatic

c. Microbicidal

d. Microbistatic

21. What is the thermal death time?

a. The Time Necessary To Kill Bacteria At A Specific Temperature

b. The Temperature Necessary To Kill Microbes In A Specific Time

c.

The Average Amount Of Time To Kill Microbial Cellsd. It Is The Same As The Thermal Death Point

22. Which of the following describes incineration?

a. Flaming The Loop Before Transferring Bacteria

b. Burning Medical Waste

c. Burning Cattle That Died Of Anthrax

d. A-C Are Correct

23 Why is moist heat more versatile than dry heat?

a. It More Easily Penetrates Materials.

b. Water Molecules Conduct Heat Better Than Air

c. It Denatures Proteins By Changing Their Structure And Chemical

Bonds

d. A-C Are Correct

24 What is the setting for most autoclaves?


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a. 121oC at 15 psi for 15-30 minutes

b. 100oC at 10 psi for 10-20 minutes

c. 110oC at 21 psi for 20-30 min

d. 150oC at 20 psi for 10-15 minutes

25 What is the advantage of flash pasteurization?a. It Doesn't Get As Hot

b. It Is Faster

c. It Is Also Used For Solids, Not Just Liquids

d. It Also Sterilizes The Liquid

26 When is a HEPA filter used?

a. To Filter Bacteria Out Of A Vaccine

b.

To Trap Particles In The Airc. To Protect Burn Victims

d. To Separate Bacteria And Viruses

27: What needs to come into consideration when using UV light to

sterilize?

a. It Needs Direct Exposure

b. It Can Cause Skin Cancer

c.

It May Not Be Effective Against All Kinds Of Endosporesd. A-C Are Correct

28: The process of destroying pathogens on an object is _____.

a. Disinfection

b. Sanitization

c. Sepsis

d. Antiseptic

29: When is ionizing radiation used to sterilize?

a. To Sterilize Vitamins

b. For Preserving Foods

c. To Sterilize Hormones

d. To Sterilize Antibiotics

e. All The Above

30 Which of the following chemicals are halogens used fordisinfection?


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a. Phenol

b. Alcohol

c. Detergent

d. Chlorine

31: Which of the following is a common bisphenol in widespread use inantibacterial soaps?

a. Chlorhexidine

b. Betadine

c. Triclosan

d. Alcohol

32: What common product acts as a surfactant, poking holes in cell

membranes?a. Alcohol Sanitizer

b. Soap

c. Phenol

d. Betadine

33: Which of the following gases were used to decontaminate mail after

the anthrax scare?

a.

Ethylene Oxide b. Chlorine Dioxide

c. Carbon Dioxide

d. Ozone


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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics

1. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of the bacterial

chromosome?a. It Is Located In The Nucleoid.

b. It Usually Isa Single, Circular Molecule.

c. Some Genes Are Dominant To Others.

d. It Usually Is Haploid.

2. DNA compaction involves

a. A Twisting And Packing Of The DNA.

b.

Supercoiling.c. The Formation Of Looped Domains.

d. All The Above (A — C) Are Correct.

3. Plasmids are

a. Another Name for Transposons.

b. Accessory Genetic Information.

c. Domains within A Chromosome.

d.

Daughter Chromosomes.

4. The enzyme adds complementary bases to the DNA template strand

during replication.

a. Ligase

b. Helicase

c. DNA polymerase III

d. RNA polymerase

5. At a chromosome replication fork, the lagging strand consists of__

That is joined by___.

a. RNA sequences; DNA ligase

b. Okazaki Fragments; RNA Polymerase

c. RNA sequences; ribosomes

d. Okazaki fragments; DNA ligase


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6. In a eukaryotic microbe, those sections of a primary RNA transcript

that

will NOT be translated are called

a. Introns.

b.

Anticodons.c. ―Jumping Genes.‖

d. Exons.

7. Which one of the following codons would terminate translation?

a. AUG

b. UUU

c. UAA

d.

UGG

8. The translation of a mRNA by multiple ribosomes is called

formation.

a. Okazaki

b. Polysome

c. Plasmid

d. Transposon

9. If an antibiotic binds to a 50S subunit, what cellular process will be

inhibited?

a. DNA replication

b. Intron excision

c. Translation

d. Transcription

10. Which one of the following is NOT part of an operon?

a. Regulatory gene

b. Operator

c. Promoter

d. Structural genes

11. Being compartmentalized, bacterial RNA polymerases are localized

in the and ribosomes are found


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a. Nucleoid; At The Nucleoid Periphery

b. Cytosol; In The Cytosol

c. Cytosol; At The Cell Poles

d. Nucleoid; In The Nucleoid

12. Spontaneous mutations could arise from

a. DNA replication errors.

b. Atmospheric Radiation.

c. Addition Of Insertion Sequences.


13. Which one of the following could NOT cause a change in the

mRNA

―reading frame‖?

a. Insertion Sequence

b. Base-Pair Substitution

c. Base Addition

d. Base Deletion

14. Excision repair would correct DNA damage caused by

a. Antibiotics.

b.

UV Light.

c. A Chemical Mutagen.

d. A Dna Replication Error.

15. Transposable genetic elements (transposons)

a. Were First Discovered By Watson And Crick.

b. Are Smaller Than Insertion Sequences.

c. Are Examples Of Plasmids.

d.

May Have Information For Antibiotic Resistance.

16. Nutritional mutants are referred to as

a. Prototrophs.

b. Wild Type.

c. Revertants.

d. Auxotrophs.

17. The Ames test is used to


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a. Identify Potential Human Carcinogens.

b. Discover Auxotrophic Mutants.

c. Find Pathogenic Bacterial Species.

d. Identify Antibiotic Resistant Mutants.

18: Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative?

a. none of the materials are wasted

b. it is a very efficient process

c. half of the new DNA molecule is half of the original molecule

d. none of the above are correct

19 What is the process called of making a mRNA copy of DNA?

a. translation.

b.

transcription.c. transposon

d. transformation

20: What happens at the ribosome in the production of a protein?

a. mRNA brings the codon

b. tRNA brings the anticodon

c. the amino acids are linked by polypeptide bonds

d.

translatione. all the above

21: What is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells in

making protein?

a. Eukayotes have introns that stay inside the nucleus

b. Prokaryotes can transcribe and translate at the same time

c. the process is faster in prokaryotes

d.

A-C are correct

22: Multiple ribosomes working together on one mRNA are called

a. polysomes

b. multisomes

c. polymerases

d. A-C are correct

23: In bacteria a group of genes located together and functioning

together on a chromosome are called _____.


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a. polysome

b. operon

c. polymerase

d. exons

24: An example of an inducible group of genes is the ______.

a. ARG operon

b. NAC operon

c. LAC operon

d. SAC operon

25 A heritable change in DNA is called a ______.

a. mistake

b.

mutationc. gene

d. pathogen

26: Which of the following are examples of mutagens?

a. detergent

b. UV light

c. fertilizer

d.

none of the above are correct

27: Which of the following are examples of repair mechanisms in cells?

a. mismatch repair

b. excision repair

c. DNA polymerase

d. DNA ligase

e.

all are important in fixing mutations

28. A ______ can move a part of DNA to another place on the

chromosome.

a. translation.

b. transferon

c. transposon

d. transition

e.

transcription


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29: The Ames test is an effective procedure for

a. Identifying disease-causing bacterial species.

b. Detecting potential human carcinogens.

c. Determining if DNA replication has occurred.

d. Detecting antibiotic resistance.

30: The bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans has been of interest to

molecular biologists because

a. it has the smallest known bacterial genome.

b. it is a "living fossil" linking the Bacteria and Archaea.

c. it has the largest known bacterial genome.

d. it is very resistant to radiation damage.

31: Ribosomes match up the ______ of the mRNA and the ______ ofthe tRNAs.

a. codons; anticodons

b. introns; exons

c. anticodons; codons

d. genes; anticodons

32: Transposons are of particular significance because they

a.

often contain genes for antibiotic resistance.

b. inhibit the effects of overlapping genes.

c. come in pairs and often are associated with viruses.

d. regulate gene transcription in bacterial cells.

33: Which one of the following statements is not true of RNA?

a. RNA contains the monosaccharide ribose.

b. RNA is primarily a single-stranded molecule.

c.

RNA has a sugar-phosphate backbone.

d. RNA contains five different nucleotides.

34: A prokaryotic mRNA that consists of 999 nucleotides will code for

how many amino acids?

a. 332

b. 333

c. 666

d.

999


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35: Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Plasmids are circular molecules of RNA.

b. RNA replicates by a conservative method of replication.

c. Deletions or insertions of a nucleotide in a gene will cause a

reading frameshift during translation.

d.

Okazaki fragments are removed from a RNA before translation

occurs.

36: Which one of the following is common between prokaryotic and

eukaryotic chromosomes?

a. Presence or absence of introns.

b. Loop or linear chromosomes.

c. Genetic recombination occurrence in RNA.

d.

Mutations occur in the DNA.

37: In the semiconservative method of replication

a. Both parent strands are degraded.

b. One parent strand is conserved in each of the the new dna.

c. Both parent strands reform with one another.

d. Okazaki fragments form both of the new molecules of DNA.


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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Genetic Engineering, andGenomics

1. Which one of the following is NOT an example of geneticrecombination?

a. Conjugation

b. Binary fission

c. Transduction

d. Transformation

2. Transformation refers to

a.

Using A Virus To Transfer DNA Fragments. b. DNA Fragments Transferred Between Live Donor And Recipient

Cells.

c. The Formation of an F- Recombinant Cell.

d. The Transfer of Naked Fragments of DNA.

3. An F-cell is unable to initiate conjugation because it lacks

a. Double-Stranded DNA.

b.

A Prophase.c. An F Factor.

d. DNA polymerase.

4. An Hfr cell

a. Has A Free F Factor In The Cytoplasm.

b. Has A Chromosomally Integrated F Factor.

c. Contains A Prophage For Conjugation.

d.

Cannot Conjugate With A F- Recombinant.

5. A is NOT associated with specialized transduction.

a. Virulent Phage

b. Lysogenic Cycle

c. Prophage

d. Recipient Cell

6. Which complementary sequence would NOT be recognized by arestriction endonucLease?


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a. GAATTC CTTAAG

b. AAGCTT TTCGAA

c. GTCGAC CAGCTG

d. AATTCCTTAAGG

7. A seals sticky ends of recombinant DNA segments.

a. DNA Ligase

b. restriction endonuclease

c. protease

d. RNA polymerase

8. are single-stranded DNA molecules that can recognize and bind

to a distinctive nucLeotide sequence of a pathogen.

a.

Prophages

b. Plasmids

c. Cloning vectors

d. DNA probes

9. The first completely sequenced genome from a free-living organism

was from

a. Humans.

b.

E. coil.

c. Haemophiius.

d. Bordeteila.

10. What percentage of the human genome is identical to the yeast

genome?

a. 5%

b. 10%

c.

25%

d. 50%

11. A metagenome refers to

a. A Large Genome In An Organism.

b. The Collective Genomes Of Many Organisms.

c. The Genome Of A Metazoan.

d. Two Identical Genomes In Different Species.


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12. Genomic islands are

a. Gene Sequences Not Part Of The Chromosomal Genes.

b. Adjacent Gene Sequences Unique To One Or A Few Strains In A

Species.

c. Acquired By HGT.

d.

Both B And C Are Correct.

13. Craig Venter‘s sampling of ocean microorganisms is an example of

a. Microarrays.

b. Horizontal Gene Transfer.

c. Microbial Forensics.

d. Metagenomics.

14: By some estimates, about ______ of our 25,000 genes are identicalto those in some members of the Bacteria.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 200

d. 1000

15 During Griffith's transformation experiments _____.

a.

Live S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Dead R Strain Bacteria

Caused Animal Death.

b. Live S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Dead R Strain Bacteria

Failed To Kill The Animals.

c. Dead S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Live R Strain Bacteria

Caused Animal Death.

d. Dead S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Live R Strain Bacteria

Failed To Kill The Animals.

16 The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that _____.

a. Two Types Of Viruses Be Present.

b. The Conjugating Bacteria Be Deprived Of Nutrients.

c. Two Bacteria Exchange Dna.

d. Two Live Bacteria Come Together.

17. During the process of lysogeny _____.

a.

Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.


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b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment.

c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids.

d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium.

18. Without restriction endonucleases, it would be very difficult to

a.

Force Plasmids into Bacteria. b. Chemically Open Dna Molecules.

c. Replicate Dna In A Recombinant Cell.

d. Bring About Mutations In Bacteria.

19. A transgenic organism is one that _____.

a. Has Donated A DNA Fragment To Another Organism.

b. Contains A Gene From Another Organism.

c.

Contains Useless "Genetic Debris."d. Has Exchanged Gene Loci Within The Organism.

20. A bacterial cell that is transformed _____.

a. Cannot Form A Conjugation Pilus.

b. Has Undergone A Frameshift Mutation.

c. Has Acquired Dna From The Environment.

d. Will Probably Die Within 24 Hours.

21. Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to

a. Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment.

b. Be Infected By A Transducing Phage.

c. Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene.

d. Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.

22. Specialized transduction is carried out by

a.

Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection. b. Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome.

c. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna.

d. Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.

23 A plasmid carries _____.

a. Nonessential Genes

b. Resistance Factors

c.

Genes For Toxins


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d. all the above

24: What is the term for manipulating the genes of organisms to

introduce new characteristics?

a. Genomics

b.

Genetic engineeringc. Recombinant RNA

d. Genetic resistance

25: The transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cells is called

a. horizontal gene transfer

b. vertical gene transfer

c. lateral gene transfer

d.

medial gene transfer

26: Which of the following is NOT a type of horizontal gene transfer

between bacterial cells?

a. transformation

b. conjugation

c. transduction

d. translation

27 Transformed bacterial cells may display enhanced drug resistances

from the acquisition of _____.

a. F factors

b. M factors

c. R factors

d. S factors

28: Conjugation pili are found only on some ______ bacteria, though it

may occur between cells of various bacteria.

a. Gram-positive

b. Gram-negative

c. Acid-fast

d. Capsule containing

29: One of the practical applications of genetic engineering is the

bacterial production of ____.


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Chapter 10: Airborne Bacterial Diseases

1. Which one of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory

system?

a. Alveoli

b. Pharynx

c. Larynx

d. Trachea

2. Which one of the folowing is a complication of streptococcal

pharyngitis?

a.

Rheumatic Fever

b. Pseudomembrane Blockage

c. Strawberry Tongue

d. Chest, Back, And Leg Pain

3. Methylene blue staining of metachromatic granules is diagnostic for

which of the following bacteria?

a.

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis b. Coiynebacterium Diphtheriae

c. Chlamydia Pneumoniae

d. Bordetella Pertussis

4. Severe throat pain, fever, muffled voice, and stridor are symptoms of

a. Sinusitis.

b. Epiglottitis.

c.

Bronchitis.d. Diphtheria.

5. Which one of the following illnesses is characterized byyeLow or

green pus discharged from the nose?

a. Pertussis

b. Diphtheria

c. Bronchitis

d.

Acute Sinusitis


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6. Swimmer‘s ear is a common name for a infection of the_________

ear.

a. Bacterial; Outer

b. Viral; Outer

c. Bacterial; Middle

d.

Viral; Inner

7. Acute meningitis

a. Is An LRT Infection.

b. Is A Disease Affecting The Membranes Of The Heart.

c. Can Be Caused Be Corynebacterium Diphtheriae.

d. Often Starts As A Nasopharynx Infection.

8. A catarrhal and paroxysma stage is typical of which one of thefollowing bacterial diseases?

a. Tuberculosis

b. Pneumonia

c. Pertussis

d. Q Fever

9. Acid-fast staining is typicaly used to stain which bacterial genus?

a.

Haemophilus

b. Streptococcus

c. Klebsiella

d. Mycobacterium

10. A person whose inner walls lining the main airways of the lungs

become

inflamed and who develops a dry cough for a few days, probably has

a. Acute Bronchitis.

b. Epiglottitis.

c. Pneumonia.

d. Chronic Bronchitis.

11. Which one of the following is a gram-positive bacterial species

commonly causing hospital-acquired pneumonia?

a.

Haemophilus Influenzae


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b. Kiebsiella Pneumoniae

c. taphylococcus aureus

d. Chiamydophila pneumoniae

12. Humans can acquire which one of the following diseases from the

droppings of infected birds?

a. Q fever

b. Legionellosis

c. Tuberculosis

d. Psittacosis

13: Which of the following normal microbiota cause disease in

immunocompromised patients?

a.

Neisseria b. Streptococcus

c. Corynebacterium

d. Proprionibacterium

14: Streptococcus pyogenes is highly contagious by _____.

a. Unwashed hands

b. Oral/fecal route

c.

Respiratory dropletsd. Remaining on surfaces for long periods of time

15: Some strains of Streptococcus carry toxins that cause a pink red

rash. This is called _____.

a. Rhumatic Fever

b. Q Fever

c.

Scarlet Fever

d. Pharyngitis

16: Cases of Rheumatic heart disease have decreased in recent years

because of _________.

a. Use of Antibiotics for Strep. Throat

b. A New Vaccine for Strep. Throat.

c. The Vaccine for Pertussis.

d.

Better Hygiene.


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a. cattle carcasses.

b. fresh fruits and vegetables.

c. healthy animals.


7. Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food

poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)?

a. Escherichia coli

b. Bacillus cereus

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Clostridium perfringens

8. One of the most excessive diarrheas of the GI tract is associated with

which of the following poisonings or diseases?

a. Staphylococcal food poisoning

b. Typhoid fever

c. Cholera

d. Campylobacteriosis

9. Escherichia coli is a common gram that can be a cause of

a. positive rod; hemorrhagic colitis

b.

negative rod; traveler‘s diarrhea c. positive coccus; typhoid fever

d. negative rod; cholera

10. Clostridium difficile is

a. the cause of pseudomembranous colitis.

b. traveler‘s diarrhea.

c. meningoencephalitis.

d.

undulant fever.

11. This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia,

and

newborn meningitis.

a. Bacillus cereus

b. Listeria monocyto genes

c. Clostridium peringens

d.

Escherichia coli


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12. This species is the most virulent of the vibrios.

a. V vulnficus

b. V. cholerae

c. V enterocolitica

d. V. parahaemolyticus

13. Typhoid fever is characterized by

a. The production of an exotoxin.

b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome.

c. Rose spots on chest and abdomen.

d. All the above (a — c) are correct.

14. The symptoms of salmonellosis usually last about

a.

24 hours.

b. 48 hours.

c. 5 days.

d. 14 days.

15. What is the name of the syndrome of fever, abdominal cramps, and

bloody mucoid stools caused by Shigella species?

a. Bacterial dysentery

b.

Typhoid fever

c. Pseudomembranous colitis

d. HUS

16. Enterohemorrhagic E. coil (EHEC) can cause

a. Undulant fever.

b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome.

c. Guillain-barré syndrome.

d.

Stomach ulcers.

17. The most commonly reported cause of invasive bacterial

gastroenteritis is associated with which of the following bacterial

genera?

a. Campylobacter

b. Staphylococcus

c. Shigeila

d.

Ciostridium


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18. Yersiniosis is caused by

a. Yersinia pestis.

b. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.

c. Yersinia entercolitica.

d. All of the above (A — C) cause the illness.

19. Gastric ulcer disease is caused by

a. Helicobacter pylori.

b. Yersinia entercolitica.

c. Escherichia coli.

d. Salmonella Typhi.

20: Botulism is an example of a _____.

a.

waterborne infection

b. foodborne intoxication

c. waterborne intoxication

d. fecal/oral infection

21: Cases of cholera are caused by _____ cholerae.

a. Vibrio

b. Clostridium

c.

Salmonella

d. Shigella

22: Which one of the following genera is not associated with a

foodborne intoxication?

a. Clostridium

b. Salmonella

c. Staphylococcus

d.

All three (A-C) are associated with a foodborne intoxication.

23: Traveler's diarrhea is most often caused by a species of _____.

a. Salmonella

b. Vibrio

c. Escherichia

d. Listeria

24: Shigellosis is primarily a disease of the _____.


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a. Nervous System

b. Blood

c. Respiratory Tract

d. Gastrointestinal Tract

25: Brucellosis can be an occupational hazard of _____.

a. Farmers

b. Veterinarians

c. Dairy Workers

d. All Three (A-C) Occupations Are At Risk.

26: Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated

with

a.

Helicobacter Pylori. b. Staphylococcus Aureus.

c. Escherichia Coli.

d. Salmonella Typhi.

27 Which one of the following parts of the body is not associated with

listeriosis?

a. Lungs

b.

Meningesc. Blood

d. Uterus

28: One could make a case for _____ being the most extensive diarrheal

disease.

a. Gastric Ulcer Disease

b. Cholera

c.

Brucellosisd. Listeriosis

29: The majority of bacterial species that cause foodborne and

waterborne illnesses in humans are _____.

a. Gram-Negative Rods

b. Gram-Negative Cocci

c. Gram-Positive Rods

d.

Rods Without A Wall


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30: John Snow was able to correlate the spread of cholera with a

contaminated _____ in London in 1866.

a. Water Pump

b. Dairy

c. Butcher Shop

d.

Hand Soap

31: Where do the indigenous microbiota come from to repopulate the

gut after diarrhea?

a. The Food You Eat

b. The Place You Live

c. The Appendix

d. The Liver

32: It has been discovered that Helicobacter pylori is the cause of

______.

a. Acute Gastritis

b. Gastric Ulcers

c. Stomach Cancer

d. A-C Are Correct

33: Which of the following is NOT a condition seen with thedevelopment of dental caries?

a. A Susceptible Tooth With A Buildup Of Plaque

b. Dietary Carbohydrates (Usually Sugar)

c. Acidogenic Bacterial Species

d. Chewing A Lot Of Gum

34: What is the most common infectious disease today?

a.

Respiratory Infections

b. Intestinal Infections

c. Sexually Transmitted Infections

d. Dental Caries

35: Which group of people would be more susceptable to intestinal

infections?

a. Infants

b.

Young Children


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c. Teenagers

d. Adults

36: Which of the following is NOT a way to prevent food from being

contaminated?

a.

Control The Initial Number Of Bacteria Present b. Prevent The Small Number From Growing

c. Destroy Bacteria By Cooking Properly

d. Avoid Recontamination After Cooking

e. Re-Freeze Food After Cooking

37. Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning?

a. Streptococcus Pyogenes

b.

Staphylococcus Aureus.c. Pseudomonas Fluorescens

d. Streptococcus Epidermidis

38: Which is the most common food causing infant botulism?

a. Milk

b. Water

c. Honey

d.

Apple Juice

39: What is the best treatment for cholera?

a. Antibiotics

b. Water

c. Milk

d. Oral Rehydration Therapy


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Chapter 12: Soil Borne and Arthropod BorneBacterial Diseases

1. Woolsorter disease applies to the form of

a.

inhalation; tularemia b. toxic; myonecrosis

c. intestinal; anthrax

d. inhalation; anthrax

2. Which one of the following describes the mode of action of

tetanospasmin?

a. It inhibits muscle contraction.

b.

It damages and lyses red blood cells.c. It disrupts cell tissues.

d. It inhibits muscle relaxation.

3. A crackling sound associated with myonecrosis is due to

a. Respiratory Distress Due To Plague.

b. Nerve Contractions Due To Tetanus.

c. Lymph Node Swelling Due To Plague.

d.

Gas Produced By C. Perfringens. 4. Leptospira interrogans has all the following characteristics except:

a. Endoflagella.

b. Aerobic Metabolism.

c. Exotoxin Production.

d. A Hook At One End Of The Cell.

5. A characteristic of cell staining of Y. pestis is a

a. Gram-Positive Staining.

b. Bipolar Staining.

c. Gram-Positive Staining.

d. Gram-Variable Staining.

6. Skin ulcers are a common lesion resulting from being bitten by

a. A Tick Infected With B. Burgdorferi.

b.

Fleas Infected With Y. Pestis.c. A Tick Infected With F. Tularensis.


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d. Lice Infected With C. Tetani.

7. Erythema migrans is typical of the stage of Lyme disease.

a. Early Localized

b. Early Disseminated

c.

Lated. Recurrent

8. A brief tick bite and a small number of recurring periods of fever and

chills is typical of

a. Louseborne Relapsing Fever.

b. Ehrlichiosis.

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

d.

Epidemic Typhus.

9. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most common in the

a. Southeastern United States.

b. Rocky Mountains.

c. Pacific Northwest.

d. New England.

10. A lowering of the white blood cell count is characteristic of

a. Plague.

b. Anthrax.

c. Ehrlichlosis.

d. Rmsf.

11 Which one of the following is not a form of plague?

a. Relapsing

b.

Bubonicc. Pneumonic

d. Septicemic

12: Lyme disease is transmitted by _____.

a. Fleas

b. Mosquitoes

c. Lice

d.

Ticks


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13: Epidemic, endemic, and scrub typhus are caused by a different

species

a. Yersinia

b. Borrelia

c. Rickettsia

d.

Clostridium

14: Clostridium tetani grows in a/an _____ environment.

a. Acidic

b. Anaerobic

c. High Oxygen

d. Aerobic

15: Tularemia is also called _____ fever.

a. Cat Scratch

b. Typhoid

c. Rabbit

d. Rat Bite

16: The cells of Leptospira interrogans, the causative agent of

leptospirosis, have a _____ shape.

a.

Rod

b. Spiral

c. Spherical

d. Spirochete

17: A hyperbaric oxygen chamber may be used to treat a patient

suffering from _____.

a. Tetanus

b.

Anthrax

c. Plague

d. Gas Gangrene

18: Bacillus anthracis is a gram-_____ rod.

a. Positive, Spore-Forming

b. Positive, Anaerobic

c. Negative, Spore-Forming

d.

Negative, Aerobic


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19: Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by _____ and infects _____.

a. Lice; Red Blood Cells

b. Ticks; Leukocytes

c. Fleas; Skin Cells

d. Ticks; Liver Cells

20: Currently, the most common arthropodborne disease in the US is.

a. Relapsing Fever

b. Lyme Disease

c. Tularemia

d. Epidemic Typhus

21: Which of the following is NOT a method of getting anthrax?

a.

Inhalation

b. Intestinal

c. Cutaneous

d. Urinary

22: What disease is described by: "the toxin acts at the neuromuscular

junction, preventing the release of neurotransmitters needed to inhibit

muscle contraction."

a.

Botulism

b. Tetanus

c. The Plague

d. A-C Are Correct

23: Gas gangrene is caused by _____.

a. Clostridium tetani

b. Clostridium botulinum

c.

Clostridium perfringens

d. Clostridium gangrenum

24: ______ is the most wide-spread zoonosis.

a. Leptospira interrogans

b. Borrelia burgdorferi

c. Rickettsia rickettsii

d. Yersinia pestis


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25: _____ is an ancient disease now endemic in the southwestern US in

gophers and prairie dogs.

a. Leptospira interrogans

b. Borrelia burgdorferi

c. Rickettsia rickettsii

d.

Yersinia pestis

26: An early symptom of ________ is a spreading bulls-eye rash at the

site of a tick bite.

a. Tularemia

b. Lyme disease

c. Yersinia pestis

d. Q fever

27: ________ is seen with periods of fever and chills when many

spirochetes are present in the blood.

a. Rabbit fever

b. Lyme disease

c. Relapsing fever

d. The Plague

28: The Rickettsias demonstrate a characteristic ______ and ______.

a. Fever And Chills

b. Fever And Rash

c. Fever And Difficulty Breathing

d. Chills And Low White Blood Cells.

29: ________ is a tickborne pathogen that inhabits human leukocytes.

a. Francisella Tularensis

b.

Yersinia Pestis

c. Ehrlichia

d. Rickettsia

30: Which of the following is a soilborne disease?

a. Tularemia

b. the plague

c. Rickettsia

d.

Tetanus


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Chapter 13: Sexually Transmitted & Contact TransmittedBacterial Diseases

1. The primary sex organs of the female reproductive system is/are thea. Uterus.

b. Vagina.

c. Clitoris

d. Ovaries.

2. What part or parts of the male and female reproductive systems are

typically colonized by indigenous microbiota?

a.

Male: Ureters; Female: Vagina And Ovaries

b. Male: Testes And Epididymis

c. Male: Urethra; Female: Vagina, Vulva, And Cervix

d. Male: Bladder And Ureters; Female: Fallopian Tubes And

Cervix

3. Which one of the following microbes is NOT associated with

vaginosis?

a.

Peptostreptococcus

b. Gardnerella

c. Prevotella

d. Staphylococcus

4. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the

reproductive cycle of Chlamydia?

a. Reticulate Bodies Are Infectious.

b.

Reticulate Bodies Reorganize Into Elementary Bodies.

c. Elementary Bodies Infect Host Cells.

d. Elementary Bodies Transform Into Reticulate Bodies.

5. Salpingitis is associated with_______ and can lead to___________

a. Syphilis; Gumma Formation

b. Gonorrhea; Sterility

c. Chlamydia; Ophthalmia

d.

Chancroid; Soft Chancre


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6. A chancre is typical of which stage of syphilis?

a. Primary

b. Secondary

c. Tertiary

d. Chronic, latent

7. Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with

another

Serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis?

a. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

b. Genital warts

c. Granuloma inguinale

d.

Chancroid

8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the urinary tract?

a. Urethra

b. Bladder

c. Kidneys

d. Ureters

9. What bacterial species is most often associated with cystitis?

a. Treponemo pallidum

b. Escherichia coIi

c. Chlamydia trachomatis

d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

10. What type of immune defensive cell is found in the sublayers of the

epidermis?

a.

Keratinocyte

b. Dendritic (Langerhans) cell

c. Neutrophil

d. Basophil

11. The skin is

a. Dominated By Gram-Negative Bacterial Cells.

b.

Free Of Bacterial Cells.c.

Without A Microbiota.


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d. Dominated By Gram-Positive Bacterial Cells.

12. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of acne?

a. Acne is caused by Propionibacterium acnes.

b. Plugged sebaceous glands are called erythemas.

c.

Whiteheads are completely blocked follicles.d. Acne is not a preventable disease.

13. An acute wound could be due to

a. Surgical Procedures.

b. Cuts.

c. Lacerations.

d. All The Above (A — C) Are Correct.

14. In children, this skin disease is characterized by the production of

thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid and forming yellowish-

brown flakes.

a. Toxic shock syndrome

b. Scalded skin syndrome

c. Erysipelas

d. Impetigo

15. Which one of the following skin diseases is NOT caused by

Streptococcus

pyogenes?

a. Necrotizing fasciitis

b. Toxic shock syndrome

c. Gas gangrene

d. . Erysipelas

16. The most common cause of an invasive wound infection, such as a

burn, is

a. gram-positive bacterial species.

b. treponema pallidum.

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

d. Escherichia coli.

17. Bartonelia henselae is the causative agent of this skin disease.


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a. Leprosy

b. Cat-scratch disease

c. Necrotizing fasciitis

d. Rat-bite fever

18. Leprosy can be contracted by contact with

a. Contaminated Water.

b. Insects.

c. Nasal Secretions.

d. Contaminated Food.

19. The SAFE strategy has greatly reduced the global burden of what

disease?

a.

Trachoma b. Neonatal conjunctivitis

c. Leprosy

d. Blepharitis

20: The rapid plasma reagin test and VDRL test are both used _____.

a. In The Diagnosis Of Syphilis.

b. To Detect Toxic Shock Syndrome.

c.

To Gauge The Extent Of Dental Decay.d. To Distinguish Ureaplasmal And Mycoplasmal Urethritis.

21. Two methods for transmitting leprosy are

a. Arthropod Bites And Fomites.

b. Skin Contact And Respiratory Droplets.

c. Arthropod Bites And Contaminated Food.

d. Contaminated Water And Food.

22: Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a. TSS-skin peeling

b. Gonorrhea-urethritis

c. Leprosy-liver damage

d. Cat scratch fever-swollen lymph nodes

23: Newborns exposed to Chlamydia trachomatis from an infected

mother may experience


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a. Toxic Shock Syndrome or Staphylococcal Skin Disease.

b. Dental Caries When the Teeth Grow In.

c. Destruction of the Reproductive Organs.

d. Disease of the Eyes or Lungs.

24: The scalded skin syndrome is generally associated with

a. Hutchinson's triad.

b. children born to parents who have had pasteurellosis.

c. high mortality rates in untreated cases.

d. damage of the urethra from mycoplasmal urethritis.

25: Organisms that normally inhabit the body

a.

include Treponema pallidum.

b. cause endogenous diseases.

c. may be detected by Donovan bodies.

d. resist the effects of antibiotics.

26: All the following apply to trachoma except:

a. the disease occurs in the eyes.

b. tetracycline is helpful in therapy.

c.

tiny, pale nodules form on the conjunctiva.

d. the agent of the disease is Treponema pertenue.

27: All the following are among the opportunistic organisms that may

cause nosocomial disease except:

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

b. Escherichia coli.

c. Staphylococcus aureus.

d.

Mycobacterium leprae.

28: The condition known as pseudomembranous colitis is associated

with

a. Excessive antibiotic use in the intestine.

b. Invasion of the tissues by Streptococcus mutans.

c. Swollen lymph nodes.

d. The secondary stage of syphilis.


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29: Impetigo is a skin disease caused by

a. a species of Haemophilus.

b. a species of Chlamydia.

c. Bacteroides fragilis.

d. Staphylococcus aureus.

30: What is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the

United States?

a. Chlamydia

b. Gonorrhea

c. Syphilis

d. AIDS

31: Which organism is found in the acidic vagina of women ofreproductive age?

a. Candida albicans

b. Lactobacillus

c. Escherichia coli.

d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

32: Which of the following may result from untreated STDs in females?

a. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

b. ectopic pregnancy

c. infertility

d. A-C are correct

33: Which of the following STIs start with a chancre, then a rash and if

untreated results in gummas and death many years later?

a.

Chlamydia

b. Gonorrhea

c. Syphilis

d. Granuloma inguinale

34: Which of the following are antimicrobial defense mechanisms in the

urethra?

a. size and length of the urethra

b.

shedding of cells in the mucosal lining and bacteria with urination


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c. normally basic urine

d. A-C are correct

35: ______ is a bladder infection.

a. urethritis

b.

pyelonephritisc. cystitis

d. prostatitis

36: Which of the skin microbiota is responsible for most cases of the

inflammatory condition of acne?

a. Propionebacterium

b. Staphylococcus

c.

Corynebacteriumd. Acinetobacter

37: _____ is a widespread and highly contagious staphylococcal skin

disease with thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid that forms a

crust.

a. furuncle

b. carbuncles

c.

impetigod. abscess

38: Of the hemolytic groups of streptococci, _____ is the most

dangerous because the organisms completely destroy red blood cells.

a. alpha hemolytic group

b. the beta hemolytic group

c.

the gamma hemolyticd. strep viridins group

39: Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the

flesh-eating disease?

a. Group A streptococcus

b. Group B streptococcus

c. Staphylococcus aureus.

d.

strep viridins group


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40. The primary sex organs of the male reproductive system is/are the

a. Penis

b. Testicles

c. Seminal Vesicles

d. Vas Deferens

Chapter 14: The Viruses and Virus Like Agent

1. Which one of the following scientists was NOT involved with

discovering viruses?

a. Felix d‘Herrelle

b.

Dimitri Ivanowsky

c. Robert Fleming

d. Martinus Beijerinck

2. Viral genomes consist of

a. DNA only.

b. RNA only.

c. DNA or RNA.

d.

DNA and RNA.

3. A nucleocapsid can have

a. radial

b. icosahedral

c. vertical

d. bilateral

4. Tissue tropism refers to

a. what tissues grow due to a viral infection.

b. what tissues are resistant to viral infection.

c. what organisms a virus infects.

d. what cells or tissues a virus infects.

5. An RNA virus genome in the form of messenger RNA is referred to

as a

a.

+ strand RNA.


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b. double-stranded RNA

c. – strand RNa

d. Reverse strand RNA.

6. A virulent bacteriophage will

a.

Carry Out A Lytic Cycle. b. Integrate Its Genome In The Host Cell.

c. Remain Dormant In A Bacterial Cell.

d. Exist As A Prophage.

7. The release of the viral genome from the capsid is called

a. Uncoating.

b. Endocytosis.

c.

Penetration.d. Maturation.

8. Provirus formation is possible in members of the

a. Single-Stranded DNA Viruses.

b. Retroviruses.

c. Double-Stranded RNA Viruses.

d. Single-Stranded ( — Strand) RNA Viruses.

9. Cytopathic effects would include all the following except

a. Changes In Cell Structure.

b. Provirus Formation.

c. Vacuolated Cytoplasm.

d. Syncytia Formation.

10. A plaque is a

a.

Change In Cell Structure Due To Viral Infection. b. Viral Cell Inclusion.

c. Clear Zone Within A Lawn Of Bacteria.

d. Cellular Aggregation Of Phage Heads.

11. A benign tumor

a. Will Metastasize.

b. Represents Cancer.

c.

Is Malignant.


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d. Is A Clone Of Dividing Cells.

12. Which of the following is NOT a carcinogen?

a. Genetic factors

b. UV light

c.

Certain chemicalsd. X rays

13. The oncogene theory states that transforming genes

a. Normally Occur In The Host Genome.

b. Can Exist In Viruses.

c. Are Not Of Viral Origin.

d. All Of The Above (A — C) Are Correct.

14. Newly emerging viruses causing human disease can arise from

a. Species Jumping.

b. Mutations.

c. Genetic Recombination.

d. All Of The Above (A — C) Are Correct.

15. Viruses derived from fragments of cellular genetic material and

macromolecules forms the basis of the

a. Cellular Origins Hypothesis.

b. Independent Entities Hypothesis.

c. Rna World Hypothesis.

d. Regressive Evolution Hypothesis.

16. Viroids contain

a. RNA and DNA.

b.

Only RNA.c. DNA and a capsid.

d. RNA and an envelope.

17. Which one of the following statements about prions is FALSE?

a. Prions are infectious proteins.

b. Prions have caused disease in Americans.

c. Human disease is called variant CJD.

d.

Prions can be transmitted to humans from infected beef.


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18: The genome of a virus may contain either ______ or ______.

a. DNA; protein

b. protein; carbohydrate

c. carbohydrate; RNA

d. RNA; DNA

19: Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to

treat some viral infections.

a. penicillin and ampicillin

b. isoniazid and dapsone

c. amantadine and acyclovir

d. streptomycin and amphotericin

20: Attenuated viruses are those that _____.

a. can be used to treat viral disease.

b. give rise to viroids and prions.

c. multiply in cells but at a low rate.

d. have been treated with chemicals such as formaldehyde.

21: Viroids and prions differ in that viroids are believed to contain only

______, while prions are believed to contain only _______.

a. carbohydrate; amino acids

b. nucleic acid; protein

c. amino acids; carbohydrate

d. protein; nucleic acid

22: Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase

_____.

a.

reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating

information to proceed from RNA to DNA.

b. reverses the normal multiplication of cells from a low rate to a

high rate.

c. reverses the ability of viruses to associate with cells.

d. reverses the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to

continue multiplying in living cells.

23: Rivers' postulates can be used to

microbiology mcq

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