MH-SSET – 2014 Speciality – Pharmacology

Question Booklet Version Question Booklet Sr. No.

(Write this number on your (Write this number on Answer Sheet) your Answer Sheet)

Day and Date: Time : 10.00 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.

Sunday, 8th June 2014 Total Marks : 150

This is to certify that the entries of MH-SSET Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written andverified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Instructions to Candidates

1. This question booklet contains 150 objective SINGLE BEST RESPONSE Type Questions (MCQs) ; distributedin two Sections viz Section A of 100 MCQs and Section B of 50 MCQs. Each MCQ is of one mark. There isno negative marking.

2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet are issued separately at the start of theexamination.

3. Section ‘A’ contains 100 questions covering all the subjects of I, II and III MBBS course. Section B contains50 questions in the subject of Broad Speciality in which the candidate has done postgraduation (MD or MS).

4. Candidate should check that correct question paper as per the speciality is received.

5. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.6. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and

make correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARKREADER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark correct entries. Special care should be takento fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION and SERIAL NO. and MH-SSET Roll No. accurately. The correctnessof entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet andQuestion Booklet.

7. Read each question carefully. Read the serial order of four options i.e. A, B, C & D of the MCQs carefully,including those which are ‘fill in the blank’ type of MCQs, while marking the answer.

8. Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given under each question.

9. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question only.

10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answer once marked.

11. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.

12. No mark shall be awarded for the particular question if the examinee has marked two or more answers to it orhas done overwriting or scratching etc. in the Answer Sheet.

13. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work shouldnot be done on the Answer Sheet.

14. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer Sheet and the Question Booklet is tobe returned to the invigilator after both the candidate and invigilator have signed.

15. No candidate is allowed to leave the Examination Hall till the examination session is over.

DM

11MH-SSET Roll No.

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Answer Sheet No.

P.T.O.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION – A

1. The treatment of choice for phobic disorder is

A) Psychotherapy B) Benzodiazepines

C) Behavioural therapy D) 5 HT reuptake inhibitors

2. Sweating, palpitations, shaking, chest pain and intense fear developing withinminutes, the clinical diagnosis is

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Acute Psychosis

C) Schizophrenia D) Panic Attack

3. Cluster C includes which of the following personality disorder ?

A) paranoid B) histrionic C) borderline D) avoidant

4. Schneider’s FRS (First Rank Symptoms) of Schizophrenia include all of thefollowing EXCEPT

A) Thought insertion B) Delusional perception

C) Thought blocking D) Somatic passivity

5. The Local Anaesthetic which has more cardiovascular toxicity in case of accidentalintravascular injection is

A) Lidocaine B) Bupivacaine

C) Ropivacaine D) Levobupivacaine

6. Local Anaesthetics act on

A) Open Na+ channel B) Closed Na+ channel

C) Open K+ channel D) Closed K+ channel

7. The ultra short acting opioid is

A) Fentanyl B) Alfentanil C) Sufentanyl D) Remifentanil

8. Following all are benzyl isoquinolinium compounds EXCEPT

A) Mivacurium B) Rocuronium

C) Atracurium D) Doxacurium

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9. The Blood/Gas partition co-efficient of sevoflurane at 37°C is

A) 0.42 B) 2.4 C) 0.65 D) 0.47

10. Psig stands for

A) Pounds per square inch gauge B) Pressure per square inch gauge

C) Pressure per square inch goal D) Pounds per square inch goal

11. Chalazion is a chronic granulomatous inflammation of a

A) Zeis gland B) Wolfring gland

C) Meibomian gland D) Moll gland

12. The type of laser employed for treating posterior capsule thickening after cataract

surgery is

A) Krypton laser B) Excimer laser

C) Argon laser D) YAG laser

13. Blood supply to the parietal pleura is by the

A) Bronchial circulation

B) Pulmonary arteries

C) Subclavian, internal mammary and intercostal arteries

D) Pulmonary veins

14. Active tuberculosis during pregnancy should be treated with following regimen

A) Isoniazid (INH) + Ethambutol

B) Isoniazid + Ethambutol + Streptomycin

C) Isoniazid + Pyrizinamide + Streptomycin

D) Isoniazid + Ethambutol + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide

15. Maximum dose of radiation per year in a human which is safe

A) 5 rads B) 1 rad C) 10 rads D) 20 rads

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16. Most radiosensitive brain tumor is

A) Ependymoma B) Medullo blastoma

C) Astrocytoma D) Craniopharyngioma

17. In x-ray chest PA view left atrial enlargement causes all EXCEPT

A) Left hilar enlargement B) Left lower lobe collapse

C) Double density shadow D) Widening of carina

18. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for

evaluating

A) Interstial lung disease B) Lung mass

C) Pleural effusion D) Mediastinal lymphademapathy

19. There is a possibility of unilateral disease in kidney when there is a difference in

length of kidney by

A) 0.5 cm or less B) 1 cm

C) 1 to 1.5 cm D) 2 cm or more

20. Bilirubin level causing kernicterus in a term infant is

A) 10 mg/dl B) 8 mg/dl

C) More than 20 mg/dl D) 10 – 12 mg/dl

21. Urinary incontinence in uterovaginal prolapse is mostly due to

A) Truecontinence B) Urge incontinence

C) Detrusor instability D) Stress incontinence

22. Which of the following genital infection is associated with preterm labour ?

A) Human papilloma virus B) Monilial vaginitis

C) Bacterial vaginosis D) Trichomonas vaginitis

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23. Normal vaginal pH during pregnancy is

A) increased B) unchanged

C) decreased D) none of the above

24. In semen analysis normal sperm concentration is

A) > 10 million/mL B) > 15 million/mL

C) > 20 million/mL D) > 25 million/mL

25. “McMurray’s Test” is done for integrity of

A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Posterior cruciate ligament

C) Meniscus D) Medial collateral ligament

26. Usually the first joint to get involved in Ankylosing spondylitis is

A) Sacroiliac joint B) Hip joint

C) Knee joint D) Facet joints of spine

27. Commonest cause of early onset paraplegia in TB of the spine is

A) Granulation tissue B) Tubercular Abscess

C) Infective thrombosis D) Sequestrum in the spinal canal

28. Hollowing between metacarpals is seen in

A) Radial nerve injury B) Ulnar nerve injury

C) Median nerve injury D) Ant. interosseus nerve injury

29. In fracture healing, stage of callus lasts for about

A) 2-3 weeks B) 4-8 weeks C) 4-12 weeks D) 8-16 weeks

30. Following air sinuses open in middle meatus of nose, EXCEPT

A) Frontal B) Maxillary

C) Middle ethmoidal D) Posterior ethmoidal

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31. A paralyzed vocal cord under stroboscopy

A) Seen to vibrate more B) Seen to vibrate less

C) Does not vibrate at all D) Vibrates with normal amplitude

32. Mickulicz cell and Russel bodies are characteristic of

A) Rhinoscleroma B) Rhinosporidiosis

C) Plasma cell disorder D) Midline granuloma

33. Highest density of goblet cells seen in

A) Ethmoid sinus B) Maxillary sinus

C) Frontal sinus D) Sphenoid sinus

34. Fordyce’s granules (spots) in oral cavity arise from

A) Mucous glands B) Taste buds

C) Sebaceous glands D) Minor salivary glands

35. Antihistone Antibodies are associated with

A) Neonatal Lupus Erythematosus

B) Discoid Lupus Erythematosus

C) Drug induced Lupus Erythematosus

D) Systemic Sclerosis

36. Prolonged use of a potent topical steroid ointment on the skin can cause

A) Lichenification B) Photosensitivity

C) Striae D) Pigmentation

37. Condyloma lata are seen in this stage of syphilis

A) Primary B) Secondary C) Late latent D) Tertiary

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38. Heliotrope rash is seen in

A) Lupus Erythematosus B) Scleroderma

C) Dermatomyositis D) Rheumatoid Arthritis

39. In most cases irregularity in the curvature of the cornea leads to

A) Astigmatism B) Myopia

C) Hyperopia D) Anisometropia

40. According to WHO classification of Xerophthalmia, X2 is

A) conjunctival xerosis B) corneal xerosis

C) corneal ulceration D) corneal scarring

41. Which of the following is NOT component of Moro’s reflex ?

A) Abduction of arm B) Crying

C) Blinking of eye D) Opening of fists

42. What should be internal diameter of endotracheal tube for neonatal resuscitation

of 1700 gm baby ?

A) 2.5 mm B) 3 mm C) 3.5 mm D) 4 mm

43. Most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in pediatric age group is

A) Minimal change disease

B) Membranous glomerulonephritis

C) Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

D) Mesangio proliferative glomerulonephritis

44. Neuroblastoma presents as Horner’s syndrome when arising from

A) adrenal glands B) paraspinal sympathetic ganglia

C) superior cervical ganglion D) inferior cervical ganglion

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45. In neonatal resuscitation, the chest compression to ventilation ratio is

A) 2 : 1 B) 3 : 1 C) 4 : 1 D) 5 : 1

46. In experienced units the percentage of intussusceptions which can be reduced

hydrostatically without surgery is

A) 50% B) 10% C) 30% D) 70%

47. Sistrunk’s operation is done for

A) Brachial cyst B) Thyroglossal cyst

C) Cystic hygroma D) Laryngocele

48. Polyglyconate suture material gets absorbed in

A) 21 days B) 60 days C) 90 days D) 180 days

49. Most common variety of intussusception in children is

A) Retrograde B) Ileoilial C) Ileocolic D) Colocolic

50. The relative contraindication for PEG (Percuteneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy) is

A) Ascites B) Facial trauma

C) Debilitated D) Impaired swallowing

51. Most common type of gastric polyp is

A) Inflammatory polyp B) Malignant polyp

C) Metaplastic polyp D) Pseudopolyp

52. Minimum score in Glasgow coma scale is

A) 0 B) 5 C) 3 D) 1

53. All are the following features of systemic inflammatory response EXCEPT

A) Hyperthermia B) Tachycardia

C) Hypothermia D) Bradycardia

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54. Fresh frozen plasma which is rich in coagulation factors and stored at – 40 to –

60°C has

A) 7 days shelf life B) 2 weeks shelf life

C) Two years shelf life D) 1 years shelf life

55. The main disabilities of drooping of shoulder is seen in which of following classical

radical neck dissection ?

A) Crile B) Howard C) Clarke R D) Hibbett J

56. Peau D’orange appearance of mammary skin is due to

A) Intra-epithelial B) Sub-epidermal cancer

C) Lymphatic permeation D) Vascular embolisation

57. All are resected in Whipple’s operation EXCEPT

A) Duodenum B) Head of pancreas

C) Portal vein D) Common bile duct

58. FNAC is useful in all the following types of thyroid carcinoma EXCEPT

A) Papillary B) Follicular C) Anaplastic D) Medullary

59. Electrical alternans in ECG is a sign of

A) Left ventricular failure B) Cardiac tamponade

C) Myocardial infarction D) Constrictive pericarditis

60. Empirical treatment for a patient of viral encephalitis is

A) Acyclovir B) Ganciclovir

C) α -interferon D) Ribavarin

61. Treatment of choice in patients having atrial fibrillation of less than 48 hrs duration

is

A) Digoxin B) Verapamil

C) DC cardioversion D) Flecainide

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62. Contralateral hemiplegia with ipsilateral 6th and 7th cranial nerve palsy is seen in

A) Webers syndrome B) Claudes syndrome

C) Perinaud syndrome D) Millard Gubler syndrome

63. In which of the following condition eradication of H. Pylori is NOT indicated ?

A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

B) Maltoma

C) Peptic ulcer

D) H. Pylori positive dyspepsia

64. Hasford system used for prognosis of CML include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Spleen size B) Platelet count

C) Cytogenetic clonal evaluation D) Percentage of circulating blast

65. Corticosteroids are indicated in patients with alcoholic hepatitis if calculated

discriminant function is

A) > 50 B) > 32 C) > 20 D) > 62

66. Traction bronchiectasis refers to dialated airways due to

A) Pulmonary fibrosis

B) Congenital bronchiectasis

C) ABPA (Allergic bronchopulmonary asperagillosis)

D) Community acquired pneumonia

67. Sinus node dysfunction is present if sinus node recovery time (SNRT) is

A) > 500 millisecond B) > 1000 millisecond

C) > 1500 millisecond D) > 300 millisecond

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68. Most common intracranial neoplasm in adults is

A) Astrocytoma B) Meningioma

C) Vestibular schwanoma D) CNS lymphoma

69. Fresh Frozen plasma contains all EXCEPT

A) Fibrinogen B) Prothrombin

C) Antithrombin D) Protein C and S

70. Major criteria for Rheumatic fever are all EXCEPT

A) Migrating arthralgia B) Subcutaneous nodules

C) Rheumatic chorea D) Erythema marginatum

71. Histopathological Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion in kidney biopsy of patients with

diabetic nephropathy is

A) Thickened glomerular basement membrane

B) Expanded melangial matrix

C) Nodular glomerulosclerosis

D) Hyaline arteriosclerosis

72. A pictorial diagram which shows the broad features of the area and the cases

shown as points is called as

A) Gantt chart B) Spot map

C) Epidemic curve D) Forest plot

73. In which of the following method of pasteurization, ‘milk is rapidly heated to a

temperature of nearly 72 deg. C, and is held at that temperature for not less than

15 seconds, and is then rapidly cooled to 4 deg. C’ ?

A) Holder B) HTST

C) UHT D) VAT

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74. Which is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community ?

A) General Fertility Rate (GFR) B) Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

C) Couple Protection Rate (CPR) D) Gross Reproduction Rate (GRR)

75. To diagnose which type of leprosy given below, histamine test is recommended ?

A) Pure neuritic type B) Lepromatous type

C) Borderline type D) Indeterminate type

76. The shape of wound produced by double edged knife is

A) Wedge shape B) Elliptical

C) Triangular D) Oval

77. Which poisoning shows dark brown colour postmortem lividity ?

A) Hydrocyanic acid B) Carbon monoxide

C) Nitrobenzene D) Phosphorus

78. The fungus commonly causing meningitis is

A) Penicillium marneffei B) Candida krusei

C) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Aspergillus flavus

79. Aspergillus species has

A) Septate hyphae B) Pseudo hyphae

C) Metachromatic hyphae D) No hyphae

80. The peripheral lymphoid organ in humans is

A) Thymus B) Lymph nodes

C) Bone marrow D) Bursa of fabricus

81. Selective alpha-one adrenergic receptor blocker is

A) Phentolamine B) Labetolol

C) Prazosin D) Yohimbine

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82. An immunosuppressant drug that acts by preferentially inhibiting antigen triggered

signal transduction pathway in T-cells is

A) Leflunomide B) Cyclosporine

C) Mycophenolate mofetil D) Cyclophosphamide

83. Zileuton is a

A) Mast cell stabilizer B) Inhaled steroid

C) 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor D) Leukotrine receptor antagonist

84. Dales vasomotor reversal is seen with

A) Adrenaline B) Noradrenaline

C) Ephedrine D) Dopamine

85. CD-95 has a major role in

A) Apoptosis B) Cell necrosis

C) Interferon activation D) Proteolysis

86. Psammoma bodies are seen in all EXCEPT

A) Follicular Ca thyroid B) Meningioma

C) Papillary Ca thyroid D) Serous carcinoma of ovary

87. Carcinoid tumour of intestinal tract arises from

A) Columnar cells B) Neuroendocrine cells

C) Smooth muscle cells D) Lymphoid cells

88. Labile cells include all the following types of cells EXCEPT

A) Surface epithelial cells of skin B) Hemopoietic cells

C) Hepatocytes D) Endometrial cells

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89. Fever in inflammation is produced by all EXCEPT

A) IL – 1 B) TNF

C) Prostaglandin D) Leukotrine

90. The nitrogen base present in lecithin is

A) Choline B) Ethanolamine

C) Serine D) Inositol

91. Asparginase is an enzyme useful in the treatment of

A) Ovarian cancer B) Hepatoma

C) Prostate cancer D) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

92. The neurotransmitter formed by decarboxylation of glutamate is

A) Gamma-aminobutyric acid B) Histamine

C) P-aminobenzoic acid D) Serotonin

93. Activation of proto-oncogene to oncogene occurs by all of the following mechanisms

EXCEPT

A) Promotor insertion B) Gene amplification

C) Transduction D) Chromosomal translocation

94. Short chain fatty acids produced by bacteria get absorbed maximally in the

A) Ileum B) Jejunum

C) Colon D) Duodenum

95. In kidney, glucose reabsorption occurs in the

A) proximal tubule B) loop of henle

C) distal tubule D) collecting duct

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96. Which one of the following area is protected by blood-brain barrier ?

A) Posterior pituitary

B) Area postrema

C) Thalamus

D) Organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis

97. Visual accommodation involves

A) increased tension on lens ligaments

B) a decrease in curvature of lens

C) relaxation of sphincter muscle of iris

D) contraction of ciliary muscle

98. ‘Bare area’ of liver includes following regions, EXCEPT

A) Groove for inferior vena cava B) Porta hepatis

C) Fossa for gall-bladder D) Caudate lobe

99. Telencephalon of developing brain gives rise to

A) Pons B) Cerebellum

C) Cerebrum D) Medulla oblongata

100. Ligamentum teres is remnant of

A) Ductus venosus B) Umbilical arteries

C) Umbilical vein D) Ductus arteriosus

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SECTION – B

PHARMACOLOGY

101. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when

A) After meal B) Shortly before meal

C) Along with H2 blockers D) Along with meal

102. Which of the following cytochrome P450 enzymes accounts for metabolism of

over 50% of clinically used drugs ?

A) CYP 1A1 B) CYP 3A4

C) CYP 2C9 D) CYP 2D6

103. For a drug following zero order kinetics, increase in the dose causes clearance to

A) increase B) decrease

C) remain same D) change variably

104. In human ventricle, the ratio of 21 : ββ receptor is

A) 1 : 1 B) 2 : 1

C) 3 : 1 D) 4 : 1

105. The minimal amount of protamine required to neutralize every 100 units of heparin

present in the plasma is

A) 0.1 mg B) 1 mg

C) 10 mg D) 100 mg

106. Regarding Aprepitant all are true EXCEPT

A) Agonist at NK1 receptors

B) Crosses Blood Brain Barrier

C) Ameliorate nausea and vomitting induced by chemotherapy

D) Metabolized by Cytochrome system

107. Drug used in irritable bowel syndrome with constipation is

A) Lubiprostone B) Loperamide

C) Alosetron D) Clonidine

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108. In the treatment of a urinary tract infection in a patient known to have a deficiencyof glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, it would NOT be advisable to prescribe

A) Amoxicillin B) Ciprofloxacin

C) Sulfamethoxazole D) Cephalexin

109. Dronedarone differs from Amiodarone by all of the following EXCEPT

A) Less toxic B) Does not cause Hypothyroidism

C) It has longer duration of action D) Does not cause peripheral neuropathy

110. Safe antitubercular drug in hepatitis is

A) Isoniazid B) Rifampicine

C) Pyrizinamide D) Ethambutol

111. Long acting insulin analogue is

A) Lispro B) Aspart

C) Glargine D) Glulisine

112. Which is an example of dye ?

A) Acedapsone B) Rifampicin

C) Clofazimine D) Becampicillin

113. Optimum plasma concentration ratio of sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim incotrimoxazole is

A) 10 : 1 B) 40 : 1

C) 20 : 1 D) 5 : 1

114. Drug causing folate deficiency is

A) INH B) Methotrexate

C) Erythromycin D) Cloxacillin

115. Propranolol and verapamil should NOT be given together because of risk of

A) Tachycardia B) Angina

C) Hypertension D) AV block

116. Which of the following drugs sensitizes the heart to catecholamines ?

A) Growth hormone B) ACTH

C) Thyroxine D) Prednisolone

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117. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane EXCEPT

A) Nystatin B) Griseofulvin

C) Amphotericin B D) Polymyxin B

118. After prolonged treatment the following drugs should be gradually withdrawnEXCEPT

A) Clonidine B) Corticosteroids

C) Thiazide diuretics D) Propranolol

119. All of the following are demelanizing agents EXCEPT

A) Hydroquinone B) Monobenzone

C) Azelaic acid D) Tazarotene

120. Following antiretroviral drugs are NOT effective against HIV-2

A) Protease inhibitors

B) Non Nucleoside Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

C) Integrase inhibitors

D) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

121. All of the following are advantages of Fondaparinux over low molecular weightHeparin EXCEPT

A) Less likely to cause thrombocytopenia

B) Can be used in renal failure patients

C) It is a longer acting

D) Minimal risk of Osteoporosis after prolonged use

122. Which one of the following is a highly selective Beta 1 blocker and nitric oxidedonor ?

A) Acebutolol B) Bisoprolol

C) Nebivolol D) Esmolol

123. Which of the following is NOT true for Drotaverine ?

A) Acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase IV

B) Used in biliary and renal colic

C) Produces anticholinergic side effects

D) Can cause fall in BP on I.V. administration

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124. Antiseizure drug that produces peripheral visual field defect after long term use is

A) Tiagabin B) Vigabatrin

C) Gabapentin D) Ethosuximide

125. Which of the following is “universal altered peptide ligands” used in the treatment

of multiple sclerosis ?

A) Mitoxantrone B) Natalizumab

C) Interferon β -la D) Glatiramer acetate

126. Probiotics are used for

A) Necrotizing enterocolitis B) Breast milk jaundice

C) Hospital acquired pneumonia D) Neonatal seizures

127. A post-menopausal female has been receiving Tamorifen for breast-cancer.

Recently, she was diagnosed with depression. Which of the following would be

the antidepressant of choice for this patient ?

A) Paroxetine B) Fluoxetine

C) Duloxetine D) Venlafaxine

128. Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-sense therapy for cytomegalovirus

(CMV) retinitis ?

A) Foscarnet B) Ganciclovir

C) Cidofovir D) Fomivirsen

129. A 45 year old patient presents with pain in abdomen on endoscopy, ulcers were

seen in the stomach. Patient gave history of chronic consumption of NSAIDS.

Which of the following drugs is the MOST EFFECTIVE for this patient to heal the

ulcers ?

A) Famotidine B) Pantoprazole

C) Misoprostol D) Sucralfate

130. Efalizumab is approved for

A) Colorectal cancer B) Allergic asthma

C) Psoriasis D) Renal transplant

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131. One milligram of pure Penicillin G sodium is equivalent to

A) 167 units B) 1667 units

C) 1.6 units D) 0.6 units

132. Which of the following 1α antagonists has relative selectivity for the A1α subtype

compared to the B1α subtype ?

A) Silodosin B) Prazosin

C) Terazosin D) Doxazosin

133. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of osteoporosis increases new

bone formation ?

A) Alendronate B) Calcitonin

C) Teriparatide D) Raloxifen

134. Which of the following drug causes vasculitis similar to Churg-Strauss syndrome

as its adverse effect ?

A) Zileuton B) Salbutamol

C) Montelukast D) Omalizumab

135. As per the Gazette notification (dated 30th January 2013) in the Drugs and

Cosmetics Rules, 1945, which of the following adverse effects are considered as

clinical trial related injury

A) due to standard care

B) due to procedure not involved in the study

C) due to placebo therapy

D) due to concomitant medications not mentioned in the protocol

136. As per Schedule Y, all serious and unexpected adverse events in a clinical trial

should be reported to the Ethics Committee within

A) 24 hours B) 7 working days

C) 14 calendar days D) 30 working days

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137. In organ transplantation, high dose intravenous methyl prednisolone pulse therapy

is indicated for

A) Induction of immunosuppressive therapy

B) Maintenance of immunosuppressive therapy

C) Reversal of acute graft rejection

D) Post-operative wound healing

138. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

A) alter plasma concentration of uric acid

B) alter plasma concentration of calcium

C) increase lipoproteins levels in renal diseases

D) improve insulin sensitivity in insulin resistance

139. Common feature between amitriptyline and chlorpromazine is, both show

A) Cholinergic action

B) Antinicotinic action

C) Antimuscarinic action

D) Serotonin reuptake inhibition

140. Which of the following is NOT likely to precipitate Torsades de Pointes ?

A) Cisapride B) Amitriptyline

C) Ampicillin D) Mefloquine

141. Which of the following antibacterial agent can be administered alone once weekly

for prophylaxis against M. avium complex in AIDS patient ?

A) Rifabutin B) Levofloxacin

C) Clarithromycin D) Azithromycin

142. Ketamine is a most suitable anaesthetic for which of the following patients ?

A) At risk of myocardial ischemia

B) Having raised intracranial tension

C) At risk of bronchospasm

D) Having hypertension

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143. Which is generally true about a drug having high protein binding ?

A) It has more volume of distribution

B) It is less prone to drug interactions

C) It is easily metabolized

D) It becomes long acting

144. Which of the following tetracyclines has nearly 100% oral bioavailability ?

A) Tetracycline B) Democlocycline

C) Minocycline D) Oxytetracycline

145. Choose a correct statement regarding ‘Lignocaine’.

A) It has an ester-link in chemical structure

B) Its pKa value is around 7.7

C) It has slow onset of action

D) It cannot be given by intravenous route

146. The maximum first hepatic pass metabolism is seen with

A) Isosorbide mononitrate B) Glyceryl trinitrate

C) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate D) Isosorbide dinitrate

147. Tetrahydrocannabinol is the active component of

A) Marijuana B) Ecstasy

C) Yaba D) Heroin

148. Renal vasodilatation occurs when the rate of dopamine intravenous infusion isaround

A) 2 mcg/kg/min B) 6 mcg/kg/min

C) 12 mcg/kg/min D) 24 mcg/kg/min

149. Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of its

A) Potency B) Safety

C) Specificity D) Efficacy

150. Enuresis in children can be treated with

A) muscarinic antagonists B) cholinergics

C) cholinesterase inhibitors D) nicotinic antagonists

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK