ibps-clerk batch at madurai · ibps-clerk batch at madurai at madurai 6pm-8pm week days. tn...

RADIAN IAS ACADEMY (A Hi-Tech Advanced Coaching cum Guidance Centre) -1- www.radianiasacademy.org

711 EVR Road, Opp. Anna Arch, NSK Nagar, Arumbakkam, CHENNAI-106. E-mail: [email protected] Ph: 98404-00825, 98404-33955

SUBJECTS AVERAGE

SUB -

DIVISION

CSSE-I

(4.11.12)

VAO

(30.09.12)

Cancelled

CSSE-I

(12.08.12)

CSSE-II

(04.08.12)

GROUP-4

(07.07.12)

HISTORY 18

General 18 15 15 18 9

Tamil Nadu 2 1 6 4 2

GEOGRAPHY 17

General 16 18 13 9 19

Tamil Nadu 1 4 1 2 2

POLITY 10 Indian 12 8 14 7 10

ECONOMICS 9 General 8 6 8 12 8

MATHS 10

Maths 6 5 8 4 8

Statistics 2 1 - 3 1

Computers 3 - 2 6 1

SCIENCE 24

Zoology 8 11 8 6 11

Chemistry 6 10 5 8 6

Physics 6 8 4 8 3

Botany 2 1 3 3 3

TAMIL

LITERATURE 8

Literature 7 12 6 2 11

Grammar 1 - - - 1

CURRENT

AFFAIRS 4

General 2 - 7 7 4

TamilNadu - - - 1 1

TOTAL 100 100 100 100 100 100

GROUP-1 2011 RADIA� STUDE�T'S ACHIEME�TS.

GROUP-1 2008 to 2011 : 81 RADIAN Students got postings.

State First Rank Mr. PARTHEEBAN J (Our MAINS Student) Reg.No-

02204009

Deputy Collector Miss. JANANI R (our PRELIMS & MAINS

Student)Reg.No-50024012

Deputy Collector Mr. MANUEL RAJ (Our GROUP-1 & 2


State 2nd Rank Mr. ARUN SATHYA B (Our TEST Student) - Reg.No-

50086008

State 4th Rank Mrs. ABIRAMI (Our Prelims&Mains-ONLINE


State 5th Rank Mr.PALANIKUMAR (Our TEST Student) Reg.No-

50060189 AND MUCH MORE



State First Rank (Sub Registrar) Mr. SHEIK MOHIDEEN BE Reg.No-

01059208

State Women's First Rank (Municipal Commissioner) Mrs.

MAHESWARI Reg.No-03210034 AND MUCH MORE.

GROUP-1 New Batch at CHENNAI&MADURAI

GROUP- 1 PRELIMS EXAM DATE – DEC. 30th

At MADURAI Sat&Sunday (10AM-5PMfrom Nov.24th

.

165 North Veli Street, Simmakkal, MADURAI - 1.

(Opp and Near District Central Library)

At CHENNAI

1) Sat & Sundays (10AM-5PM) Batch from Nov.24th

.

2) Evening (6:30PM-8:30PM) from Nov.19th

.

All Classes also LIVE-ONLINE.

IAS-2013 INTENSIVE COACHING

At CHENNAI Week-End Classes Sat & Sundays 10AM-

5PM from Nov.24th

(Saturday).

Attend First FREE Class on Nov.24th

.

Also LIVE-ONLINE. For further For further For further For further Details

http://radiannews.pbworks.com

IBPS-CLERK Batch at MADURAI

At MADURAI 6PM-8PM Week Days (Ph-98404-33955).

TN Co-operative Union Assistant Exam

At CHENNAI & MADURAI Coaching 6:30PM-8:30PM

Daily (Mon to Sun) from Nov.19th

(Mon).

RE-EXAM TNPSC GROUP-2 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 4th November 2012

TNPSC – 2012 CSSE-I & II , GROUP-4 , VAO EXAMS QUESTIONS SPLIT - UP





State First Rank Mr. PARTHEEBAN J (Our MAINS

Student) Reg.No-02204009





State 2nd Rank Mr. ARUN SATHYA B (Our TEST Student) -

Reg.No-50086008



State 5th Rank Mr.PALANIKUMAR (Our TEST

Student) Reg.No-50060189 AND MUCH MORE



State First Rank (Sub Registrar) Mr. SHEIK MOHIDEEN

BE Reg.No-01059208




At MADURAI Sat&Sundays(10AM-5PM) from Nov.24th



At CHENNAI

1) Sundays (10AM-6PM) Batch from Nov.24th

.


.




5PM from Nov.24th

(Saturday).


. Then after notification depending on Exam date classes may be on Sat too.




At MADURAI 6PM-8PM week Days.


At CHENNAI Coaching 6:30PM-8:30PM Daily (Mon to

Sun) from Nov.19th

(Mon).

1) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. a) New India 1. Lala Lajpat Rai b) The People’s Friend 2. Bipin Chandra Pal c) Bante Mataram 3. Dadabhai Naoroji d) Rast Goftar 4. A.O. Hume

a b c d A) 2 4 1 3 B) 3 1 4 2 C) 4 3 2 1 D) 2 1 3 4

On August 12, 1901, Bipin Chandra Pal started an English Weekly called "New India". In his early service as a District Officer in the Indian Civil Service, A.O.Hume began introducing free primary education and creating a local vernacular newspaper, Lokmitra (The People's Friend). Lala Lajpath Rai started an Urdu daily- “Vande Mataram” from Lahore which boasted huge circulation of about 5000 copies. In 1854, Dadabhai Naoroji also founded a fortnightly publication, the Rast Goftar (or The Truth Teller), to clarify Zoroastrian concepts.

2) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I List II a) Resignation of 1. Singapore

Congress Ministries b) Sir Stafford Cripps 2. 8 August, 1942 c) Quit India Resolution 3. Member of Labour Party d) Azad Hind Fauj 4. 1939 a b c d A) 4 3 1 2 B) 2 1 4 3 C) 4 3 2 1 D) 4 1 2 3

The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow's action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people. The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II. The mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, a senior left-wing politician and government minister in the War Cabinet of Prime Minister Winston Churchill. The mission proved a failure. On July 14, 1942, the Indian National Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence from Britain and massive civil disobedience. On August 8, 1942, the Quit India Resolution was passed at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee. The British, already alarmed by the advance of the Japanese army to the India/Burma border, responded the next day by imprisoning Gandhi at the Aga Khan Palace in Pune. All the members of the Congress Party's National Leadership were arrested and imprisoned at the Ahmednagar Fort. Indian National Army (INA) known as Azad Hind Fauj was established on 21 October 1943 Singapore.

3) Consider the following pairs: I. Willy-Willies - Australia



II. Typhoons - China III. Hurricane - Japan Which of the pair given above is/are correct? A) Ionly B) I and II C) II and III D) II only

Hurricanes near Australia and in the Indian Ocean are called tropical cyclones. Sometimes people of Australia call them Willy-Willies.

A typhoon (China, Japan) is a mature tropical cyclone that develops in the northwestern part of the Pacific Ocean between 180° and 100°E. This region is referred to as the northwest Pacific basin

Hurricane (the Caribbean Sea, North America): A tropical cyclone is a storm system characterized by a low-pressure center surrounded by a spiral arrangement of thunderstorms that produce strong winds and heavy rain and snow. These steer tropical waves westward from the African coast and towards the Caribbean Sea, North America, and ultimately into the central Pacific ocean before the waves dampen out.

4) Match the Geological Era with their periods a) Precambrian 1. Jurassic

b) Cenozoic 2. Archaen c) Mesozoic 3. Silurian d) Palaeozoic 4. Eocene

a b c d A) 2 4 1 3 B) 3 2 4 1 C) 4 1 3 2 D) 1 3 2 4

The Precambrian covers almost 90% of the entire history of the Earth. It has been divided into three eras: the Hadean, the Archean and the Proterozoic.

The Cenozoic Era. An illustrated geological time line for the Cenozoic era, which includes the Palaeocene, Eocene, Oligocene, Miocene.



The Palaeozoic Era. An illustrated geological time line for the Palaeozoic era, which includes the Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian

5) Match the following : a) Doctor wind 1. Switzerland b) Cherry blossom 2. Sahara of Africa c) Blood rain 3. South Italy d) Foehn 4. Karnataka ( India)

a b c d A) 1 3 2 4 B) 2 4 3 1 C) 3 2 4 1 D) 4 1 3 2

The Harmattan is a dry and dusty West African trade wind. It blows south from the Sahara into the Gulf of Guinea.

'Cherry Blossoms' are there in Karnataka, beneficial to coffee plantation and 'Mango showers' in elsewhere South India, which are beneficial to mango.

The dust raised from the Sahara and carried northward by the sirocco often falls over the countries north of the Mediterranean as " blood rain".

Foehn. This warm wind blows off the mountain ranges of southern Germany, Austria, and Switzerland



6) Consider the following statements: Assertion (A) : 41percent of the moon surface is never seen from the earth. Reason (R) : The moon rotates and revolves in the same direction as does the earth

A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

C) (A) is true but (R) is false D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Everything turns the same way. Viewed from above the north pole, the Earth spins counterclockwise. The Earth travels around the Sun counterclockwise. The Moon travels around the Earth counterclockwise and, relative to a fixed point, the Moon spins counterclockwise on its axis. The Moon, not by coincidence, spins only once as it travels around the Earth. The Moon is tidally locked to the Earth, meaning the same side always faces us. All the major moons in the solar system are tidally locked to their planets as well. Tidal friction slowly robs energy from the rotation until the tidal locked condition is reached. In the very distant future, the Earth will be tidally locked to the Moon. The days on Earth will be very long, tides will cease and total solar eclipses will no longer exist. It would seem logical to say that at any one time we can see 50% of the Moon's face. If the Moon were flat, that would be correct, however we know the Moon is a sphere. And the spherical shape of the Moon hides the area close to the perimeter and we can, at any one time, see only 41% of the Moon's face.

We all know that the Earth rotates on its own

axis, so theoretically, the Moon should also do

the same, allowing us to get a full picture of the planetoid. Why are we limited to seeing

only 50 percent?

It turns out that the speed at which the

Moon rotates has led to this particular

phenomenon.

So here not mentioned about the Speed,

therefore the answer is ‘B’ not ‘A’.

7) Fujita scale refers to A) The scale to assess the severity of flood B) The scale to assess the earthquake severity C) The scale to assess the relative severity and

damage of tornado D) the scale to assess the cyclonic severity

The Fujita scale (F-Scale), or Fujita-Pearson scale, is a scale for rating tornado intensity, based primarily on the damage tornadoes inflict on human-built structures and vegetation.



8) If the GDP is measured at the price prevailing at a point of time, then it is called A) GDP current price B) GDP market price C) GDP constant price D) (A) + (B) + (C)

Gross domestic product (GDP) at current prices is GDP at prices of the current reporting period. Also known as nominal GDP. Current price GDP measures value-added production in today's prices.

9) The product method of measuring GDP involves A) Incomes generated from the production of goods

and services B) Adding up the value of everything produced in

the country during the year C) Adding up all expenditures on final output D) None of the above

The output approach or Production method: The output approach focuses on finding the total output of a nation by directly finding the total value of all goods and services a nation produces. Because of the complication of the multiple stages in the production of a good or service, only the final value of a good or service is included in total output. This avoids an issue often called 'double counting', wherein the total value of a good is included several times in national output, by counting it repeatedly in several stages of production. In the example of meat production, the value of the good from the farm may be $10, then $30 from the butchers, and then $60 from the supermarket. The value that should be included in final national output should be $60, not the sum of all those numbers, $100. The values added at each stage of production over the previous stage are respectively $10, $20, and $30. Their sum gives an alternative way of calculating the value of final output. Formula: GDP(gross domestic product) at market price = value of output in an economy in a particular year - intermediate consumption NNP at factor cost = GDP at market price - depreciation + NFIA (net factor income from abroad) - net indirect taxes



10) A higher interest rate might induce households to --------but businesses to ---------------- A) Save more, borrow less B) Save less, borrow more C) Save more, borrow more D) Save less, borrow less

Real interest rates influence the level of household consumption in a country. Consumption of durable goods is interest sensitive, since households will sometimes finance the purchase of "big ticket items" such as automobiles, household appliances, computers, televisions, and other goods through borrowing. Households will respond to higher real interest rates by decreasing their consumption of these non-essential items since it becomes more costly to borrow when interest rates rise.

11) Match the following Write Feature

a) Habeas Corpus 1. not available against administrative b) Prohibition 2.cannot be applied against ministerial office c) Certriorarii 3. May be applied by a stranger or a social worker who need

not be an affected person d) Quo-warranto 4. Not available against legislative bodies and private

individuals

a b c d A) 3 1 4 2 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 2 3 4 1 D) 3 4 2 1

Habeas corpus (Latin: "you have the body") is a writ (legal action) which requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. This ensures that a prisoner can be released from unlawful detention, in other words, detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence. The remedy can be sought by the prisoner or by another person coming to the prisoner's aid. The legal right to apply for a habeas corpus is also called by the same name.



The Indian judiciary, in a catena of cases has effectively resorted to the writ of habeas corpus to secure release of a person from illegal detention. The Indian judiciary has dispensed with the traditional doctrine of locus standi, so that if a detained person is not in a position to file a petition, it can be moved on his behalf by any other person. The scope of habeas relief has expanded in recent times by actions of the Indian judiciary. The habeas writ was used in the Rajan case. It was also filed by Panthers Party to protest the imprisonment of Anna Hazare, a social activist. A writ of prohibition is issued primarily to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction in cases pending before it or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice. It is issued by a superior court to inferior courts from usurping a jurisdiction with which it was not legally vested, or in other words to compel inferior courts to keep within the limits of their jurisdiction. Thus the writ is issued in both cases where there is excess of jurisdiction and where there is absence of jurisdiction (S. Govind Menon vs. union of India, AIR 1967 SC 1274).

12) Consider the following statements: In the words of Dr.B.R. Ambedkar, Directive principles of state policy are “ Novel feature” of the Indian Constitution because: I. The se principles are in the nature of general

direction or guidance to the state. II. They embody the principles or objectives and ideals

which and state governments must bear in mind while formulating policy and making laws

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II

The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. These provisions, contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making its the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country. The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland and also by the principles of Gandhism; and relate to social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters. Directive Principles are classified under the following categories: Gandhian, economic and socialistic, political and administrative, justice and legal, environmental, protection of monuments and peace and security.

13) The constitution 52nd

Amendment Act of 1985 was enacted for what purpose Choose your answer from the following responses. A) To enhance the salaries of Supreme Court and

High Court judges B) Mizoram was elevated to a ‘state’ from union

territory C) For outlawing defection D) Creation of National Commission for scheduled

tribes The Tenth Schedule — popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act — was included in the Constitution in 1985 by

the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party. The law was added via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, soon after the Rajiv government came to power with a thumping majority in the wake of the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The Congress had won 401 seats in the Lok Sabha.

14) Match the following : A) Dispute between Union and State Government 1.Judicial review B) Declaring a law unconstitutional 2.Original jurisdiction

C) Appeal from High Court 3. High Court D) Single integrated judiciary 4. Supreme Court

a b c d A) 2 1 4 3 B) 1 4 2 3 C) 3 4 2 1 D) 1 2 3 4 The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction, appellate jurisdiction and advisory jurisdiction. Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute between the Government of India and one or more states, or between the Government of India and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other, or between two or more states, if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Judicial review is adopted in the Constitution of India from the Constitution of the United States of America. In the Indian constitution, Judicial review is dealt with under Article 13. Judicial Review refers that the Constitution is the supreme power of the nation and all laws are under its supremacy. Article 13 states that: All pre-constitutional laws, if in part or completely in conflict with the Constitution, shall have all conflicting provisions deemed ineffective until an amendment to the Constitution ends the conflict. In such situation the provision of that law will again come into force, if it is compatible with the constitution as amended. This is called the Doctrine of Eclipse. In a similar manner, laws made after adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly must be compatible with the constitution, otherwise the laws and amendments will be deemed to be void ab initio. In such situations, the Supreme Court or High Court interprets the laws to decide if they are in conformity with the Constitution. If such an interpretation is not possible because of inconsistency, and where a separation is possible, the provision that is inconsistent with constitution is considered to be void. In addition to article 13, articles 32, 226 and 227 provide a constitutional basis to judicial review in India.

15) Under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as ‘ The Frontier Gandhi’ the Pathans organised the society of Khudai Khidmutgar (or servants of god), known popularly as------------ A)White shirts B) Red army C) Red shirts D) White army



In time, Ghaffar Khan's goal came to be the formulation of a united, independent, secular India. To achieve this end, he founded the Khudai Khidmatgar ("Servants of God"), commonly known as the "Red Shirts" (Surkh Posh), during the 1920s. The Khudai Khidmatgar was founded on a belief in the power of Gandhi's notion of Satyagraha, a form of active non-violence as captured in an oath. He told its members: "I am going to give you such a weapon that the police and the army will not be able to stand against it. It is the weapon of the Prophet, but you are not aware of it. That weapon is patience and righteousness. No power on earth can stand against it."

16) Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List I List II a) Kalidasa 1. Ashtanga Sangrata b) Vishnu Sarma 2. Surya Siddhanta c) Aryabhatta 3. Panchatantra d) Vaghbhatta 4. Sakuntalam

a b c d A) 4 3 2 1 B) 3 4 1 2 C) 1 2 3 4

D) 2 1 4 3 First text of Sanskrit grammer is Ashtadhyayi (500BC) by Panini. There are 8 chapters and 400 sutras in it. In 200 BC Patanjali wrote the Mahabhashya on the grammar of Panini. In 700 AD Kashika was written by jayaditya and Vaman on Ashtadhyayi. 2. Pachtantra is the earliest story collection. It is compiled by Vishnu Sharma. This book is of Gupta period. 3. Hitopadesh is second famous collection of Indian stories. Its writer is Narayan 4. Abhijanashkuntalam is the best text of Kalidas. It contains the description of king Dushyant of (Hastinapur) 5. Two famous plays of Vishkhadutta are Mudrarakshasa and Devichandraguptam In Mudarakshas there is a description of Chandragupta Maurya and in Devichandraguptam description of Gupta ruler Ramgupta. 6. Mrichchhkatika is written by Shudrak. This is a social play. It contains the love storey of Brahman charudata and the famous courtesan of Ujjayani, Vasantsena.

17) In which Edict did Ashoka declare his faith in Buddha, Dharma and Sanga? A) Maski Minor Rock Edict B) Rumminedi Minor Pillar Edict C) Sarnath Pillar Edict D) Bhabra Minor Rock Edict

18) Why Lord Canning was called as Clemency Canning? A) He loved Indians and gave them high posts B) He issued general pardon to the mutineers C) He reduced land tax D) He was appointed as the First Viceroy under British

Crown The Governor-General Charles Canning issued a declaration that any mutineer who had not committed murder could be spared execution. Canning earned the name Clemency Canning after the Times of London said



of his statement "There is so much heart in the document - indeed it is all heart, for we cannot say we find anything else in it. We presume it must be called the Clemency of Canning".

19) Find out from the following pairs of Sangam Tamil Literature, the one which comes under the category of Ettuthogai. A) Narrinai and Naladiyar B) Silappadikaram, Manimekalai C) Kurinchippattu and Mullaippattu D) Agananuru and Purananuru

Ettutokai consist of 2,371 poems varying from small stanzas of three lines in Ainkurnuru to stanzas of forty lines in Purananuru. The following poems form the Eight Anthologies:

Ainkurnuru(ஐ�� )

Akananuru (அகநா� )

Purananuru (�றநா� )

Kaliththokai (கலி�ெதாைக)

Kuruntokai (� �ெதாைக)

Natrinai (ந�றிைண)

Paripaatal (ப பாட")

Pathirruppaththu(பதி� #ப�$)

The following Tamil poetry by an anonymous author lists the component parts of this Anthology:

ந�றிைண ந"ல � �ெதாைக ஐ��

ஒ�த பதி� #ப�$ ஓ�� ப பாட"

க�றறி�தா' ஏ�$) கலிேயா, அக)�ற)

எ. இ�திற�த எ0,� ெதாைக.

20) Which of the following is correctly matched? I. Baridshahi Kingdom – Ahmednagar II. Imadshahi Kingdom - Berar III. Nizamshahi Kingdom – Bijapur IV. Adilshahi Kingdom - Bidar A) I B) II C) III D) IV

The other dynasties during the period of Bahmani dynasty or the contemporary dynasties of the Bahmani Dynasty were The Imad Shahi Dynasty of Berar, The Barid Dynasty of Bidar, The Nizam Shahi Dynasty of Ahmadnagar, The Adil Shahi Dynasty of Bijapur and the Qutab Shahi Dynasty of Golkonda. The Bahmani dynasty lasted for two centuries. During the reign of Mahmud Shah from 1482 to 1518 the provincial governors declared themselves as independent and set up five separate kingdoms.

21) Arrange the following division of the Vijayanagar Empire in descending order? I. Rajyams II. Kurrams III. Valanadus IV. Nadus A) I, III, IV, II B) I, II, IV, III C) II, III, IV, I D) I, III, II, IV

22) Point out the wrong statement in the following: Statements: A) Samudra Gupta defeated 12 kingdoms in the South B) Fahien’s travel account deals with the conditions of

the Gupta Empire C) Skanda Gupta was defeated by the Huns D) Kumara Gupta issued silver coins in Western India

Skandagupta (455 - 467 AD): Skandagupta is generally considered the last of the great rulers. He defeated the Pushyamitra threat, but then was faced with invading Hephthalites or "White Huns", known in India as Indo-Hephthalites or Hunas, from the northwest. He repulsed a Huna attack c. 455, since according to grammatical illustration of Chandra-gomin the Jarta defeated the Huns, which means Skanda Gupta defeated the Huns. But the expense of the wars drained the empire's resources and contributed to its decline. Skandagupta died in 467 and was succeeded by his son Narasimhagupta Baladitya.

Chandragupta II was succeeded by his son Kumaragupta, whose earliest known date is (Gupta era) 96 (=416 CE). His reign was peaceful, except at the very end when he faced rebellion in his western provinces, which his son Skandagupta was dispatched to suppress. Kumaragupta reigned c. 415-455. His gold coins are considered some of the finest examples of Indian numismatic art. He also issued a large silver coinage, some very rare coins in copper and also coins in lead.



23) Consider the following the statements: The aim of proportional representation is I. To eradicate the defects in the ordinary system of

election. II. To ensure the representation of all the people in the

legislature. III. To enable minority representation IV. To ensure the representation of every minority

group as well as majority in proportion to their electoral strength.

Select your answers using the coding scheme given below. A) I and II only B) I, II, and III only C) II, III and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV

24) Match List I with List II List I List II a) Shiksha 1. Metrics b) Kalpa 2. Grammar c) Vyakarna 3. Phonetics d) Nidhi 4. Astronomy e) Chandas 5. Rituals f) Jyotisha 6. Chronology Select the answer from the codes given below: A b c d e f A) 1 3 2 5 4 6 B) 2 1 3 6 5 4 C) 5 3 2 1 6 4 D) 3 5 2 6 1 4

The Vedanga ( vedāṅga, "limbs of the Veda") are six auxiliary disciplines traditionally associated with the study and understanding of the Vedas. Shiksha (śikṣā): phonetics, phonology and morphophonology (sandhi) Kalpa (kalpa): ritual Vyakarana (vyākaraṇa): grammar Nirukta (nirukta): etymology Chandas (chandas): meter Jyotisha (jyotiṣa): astronomy

25) Which among the following Thirthankaras completed the concept of ‘ Panchama Dharma’ by adding “Brahmacharya” as the fifth doctrine? A) Rishaba B) Arishtanemi C) Parsva D) Mahavira

Mahavira's philosophy has eight cardinal principals – three metaphysical and five ethical. The objective is to elevate the quality of life. Nonviolence (Ahimsa) – to cause no harm to any living being; Truthfulness (Satya) – to speak the harmless truth only; Non-stealing (Asteya) – to take nothing not properly given; Chastity (Bramacharya) – to indulge in no sensual pleasure; Non-possession/Non-attachment (Aparigraha) – to detach completely from people, places, and material things. Mahavira added Chastity (Bramacharya) – to indulge in no sensual pleasure.

26) Which is wrongly matched? A) Zinc – Enzymes B) Iron – Hemoglobin C) Magnesium – Dry cell D) Beryllium – X-ray tubes

ALL ARE CORRECTLY MATCHED. Qn is

INCORRECT.

Magnesium dry cells patterned after the conventional Leclanché cell now appear to be worthy of acceptance in many applications.

An X-ray tube is a vacuum tube that produces X-rays. They are used in X-ray machines. X-rays are part of the electromagnetic spectrum, an ionizing radiation with wavelengths shorter than ultraviolet light. X-ray tubes evolved from experimental Crookes tubes with which X-rays were first discovered in the late 19th century, and the availability of this controllable source of X-rays created the field of radiography, the imaging of opaque objects with penetrating radiation. X-ray tubes are also used in CAT scanners, airport luggage scanners, X-ray crystallography, and for industrial inspection.

27) Consider the following : I. CO burns with a blue flame II. CO is good reducing agent and reduces alkali metal

oxide III. CO is toxic because it forms a complex with

Haemoglobin in the blood and this complexes is 300 times more stable than oxy-haemoglobin

IV. CO form complex with Ni at 50 C and decomposition resulting complex gives pure Ni

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) All are correct B) II is not correct while I, III and IV are correct C) I, II and III only correct D) II, III and IV are correct



Carbon monoxide is produced from the partial oxidation of carbon-containing compounds; it forms when there is not enough oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (CO2), such as when operating a stove or an internal combustion engine in an enclosed space. In the presence of oxygen, carbon monoxide burns with a blue flame, producing carbon dioxide. Coal gas, which was widely used before the 1960s for domestic lighting, cooking, and heating, had carbon monoxide as a significant constituent. Some processes in modern technology, such as iron smelting, still produce carbon monoxide as a byproduct. Direct reaction of metal with carbon monoxide Nickel tetracarbonyl and iron pentacarbonyl can be prepared according to the following equations by reaction of finely divided metal with carbon monoxide:

Ni + 4 CO → Ni(CO)4 (1 bar, 55 °C)

Fe + 5 CO → Fe(CO)5 (100 bar, 175 °C) Nickel carbonyl is formed with carbon monoxide already at 80 °C and atmospheric pressure, finely divided iron reacts at temperatures between 150 and 200 °C and a carbon monoxide pressure of 50 to 200 bar. Other metal carbonyls are prepared by less direct methods.

28) Match the following is correct answer? a) Manikodi 1. G.Subramani Iyyar b) Eluthu 2. Thiru Vi.Ka. c) Sudesamitiran 3. P.S. Ramaiha d) Nava Sakthi 4. C.Su. Cellappa

a b c d A) 1 2 3 4 B) 4 1 2 3 C) 2 3 4 1 D) 3 4 1 2

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29) Find the odd man out: A) Thiruthonda Thokai B) Thiruthondar Thiruvanthathi C) Thiruthondar Puranam D) Thiruvilaiyatal Puranam

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வ:ைளயாட"கைள8 Y கி.ற �".

30) Item : Food Clothing Education House rent Others Expenditure: 300 75 40 75 110 When we represent the data on percentage diagram. the percentage of expenditure on clothing is A) 18.33% B) 6.66% C) 12.5% D) 50%

(75/600)x100=12.5%

31) If BHASHA is coded as 154754, BRAIN is coded as 13408, AHINSA will be coded as A) 458074 B) 405847 C) 450847 D) 450874

Solution: B=1, H=5, A=4, S=7, H=5, A=4, R=3, I=0, N=8

32) The sum of odd numbers from 1 to 31 is A) 496 B) 256 C) 240 D) 288

Solution : 31 = 2n-1 => n=16 ; 256

33) Consider the following statements: I. Kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency disease II. Kwashiorkor is an iron deficiency disease III. Kwashiorkor is a nutritional deficiency disease Now select the correct answer. A) I and II are correct B) II and III are corrnect C) I and III are correct D) All three are correct

Kwashiorkor is a form of malnutrition that occurs when there is not enough protein in the diet. Symptoms: Changes in skin pigment; Decreased muscle mass; Diarrhea; Failure to gain weight and grow; Fatigue; Hair changes.



34) The younger leaves of a tomato in your garden shows interveinal chlorosis. Select what supplement you will give? A) Sulphur B) Iron C) Copper D) Molybdenum

ss

Iron deficiency leads to a pattern of yellowing called interveinal chlorosis - a yellowing of the tissue between the veins.

35) In the digestion of carbohydrates, the following sugars are converted to their simpler forms I. Starch --- Maltose + Isomaltose II. Maltose --- Glucose III. Lactose --- Maltose IV. Sucrose --- Glucose + Fructose Which one is/are correct? A) I alone B) II and III C) II, III, and IV D) I, II and IV

36) Match List I with List II and select your answer using the codes given below:

List I List II a) Smallest flower 1. Dischidia rafflesia b) Biggest flower 2. Canna c) Irregular flower 3. Phyllanthus d) Monochlamydous flower 4. Wolfia

a b c d A) 2 1 3 4 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 3 4 1 2 D) 4 1 2 3



Canna is a genus of nineteen species of flowering plants. The closest living relations to cannas are the other plant families of the order Zingiberales, that is the Zingiberaceae, Musaceae, Marantaceae, Heliconiaceae, Strelitziaceae, etc.

Rafflesia arnoldii is a member of the genus Rafflesia. It is noted for producing the largest individual flower on earth, and a strong odor of decaying flesh - the latter point earning it the nickname of "carrion flower"

Wolffia is a genus of 9 to 11 species which include the smallest flowering plants on Earth.

Axillary solitary flowers are observed in Phyllanthus. Flowers hypogynous, actinomorphic, unisexual, pistillode or staminode absent or present; perianth mostly inconspicuous and usually monochlamydeous.

37) A is the assertion and R is the reason. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer using the codes given below: A: We are able to hear the sound behind the walls or obstacles R: When the wavelength of a wave is comparable or less than that of an obstacle, diffraction happens. A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the

correct explanation of A B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the

correct explanation of A C) A is true; but R is false D) A is false; but R is true



Diffraction of Sound: The bending of waves around small obstacles and the spreading out of waves beyond small openings.

38) A railway engine, which is moving towards the platform with a speed of 20 km/hr, blows a whistle of frequency 320 Hz. The apparent frequency of sound heard by a stationary person on the platform will be A) greater than 320 Hz B) equal to 320 Hz C) zero D) less than 320 Hz

39) The source of solar energy is A) fission B) radiation C) fusion D) conduction

40) Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Insulin lowers the blood glucose concentration Reason (R) : Lowered blood glucose concentration stimulates secretion of glucagon Now select your answer according to the coding scheme given below: A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A)

B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C) (A) is true, but (R) is false D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Insulin is a peptide hormone, produced by beta cells of the pancreas, and is central to regulating carbohydrate and fat metabolism in the body. Glucagon, a peptide hormone secreted by the pancreas, raises blood glucose levels. Its effect is opposite that of insulin, which lowers blood glucose levels.

41) The best known example of waggle dance was exhibited by Honey bees which was first observed by

A) Girolami and Bielert 1987 B) Dixon 1998 C) Eugave Marais in 1920 D) Karl Von Frisch in 1940 Karl Ritter von Frisch ForMemRS (20 November 1886 – 12 June 1982) was an Austrian ethologist who received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1973, along with Nikolaas Tinbergen and Konrad Lorenz. His work centered on investigations of the sensory perceptions of the honey bee and he was one of the first to translate the meaning of the waggle dance. His theory was disputed by other scientists and greeted with skepticism at the time. Only recently was it definitively proved to be an accurate theoretical analysis.

42) Fill in the blank:--------------------- Bacteria differ from viruses in being sensitive to--------

A) Sugars B) Proteins C)Tetracycline D) Fats and oils

Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum antibiotics active against both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. Generally gram-positive species are inhibited by lower tetracycline concentrations than gram-negatives. The group spectrum of activity also includes some anaerobic bacteria, Rickettsiae, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, spirochaetes (e.g. Treponema and Borrelia) and also some protozoa. They lack activity against fungi and viruses. Secondary fungal infections are often common following tetracycline therapy as a result of the destruction of the ‘normal’ protective microbial flora.



Bacteriostatic antibiotics limit the growth of bacteria by interfering with bacterial protein production, DNA replication, or other aspects of bacterial cellular metabolism. They must work together with the immune system to remove the microorganisms from the body. This group includes

1. Tetracyclines 2. sulfonamides 3. Spectinomycin 4. Trimethoprim 5. Chloramphenicol 6. Macrolides 7. Lincosamides

43) The state of matter in their increasing order of entropy is A) Solids, Liquids, Gases, BECs B) Liquids, Gases, BECs, Solids C) Gases, Liquids, Solids, BECs D) BECs, Solids, Liquids, Gases

To put it very simply, entropy is a measure of the disorder of a system. A Bose–Einstein condensate (BEC) is a state of matter of a dilute gas of weakly interacting bosons confined in an external potential and cooled to temperatures very near to absolute zero. Under such conditions, a large fraction of the bosons occupy the lowest quantum state of the external potential, at which point quantum effects become apparent on a macroscopic scale. Absolute zero is the theoretical lowest possible temperature. More formally, it is the theoretical temperature at which entropy reaches its minimum value. For example, if you have a knotted ball of string, it's very disordered. If you have rows of string neatly stretched out (like strings on a guitar), the system is very ordered. Solid molecules are generally lattice structures, often in cube formations, so they are strongly ordered. In liquids, molecules are spaced apart a little bit farther, so they are more disordered. Gas molecules are flying all around with

lots of space between them, so they are the most disordered. Since entropy measures order, solids have the highest, then liquids, and gases have the lowest.

44) Black Sea is named so because A) It is black in colour B) of its rich concentration of micro algae C) its, water converts everything into black D) both (A) and (C)

The microalgae concentration in the water is very rich, causing the dark colour. Also the sediments (especially the deeper ones) are black.

45) Match the following : a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 1. Desh b) Mahatma Gandhi 2. The People’s friend c) Allan Octavian Hume 3. The Harijan d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4. Al Hilal

a b c d A) 1 2 3 4 B) 4 3 2 1 C) 2 4 1 3 D) 3 1 2 4



Important Newspaper/Journal Founder/Editor

Bengal Gazette(1780) (India’s first newspaper) J.K.Hikki

Kesari B.G.Tilak

Maharatta B.G.Tilak

Sudharak G.K.Gokhale

Vande Mataram Aurobindo Ghosh

Rast Goftar (First newspaper in Gujarati) Dadabhai Naoroji

New India (Weekly) Bipin Chandra Pal

Hindu Vir Raghavacharya and G.S.Aiyar

Som Prakash Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Bombay Chronicle Firoze Shah Mehta

Hindustan M.M.Malviya

Mooknayak B.R.Ambedkar

Comrade Mohammed Ali

Al-Hilal Abdul Kalam Azad

Al-Balagh Abdul Kalam Azad

Independent Motilal Nehru

Punjabi Lala Lajpat Rai

New India (Daily) Annie Besant

Commonweal Annie Besant

Essays in Indian Economics M.G.Ranade

Samvad Kaumudi (Bengali) Ram Mohan Roy

Mirat-ul-Akhbar Ram Mohan Roy (first Persian newspaper)

Indian Mirror Devendra Nath Tagore

Nav Jeevan M.K.Gandhi

Young India M.K.Gandhi

Harijan M.K.Gandhi

Prabudha Bharat Swami Vivekananda

Udbodhana Swami Vivekananda

Indian Socialist Shyamji Krishna Verma

Free Hindustan (in Vancouver) Tarak Nath Das

Hindustan Times K.M.Pannikar

Kranti Mirajkar, Joglekar, Ghate

46) Which one of the following is a polar orbiting satellite? A) INSAT B) GSAT C) METSAT D) Resource sat

RESOURCESAT-1 (also known as IRS-P6) is an advanced remote sensing satellite built by Indian Space Research Organization. The tenth satellite of ISRO in IRS series, RESOURCESAT-1 is intended to not only continue the remote sensing data services provided by IRS-1C and IRS-1D, both of which have far outlived their designed mission lives, but also vastly enhance the data quality. The 1360 kg RESOURCESAT-1 was launched into an 817 km high polar sun synchronous orbit by the eighth flight of India's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C5).

47) Thermal power station are located in A) Tuticorin, Ramagundam, Rajghat B) Narora, Kaiga, Palghat C) Caddalore, Kota, Tarapur D) Salem, Pune, Narora



48) Match the following: a) Article 74 1. Council of Ministers b) Article 356 2. Amendment Procedure c) Article 370 3. Jammu and Kashmir d) Article 368 4. Emergency

a b c d

A) 1 4 3 2 B) 2 1 4 3 C) 3 2 1 4 D) 4 1 3 2

49) Reduction of ‘smoke and collection of fuel wood’ to check deforestation is promoted by A) Community and Institutional Bio-gas (CIB) B) Institutional Bio-gas Plants (IBP)

C) National Programme on Improved Chullas (NPIC)

D) National Project on Bio-gas Development (NPBD) The National Programme on Improved Chulha (NPIC) in India was a unique programme aimed at popularising the use of improved cooking devices in rural areas. India's heavy dependence on wood and biomass as domestic fuel is expected to continue even in the present century. However, from April 2002, the Ministry of Non-conventional Energy Sources has discontinued its funding support to NPIC. After its inception in 1984, NPIC underwent several changes in both policy and implementation. The present paper attempts to make a critical appraisal of the programme. NPIC concentrated mainly on development of a variety of efficient stove models, and their promotion and



popularisation. The programme revealed the intricacies involved in the apparently simple issue of use of biomass as a household fuel. Two of the important issues that came up in the course of the programme were: (1) the impact of wood and biomass fuels on the health of the rural women and children; and (2) the use of the commercialisation approach as against the subsidy and welfare approach.

50) Which city is famous for ‘Kumbh Mela’? A) Ujjain B) Thrissur C) Hardwar D) Uttarkhashi

In Ujjain also Kumbh Mela will be held once in every 12 years. But in our question city famous for Kumbh Mela, so the answer can be Hardwar city.

Kumbh Mela is a mass Hindu pilgrimage in which Hindus gather at the Ganges and river Godavari, where bathing for purification from sin is considered especially efficacious. The Ardh (half) Kumbh Mela is celebrated every six years at Haridwar and Allahabad, the Purna (complete) Kumbh takes place every twelve years, at four places Allahabad, Haridwar, Ujjain, and Nashik. The Maha (great) Kumbh Mela which comes after 12 'Purna Kumbh Melas', or 144 years, is held at Allahabad.

51) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List I List II a) Direct Action Day 1. 20 February, 1947 b) Interim Government 2. 3 June, 1947 c) Mountbatten Plan 3. 16 August, 1946 d) Attlee’s statement 4. 2 September, 1946

a b c d A) 3 4 2 1 B) 3 1 2 4 C) 3 4 1 2 D) 4 3 2 1

Direct Action Day (16 August 1946), also known as the Great Calcutta Killings, was a day of widespread riot and manslaughter in the city of Calcutta (now known as Kolkata) in the Bengal province of British India. The day also marked the start of what is known as The Week of the Long Knives. The Muslim League and the Indian National Congress were the two largest political parties in the Constituent Assembly of India in the 1940s. The 1946 Cabinet Mission to India for planning of the transfer of power from the British Raj to the Indian leadership proposed an initial plan of composition of the new Dominion of India and its government. However, soon an alternative plan to divide the British Raj into a Hindu-majority India and a Muslim-majority Pakistan was proposed by the Muslim League. The Congress rejected the alternative proposal outright. Muslim League planned general strike (hartal) on 16 August terming it as Direct Action Day to protest this rejection, and to assert its demand for a separate Muslim homeland.

Mountbatten's first proposed solution for the Indian subcontinent, known as the 'May Plan', was rejected by Congress leader Jawaharlal Nehru on the grounds it would cause the 'balkanisation of India'. The following month the 'May Plan' was substituted for the 'June Plan', in which provinces would have to choose between India and Pakistan. Bengal and Punjab both voted for partition. On 3 June 1947, Lord Mountbatten announced his plan.



On 20 February, 1947 Clement Atlee proclaimed “Decolonization in India”.

52) The Ministry headed by Rajaji in 1937 consisted of the following ministers (Identify the correct one) A) T.Prakasam, V.V.Giri, A.T.pannirselvam,

T.S.S.Rajan B) V.V.Giri, T.Prakasam, T.T.Krishnamachari,

T.S.S.Rajan C) T.T.Krishnamachari, T.Prakasam,

A.T.pannirselvam, S.Ramanathan D) T.Prakasam, V.V.Giri, T.S.S.Rajan,

S.Ramanathan

Madras Presidency legislative assembly election, 1937 Rajagopalachari's Cabinet Council of Ministers in Rajagopalachari's Cabinet (15 July 1937 - 29 October 1939)

Minister Portfolio

C. Rajagopalachari Chief Minister, Public and Finance

T. Prakasam Revenue

P. Subbarayan Law and Education

V. V. Giri Labour and Industries

Bezawada Gopala Reddy Local Administration

T. S. S. Rajan

Public Health and Religious Endowments

Maulana Yakub Hasan Sait Public Works

V. I. Munuswamy Pillai

Agriculture and Rural Development

S. Ramanathan Pillai Public Information and Administration Reports

Kongattil Raman Menon Courts and Prisons

53) The congress passed the ‘Quit India’ Resolution on 8 August, 1942 for the following reason: I. Failure of the Cripps Mission II. Japanese forces moved towards India III. Sympathy with Japan IV. To compel the British to accept the demand of

Indians for independence V. To support the Soviet Union. A) I, II, and IV are correct B) I, II, III, and IV are correct C) I, II, III, and V are correct D) I, II, IV, and V are correct

54) The soil zone is considered to be great biological factory because A) a great varieties of organic compounds are

generated in the soil layers B) necessary nutrients are made available to plants

from the soil layers C) soil layer holds water in storage which is used by

plants and animals D) all of the above

55) Name the neighbour galaxy of our own Milky Way galaxy. A) Antlia B) Aquila C) Andromeda D) Auriga

56) Every year, May 22 is celebrated as an A) International Day of Biological Diversity B) International Day of Tree Plantation C) International Day of Environment Conservation D) International Day of Conservation of Natural

Resources

57) Consider the given Fig. of ocean currents around North America. Match List I with List II and select the correct using the code given below lists.

List I List II Current Number Current Name a) I 1. Alaska b) II 2. Gulf stream c) III 3. California d) IV 4. Labrador

a b c d

A) 3 4 2 1 B) 2 1 3 4 C) 4 2 3 1 D) 1 3 4 2



58) Which of the following pair is correctly matched? Choose the correct answer using code given below.

I. Bharat Nirman : Shelter and basic service needs of poor II.Rajiv Awas Yojana : Support for shelter, Redevelopment and recreation of housing stock III.Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission : Building infrastructure and basic amenities

A) I only B) II only C) II and III only D) I and II only Bharat Nirman is an Indian plan for creating basic rural INFRASTRUCTURE ONLY. It comprises projects on irrigation, roads (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana), housing (Indira Awaas Yojana), water supply, electrification (Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana) and telecommunication connectivity. Rajiv Awas Yojana (RAY) for the slum dwellers and the urban poor. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JnNURM) is a massive city-modernisation scheme launched by the Government of India under Ministry of Urban Development. It envisages a total investment of over $20 billion over seven years. Named after Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, the scheme was officially inaugurated by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh on 3 December 2005 as a programme meant to improve the quality of life and infrastructure in the cities.

59) An developing economy has the following features. A) Low per capita income, chronic unemployment

occupational pattern B) Population pressure C) Only (A) D) (A) + (B)

60) Match the following: a) Manchester of South India 1. Sivakasi b) Little Japan 2. Chennai c) Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu 3. Coimbatore d) Detroit of South Asia 4. Karur

a b c d A) 3 1 4 2 B) 3 1 2 4 C) 1 3 4 2 D) 2 1 3 4

61) Deflation refers to a condition of ----------- prices. A) falling B) rising C) constant D) moderate

In economics, deflation is a decrease in the general price level of goods and services.

62) Which position was held by all the following personalities? 1. Krishan Kant 2. Gopal Swarup pathak 3. Bairon Singh Shekhawat Choose the correct answer A) Deputy Prime Minister B) Chairman of UPSC B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha D) Chief Justice of

India

63) Which one of the following statement is correct? A) A person can enrol as a voter in more than

constituency B) A person can enrol as a voter in more than one part

of constituency C) Only fine is imposed for giving false particulars in

voter’s registration D) Both fine and imprisonment can be imposed for

giving false particulars in voter’s registration

64) Article 3 authorises the parliament to I. Form a new state II. Increase or diminish the area of any state III. Alter the boundaries of any state IV. Alter the name of any state Of these. A) I and II are correct B) II, III,and IV are correct B) I, II, and III are correct D) I, II, III,and IV are correct

Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States: Parliament may by law (a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; (b) increase the area of any State; (c) diminish the area of any State; (d) alter the boundaries of any State; (e) alter the name of any State; Provided that no Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President

65) Which one of the following power is NOT in the concurrent list? A) Marriage and divorce B) Newspapers C) Foregin policy D) Stamp duties



66) Which one of the following fundamental rights is applicable only to citizens and not to foreigners? A) Equality before law B) Right to elementary education C) Freedom to manage religious affairs D) Right of minorities to establish and administer

educational institutions

67) Which of the following provision came into force even before the commencement of the Constitution of India? A) Fundamental Rights B) Citizenship C) Directive Principles of State Policy D) Amendments to the Constitution

68) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: a) Gulbadan Begum 1. Padsha Namah b) Inayat Khan 2. Akbar Namah c) Abdul Hamid Lahori 3. Humayun Namah d) Abdul Fazl 4. Shahajahan Namah

a b c d A) 4 3 2 1 B) 3 4 1 2 C) 2 3 4 1 D) 3 1 4 2

Abdul Hamid Lahori was a traveller and historian during the period of Shah Jahan who later became a court historian of Shah Jahan. He wrote the book Padshahnama also referred as Badshahnama, about the reign of Shah Jahan.

69) Which of the following is/are wrong? I. The Indus people had the knowledge of surverying

and geometry II. Indus people had the knowledge of Astronomy III. Botancial aspects were very familiar to the Indus

people A) I B) I and II C) I, II and III are wrong D) III

Button seals included geometric designs. They used an early form of geometry to survey and reset prop- erty boundaries after the annual floods. The Indus people also appear to have had a detailed knowledge of astronomy: a star calendar charting the heavens was compiled in the 23rd century BC.

70) Which of the following Vedic Literature contains the fine specimens of Lyric poetry notably addressed to the Goddess of the Dawn (Usha)? A) Chandogya Upanishad B) Rig Veda Samhita C) Yayur Veda Samhita D) Atharva Veda Samhita

Usha, the dawn, is often invoked, and is the subject of some of the most beautiful hymns that are to be found in the lyrical poetry of any ancient nation. Beautous daughter of the sky! Hold they ruddy light on high, Grant us wealth and grant us day, Bring us food and morning's ray. White-robed goddess of the morning sky, Bring us light, let night's deep shadows fly.

"We gaze upon her as she comes The shining daughter of the sky The mighty darkness she uncovers, And light she makes, the pleasant one that we see."

This light, most radiant of lights, has come; this gracious one who illumines all things is born. As night is removed by the rising sun, so is this the birthplace of the dawn....We behold her, daughter of the sky, youthful, robed in white,



driving forth the darkness. Princess of limitless treasure, shine down upon us throughout the day." - Rig Veda I. 113.

71) Match the following Neolithic centres of paintings with their districts. a) The Son Valley 1. Raigarh b) Manikpur 2. Mirzapur c) Singanpur 3. Central Province d) Hoshangabad 4. Uttar Pradesh Select the answer from the codes given below:

a b c d A) 2 4 1 3 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 3 4 1 2 D) 4 3 2 1

The stone age cultures of the Upper Son Valley, Madhya Pradesh

72) The pH of a soft drink is 3 and that of milk is 7. How many times greater is the concentration of H3O+ in soft drink than in milk? A) 4 times B) 40 times C) 1,000 times D) 10,000

times

73) Nicotine upon oxidation with chromic acid gives A) Pyridine-3-carboxylic acid B) Pyridine-2-carboxylic acid C) Pyridine-4-carboxylic acid D) Pyridine-2,3-dicarboxylic acid

NICOTINE, C10H14N2, an alkaloid, found with small quantities of nicotimine, C 19 H 14 N 2, nicoteine, C10H12N2, and nicotelline, C 10 H 8 N 2, in tobacco. On oxidation with chromic or nitric acids, or potassium permanganate, it yields nicotinic acid or (3-pyridine carboxylic acid, C 5 H 4 N CO 2 H; alkaline potassium ferricyanide gives nicotyrine, C10H10N2, and hydrogen peroxide oxynicotine, C10H14N20.

74) Natural rubber is A) Polymer of ethylene B) Polymer of butadiene C) Polymer of acetylene D) Polymer of 2-methyl butadiene

Natural rubber is from the monomer isoprene (2-methyl-1,3-butadiene).

75) Which of the following compilation of Nalayira Divya Prabandam (4000 sacred Hymns) is correctly matched A) First thousand Hymns - Iyarpa B) Second thousand Hymns –Periya Thirumozhi C) Third thousand Hymns - Thiruvaimozhi D) Fourth thousand Hymns – Thirumozhi

Periya Thirumozhi - consisting of 1084 verses and counted as 2nd thousand.

76) Purath Thooimai Neeraan Amaiyum: Agath Thooimai— A) Thavaththaan Varum B) Vaaymaiyan Kaanappadum C) Thoonkat Kedum D) Oliyodu Ozhugappadum

77) Which of the following is called as ‘Thodar Nilaicheyyul”? A) Neethi Ilakkiyam B) Ettuthokai Noolkal C) Epic Literature D) Pillaithamizh Ilakkiyam



78) What is the value of X in Fig. II?

A) 4 B) 16 C) 32 D) 2

79) For a set 500 observation variance is found to be 125. If 25 is added to each observation and 55 is subtracted then the new variance is A) 95 B) 150 C) 180 D) 125

80) Two students A and B scored the same average marks in 10 tests and the standard deviation of marks are 2.5 and 3 respectively for A and B. If the consistency of performance is the criterion for awarding prize, then A) B should get the prize B) A should get the prize C) Both A and B should share the prize equally D) Prize winner cannot be decided. Since average

mark is not given

81) Find the remainder when 230

is divided by 5. (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4

82) A six digit number is formed by repeating a three digit number. Any number of this form is always divisible by (A) 1100 (B) 1011 (C) 1001 (D) 1010

83) The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard enables upto _____ devices to be connected to a personal computer. (A) 130 (B) 128 (C) 150 (D) 127

USB (Universal Serial Bus) is as its name suggests, based on serial type architecture enables 127 devices (2^7-1) can simultaneously connected with a computer.

84) SVGA supports (A) 1 million colors (B) 16 million colors (C) 20 million colors (D) 1 trilllion colors

SVGA supports 800 x 600 resolution, or 480,000 pixels. The SVGA standard supports a palette of 16 million colors.

85) Match the following List I and List II and select the correct answer. LIST I LIST II a) Cyano bacteria 1. Rhodospirillum b) Ammonifying bacteria 2. Thiobacillus c) Photosynthetic bacteria 3. Bacillus d) Denitrifying bacteria 4. Nostoc (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2

Nostoc is a genus of cyanobacteria found in a variety of environmental niches that forms colonies composed of filaments of moniliform cells in a gelatinous colonies.

Rhodospirillum rubrum, an anaerobic photosynthetic bacterium.



86) Identify the odd one from the group of materials given below: Glass, ebonite, copper, rubber (A) ebonite (B) copper (C) glass (D) rubber

87) Which of the following statement about “sound” is TRUE? I. It consists of longitudinal and transverse pressure waves II. It travels through vacuum III. Beats are produced due to interference of sound waves IV. Intensity of sound is measured in Hertz

(A) I and II (B) II only (C) III only (D) III and IV

Question is Wrong – Right Choice is I & III.

Generally, sound is classically defined as longitudinal waves in a medium. However, sound can also behave as a transverse wave in solids. 88) Ketone bodies appear in the urine due to diabetes

mellitus during (A) Ketosis (B) Albuminuria (C) Creatinuria (D) Myoglobinuria

Diabetic ketoacidosis is a dangerous complication of diabetes mellitus in which the chemical balance of the body becomes far too acidic. A dangerous condition called ketoacidosis can develop in those with type 1 diabetes, and it is sometimes confused with normal ketosis.

89) The GPS is a

(A) Satellite based system that can be used to locate position anywhere on earth (B) Satellite based system that can be used to identify the type of forests (C) System used for measuring earthquake’s

magnitude (D) System used for assessing population density

The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a space-based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather, anywhere on or near the Earth, where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites. It is maintained by the United States government and is freely accessible to anyone with a GPS receiver.



90) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), one of the major important educational programme is connected with the (A) Elementary Education (B) Higher Education (C) Vocational Education (D) Adult Education

91) Which of the following is correct regarding steel? (A) Iron with > 0.5% carbon (B) Iron with < 0.25% carbon (C) Iron with 0.25-2% carbon (D) Iron with 2- 4.5% carbon

Steel is an alloy made by combining iron and other elements, the most common of these being carbon. When carbon is used, its content in the steel is between 0.25% and 2.1% by weight, depending on the grade. Other alloying elements sometimes used are manganese, chromium, vanadium and tungsten.

92) Wimbledon 2012 Men’s Champion Roger Federer

belongs to which country? (A) United States of America (B) Spain (C) Switzerland (D) Germany

93) Match the list of provisions and articles which can be amended under Art. 368 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: Provisions Article a) Election of President 1. Art. 54 and 55 b) High Court for Union territories 2. Art. 21 c) Executive powers of union and states 3. Art. 73 and 162 d) Distribution of legislative powers 4. Art 245 to 255 between union and states (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 2 1 4 3

President Eligibility: Article 58 of the Constitution sets the principle qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the President. A President must be: A citizen of India Of 35 years of age or above Qualified to become a member of the Lok Sabha A person shall not be eligible for election as President if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments. Certain office-holders, however, are permitted to stand as Presidential candidates. These are: The current Vice President. The Governor of any State. A Minister of the Union or of any State (Including Prime Minister and Chief Ministers). In the event that the Vice President, a State Governor or a Minister is elected President, they are considered to have vacated their previous office on the date they begin serving as President. Under the Presidential and Vice Presidential act 1952, a candidate, to be nominated for the office of president needs 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders for his or her name to appear on ballot.



94) The smallest difference in radiance detected by the satellite sensor is called (A) Spectral resolution (B) Spatial resolution (C) Radiometric resolution (D) Temporal resolution

95) What is special about this group? “Mahan Maharaj, Samir, Brahmachari, Shiraz, Minwalla” (A) Recipient of Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award, 2011 (B) Scientists involved in the research of Higgs Boson (C) Scientists involved in space research (D) Recipient of Bharat Ratna 2011

These are the awardees among 11 scientists selected for Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award.

96) Mr. X wants to establish a broadband wireless net connection for his employers spread over a radius of 30 kms. The wireless standard he needs to impart to them is (A) Bluetooth connectivity (B) Infra-red connectivity (C) Wimax connectivity (D) Wifi connectivity

WiMAX and Wi-Fi are wireless technologies. “WiMAX”

stands for “Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access” and “Wi-Fi” stands for “Wireless Fidelity.” They are different from each other in many ways. In this article we will discuss WiMAX IEEE 802.16 and Wi-Fi 802.11. One of the main differences is the range in which they operate. WiMAX can be used for long ranges. It

provides broadband connectivity up to varied ranges, around 30 km. The service is provided from a central location, and the connectivity is inside or outside the service radius plus the people moving in cars, etc., just like a mobile phone. Wi-Fi, however, is used for providing connectivity to a smaller range, say, around 250m. It is used to provide connectivity to shorter ranges like within an office or home.

97) The title “Sardar” was given to Vallabhbhai Patel during the (A) Salt Satyagraha (B) Bardoli Satyagraha (C) Civil Disobedience movement

(D) Cabinet Mission arrival

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of Gujarat, India during the period of the British Raj, was a major episode of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. Its success gave rise to Vallabhbhai Patel as one of the greatest leaders of the independence struggle. Under the leadership of Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928, the Bardoli Kisan Satyagraha proved to be the best example of the practice of Gandhian principle of non-violence as well as a milestone of the way of India’s freedom movement. There is not another Satyagraha in my view that could be compared with it. During the course of struggle, a journalist of a then-government supported newspaper “The Times of India” wrote: “It is Bolshevism in Bardoli and Vallabhbhai is its Lenin.”

98) Who had sing songs on Nammalwar as God instead of Thirumal? (A) Mathurakavi Alwar (B) Thontaratippodi Alwar (C) Poikaialwa (D)Thiruppanazhwar



Swami Madhurakavi Alwar, the devout disciple of Swami Nammalwar.

99) Match the following: Quotations Authors a) Mathar thammai Izhivu ceyyum 1. Kavimani T. V. Pillai Matamaiayai Koluthuvom b) Kalvi yillatha pengal kalarnilam 2. Bharathiyar c) Mankayarai Pirappatharku-Nalla 3. Namakkal Kavinjar Mathavam Ceithida Vendum d) Thamilar endru Sollada - Thala 4. Bharathidasan nimirnthu Nillada

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 1 3 2 (B) 1 3 2 4 (C) 2 4 1 3 (D) 3 2 4 1

100) Match List I with List II. LIST I LIST II Thermal Power Projects States a) Dhuruvan 1. Gujarat b) Korba 2. Orissa c) Obra 3. Uttar Pradesh d) Talcher 4. Madhya Pradesh

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 2 4 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 1 4 3 2 (D) 1 3 4 2

Refer Question no. 47 for Thermal Power Plant – India



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