AME DGCA MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Multiple-choice questions:1. Which of the following statement is true?

Every Indian registered aircraft is required to possess a current & valid C of A.C of A is necessary even if the aircraft is flown in the vicinity of departing

aerodrome for the purpose of test for renewal of C of A.It is the responsibility of the manufacturer and DGCA to ensure that the aircraft

has a valid C of A.All above statements are true.

2. Mark the correct statement, regarding the responsibility of the operatorCarryout scheduled inspection as approved by DGCAEnsure pilot to operate the aircraft by virtue of his experienceAll defects encountered in flight need not to be reported to airworthiness

directorateAll of the above

3. CAR is issued under the provision of a) 133A of aircraft rule 1937 b) Section 5 (B) of aircraft act 1934 A and B are correct d) None of the above

4. The promulgation of CAR is to meetDuties and obligations of contracting stateHarmonization of requirements with FAA / JAA etcA and B are correct d) None of the above

5. Why is harmonization of CAR required with other airworthiness regulatory authorities like FAA/JAA?a) For easy exchange of products among various countries.b) For easy exchange of services among various countries.c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above

6. Whenever the revision takes place to the entire CAR seriesRevision sl.no and date shall appear on every page of the seriesRevision sl.no and date shall appear in the first page onlyCAR series originally issued dated will be changed to the revision effective dateNone of the above

7. Objectives and targets of airworthiness department is toa) Ensure design levels of reliabilityb) Ensure operating safety of civil aircraftsc) Promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards

d) All the above are correct

8. Which type of maintenance process is suitable for components not affecting the safety of Aircraft?a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition maintenancec) (a) and (b) are correct d) Condition monitoring

9. Which type of maintenance would you suggest for the servicing of fuel control unit?a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition c) Condition monitoring d) Any other special type of maintenance process which, is specially designed for FCU

10. Total no. of engine hours =No. of airframe hours x no. of aircraft in the fleetNo. of airframe hours x no. of engines installed on that type of aircraft.No. of engines in the fleet x total no. of aircraft of all types with the operator.None of these.

11. What is the %of dispatch reliability of an organization having conducted 5277 flights out which 134 flights are delayed for more than 15 minutes? a) 2.54% b) 6.8% c) 98.46% d) None of the above

12. Organization, which need not to send the data on mechanical delay of the flightsa) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator c) Private Operatord) Other than (a) is correct

.13. Mark the correct sentence, if any

a) Private operators should furnish data regarding dispatch reliability every 06 months.

b) Scheduled operators furnish emergency landing data to RAWO/Sub-RAWO every month.

c) Non-scheduled operators & training aircraft operator would furnish information regarding dispatch reliability every 03 months to RAWO/Sub-RAWO.

d) All are correct statements.

14. Effective safety regulation and oversight of airworthiness functions can be achieved by joint efforts of

Operator, AMO and Regulating authorityOperator, Manufacturers and DGCAOperator, Accountable Manager and QCMAll the above

15. During the scrutiny of the data sent by the operator on routine basis, if any adverse trend observed it is corrected by the following recommendations by the RAWOa) Varying the process of maintenanceb) Reviewing the qualification of certifying personnelc) Additional preventive maintenance

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d) All the above

16. Calculate IFSD rate for the PT-6A-42 Engine sl.no.PCE 30105, for a particular duration, when aircraft is operated for 500 flight hours, the above mentioned engine is met with IFSD for 6 times a) 0.012 b) 0.006 c) 0.024 d) None of the above

17. The aim of safety oversight airworthiness programme is toPrevent operators from maintaining their airworthiness standards at a level above

the level required by the regulations.Detect the strengths in the engineering activities of the operators.To take corrective actions in time before they become a potential safety hazard.All of the above.

18. Mark the correct statement, if any.a) All public transport aircraft shall be maintained by approved

organizations.b) All work done by approved organizations will be regulated by an

approved QCM.c) RAWO/Sub-RAWO carries out surveillance checks to ensure that the laid

down standards are enforced.d) All above correct.

19. Which statutory document is used by DGCA to ensure airworthiness and safety oversight?Quality control manual b) Aircraft maintenance manualCivil aviation requirements c) All the above

20. Rule____ requires that all aircraft to be operated in India needs to be registereda) Rule 5 b) Rule 48 c) Rule 61 d) Rule 62

21. The nationality and registration markings shall be painted on the Indian regd. aircraft as pera) Rule 62 b) Rule 134 c) Rule 37 d) Rule 48

22. Rule 49 deals witha) Type certificate b) Registration c) Issue of CAR d) Airworthiness

23. Rule 60 deals witha) Licensing of AME’s b) Maintenance standards and certificationc) Defects and defective parts d) Weight and balance

24. The QC dept.’s duties shall include to ensurea) That catering items bought are of good quality and from DGCA approved

sources.b) That all passengers in the aircraft have proper authority to travel.c) That all vendors hold DGCA approval. d) None of the above.

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25. Situations indicating negative trends in the maintenance standards of an operator includeIncrease in MEL items and the length of time they remain deferred.Improvements in the dispatch reliability status.Decrease in the no. of passengers traveled. d) None of the above

26. Repeat pilot report meansa) Improved system reliability b) Decreased system reliabilityc) Pilot needs to be awarded for his alertness d) None of these

27. Emergency responding in airworthiness performance monitoring system include identifyinga) IFSD b) Uncontained engine failure c) De-pressurization d) All above

28. Mark the incorrect statement, if any.a) Any foreign AME employed should pass an oral check with DGCA.b) An AME employed from other airlines should pass an oral check with

DGCA before certifying aircraft.c) Any foreign AME employed should get security clearance from home

ministry & external affairs ministry through his embassy.d) Foreign AME employed should know Indian rules and regulations, CAR’s

& QC manual.

29. For serious lapses in the airworthiness maintenance programme and in airworthiness performance monitoring programme – the punitive action will be initiated bya) QCM b) RAWO c) DAW (Hqs.)

d) Officer in charge RAWO/Sub-RAWO

30. Mark the correct statement, if any.Operator shall make arrangements with other approved organization for replay of

CVR.For readout of FDR/DFDR operator should have own facilities or make

arrangements with other approved organizations, which shall be acceptable to DGCA.

The oversight of airworthiness functions is the responsibility of DGCA only.All of the above.

31. Which of the following is Airworthiness performance data?a) Routine maintenance b) Scheduled inspectionc) Service bulletins d) Pilot report compiled ATA code wise

32. The organizations need not to prepare MEL isa) Private Operator b) As in (a) not issued with MMELc) As in (a) issued with MMEL d) Flying clubs

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33. The operator has to prepare MEL by consulting a) Engineering / operational deportment of the operatorb) MMELc) As in (b) duly approved by the regulatory authority of the country of

manufacturing d) All the above

34. Judge the Component / System malfunction be included in the MELa) Engine rpm Indicator b) PA system c) Wingsd) None of the above

35. Intention of Invoking MEL is To permit the operation of the aircraft with inoperative equipment within the

frame work of controlled and sound programme of repair and parts replacement

To make the profit for the airlinesTo reduce the workload of the crewNone of the above

36. Select the wrong statement, if anya) MEL defects shall be rectified at first available opportunity.b) In any case, MEL defects shall be rectified once aircraft returns to the

main base.c) MEL defects can be carried forward for indefinite periods provided they

are covered in MMEL also.d) All above statements are correct.

37. CAR section 2, Series B Part II is issued vide (Preparation of CCL & ECL) Aircraft rulea) 7B b) 133A c) 50 d) 15

38. Amendment to the MEL is the responsibility of a) AME b) Chief Engineer c) QCM d) None of the above

39. Information contained in the preamble to MEL isMethod informing AME about the unseviceability of item / defectsSpecific programme of rectification As in (b) in respect of each aircraft consistent with safety, which will have the

prior approval of DGCA. All the above are correct

40. Rule, which governs the preparation of cockpit and emergency checklist, isa) Rule 7A b) Rule 133A c) Rule 8B d) None of the above

41. Cockpit and emergency check list is available in manufacturersa) Operations manual b) Crew operating manualc) Flight manual d) All the above

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42. Which manual gives the information about the inoperative system when or where required to be replaced a) QC Manual b) Maintenance Manual

c) Engineering Organization Manual d) None of the above

43. Any deviation to the manufacturer’s procedures in the cockpit checklist is to be followed aftera) Obtaining concurrence from DGCA b) obtaining concurrence from RAOc) QCM can approve the deviation d) none of the above

44. Aircraft requiring two or more crewmembers must follow the procedure of ___while using cockpit checklist

a) Challenge and response b) Reading and performing c) Following action by action d) None of the above

45. State the rules which governs the defect reporting, recording, investigation, rectification, and analysisa) 60 b) 59 c) 5 d) All the above are correct

46. Repetitive defect meansa) Defect which recurs in the same aircraft b) Defect which recurs in the different aircraftc) (a) or (b) defect should repeatd) None of the above

47. Arrange the action required in a chronological order, if an aircraft is suffering with a major defectInitial information, details information, investigation progress report,

Investigation report Initial information, investigation progress report, investigation report, detailed

information reportInitial information, investigation report, investigation progress report, detailed

information reportNone of the above is in correct order.

48. The purpose of investigation of defect is toa) Punish the person who caused the defectb) Avoid the recurrence of defects c) Avoid duplicated penal action against offenderd) None of the above

49. What is the periodicity of forwarding fleet performance report by the operators other than scheduled operator?a) One month b) Six month c) Four months d) none of the above

50. The parameter- no. of `take offs’ per delay is part ofa) Fleet performance, Engg statistics and analysis

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b) Report rendering to RAO after the aircraft is delayed to a scheduled service of 15 minutes duration or more on account of aircraft defect

c) Delay investigation reportd) All of the above are correct

51. What is the duration of preserving aircraft component associated with the major defects? a) One month b) Fort night c) Two months d) None of the above

52. Which of the following is a Group I major defect?I – Fires during flight II – IFSD because of flameout III – IFSD due to icing IV – Defect of propeller feathering systemV – IFSD with external damage to the enginea) All b) I, II, III, IV c) I & V d) I, II & IV

53. How many aircraft can constitute a fleet? a) Minimum two of particular type of model b) Minimum four of particular typec) Minimum five of particular type or model d) none of the above

54. What are the documents, which give detailed information about fleet performance, engine statistics and analysis?a) AAC 4 of 2002 b) AAC 5 of 2001c) AAC 5 of 2002 d) AAC 5 of 2003

55. An operator may face service difficulties on account of defects malfunction and shall be reported to manufacturers / designersa) At the earliest b) As in (a) with in 7 days of occurrencec) As in (a) not later than two week of occurrence d) None of the above

56. What is the duration within which the major defects investigation to be completeda) 6 months of its occurrence b) 4 months of its occurrencec) 3 months of its occurrence d) none of the above

57. Records associated with defects shall be preserved for a period of a) Two weeks b) One month c) Six months d) none

58. The operator operating public transport aircraft should record in the flight report,Defects observed by the crew during pre-flight prior to the take offRecord special reports with all details regarding incidentsFlight sectors of short duration, where the aircraft is unable to obtain stabilized

cruise conditions of flight, recording of parameters, may be omittedAll the above are correct

59. Pilot of an Operator of public transport, observed a defect during flight, but not entered in PDR then, a) AME need not to rectify the defect till, the defect report for the previous

flight is filled and signed by the crew.b) AME should ask the crew with regard to defect and rectify at the earliestc) AME will release the aircraft, by invoking the provision of MELd) A and C are correct

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60. Name the operator, who can afford to record the defect observed by the flight crew in a register a) Scheduled Operator b) Non-scheduled operatorc) Other than public transport operator d) A or B is correct

61. Operator of private aircraft, responsibility of making periodic assessment about

the defects reported lies witha) QCM b) AME c) Approved person d) None of the above

62. Operator of non-public transport aircraft, when flying out station away from parent base, the defect observed shall be recorded ina) Journey logbook b) As in (a) column Xc) As in (a) column XII d) As in (a) Column XI

63. Defect reporting / rectification procedures pertaining to the operators except public transport aircraft. Mark the correct statementDefect observed in the aircraft during pre flight must be recorded in the registerDefect observed in the aircraft away from the parent base may be recorded in the

JLBIf the aircraft is temperately based away from the normal base, defect register may

also be located in the temporary baseAll are correct statement

64. Analytical study of in flight Instrument readings / recordings of aircraft is applicable toa) Public transport aircraft b) Non public transport aircraftc) As in (a) fitted with turbo jet engined) As in (c) not engaged in scheduled services

65. Periodicity for the evaluation of the collected data from the in flight instrument reading / recording isa) Two months b) Three months c) Quarterly d) None

66. Name the instrument reading, which is not considered, for analytical study of in flight instrument a) Voltmeter reading b) EGT c) Propeller rpm d) EPR

67. Airframe performance is evaluated based ona) Fuel flow and TAS b) Fuel flow and IASc) ROC d) None

68. Procedure for analytical study is reflected ina) Airplane maintenance Manual b) Engine maintenance manualc) A or B is correct d) None of the above

69. In the event of Deterioration of engine being observed a) Replacement of engine is advised b) Curative measure is taken

c) As in (b) is not satisfactory then (a) is advised d) None of the above

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70. Maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to a) AMOb) Approved orgn. which holds approval in Cat-C in accordance with series

“E” part I c) (a) or (b) operating scheduled flights d) Any approved organization

71. Purpose of reliability method is To help in identifying the potential problem area existing on its aircraft and

engines Organization to amend and refine its existing system of operationTo alert the organization in time to take preventive or curative measuresAll above are correct

72. Reliability control programme once it is approved become the part of a) MS Manual b) QC Manualc) Quality Assurance Manual d) None of the above

73. Reliability monitoring unit will gather information from the primary sources likea) Shop findings b) Bench check reportsc) Sampling Inspections d) All the above

74. The RMU will gather information froma) Circulars issued by DGCA b) Service bulletins issued by manufacturerc) Pilot reports d) All of the above

75. Aircraft system reliability will be measured bya) Unscheduled removals applicable to system per 1000 hoursb) Confirmed failures applicable to the system per 1000 hoursc) No. of pilot reported defects applicable to the system per 1000 hours d) All the above are correct

76. Alert notices will be issued by..…to all concerned persons and a report shall be forwarded on….. of every montha) QCM and 25th b) RMU & 25 th

c) QAM & 25th d) None of the above

77. The alert value will be numerically equal to …………a) Mean Value b) Mean value + Two standard deviationsc) Mean of the Mean value d) none of the above

78. Name the operator and the duration regarding development of monthly graphic display covering operating experience for at least a) Scheduled operator and one month b) Non-schedule operator and one monthc) Private operator and three months d) none of the above

79. All the graphic display regarding operators experience shall be preserved for a period ofa) One year b) Three years c) Five years d) None of the above

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80. Following changes to bring the alert value under control need not have the prior approval of DGCAa) Service time decrease in schedule b) Data analysis methodc) Data collection system d) All the above

81. Reliability programme of aircraft engines applicable to a) Non-scheduled operators b) Private operatorsc) Flying clubs d) None of the above

82. Name the type of IFSD need not to be used in computing operator’s shut down rate a) Critical shut downs b) Non-critical shut downs for training c) Non-critical shut downs for test d) B and C are correct

83. State the rule that lays down the requirements for grant of approval to an organizationa) Rule 133A b) Rule 133 B c) Rule 133 C d) None of the above

84. DGCA Hqs. will receive the operators report regarding exceeding of alert value froma) QCM b) RMU in QC dept.c) Accountable Manager d) none of these

85. Mark the wrong statement, if any.Any change in data collection system for maintenance control reliability method

will need DGCA approvalThe maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to scheduled airlines

only.A likely source of information for reliability control is sampling inspection.Operators who are having a continuous in flight monitoring of instruments can

alter the computation method of alert value on their own.

86. If an operator’s engine reliability index is above alert value, then he willground all his aircraft and analyze the problemask the engine manufacturers to rectifyprepare a corrective programme & submit to RAWOoverhauls all affected engines

87. SSID meansa) Special Servicing Inspection Documentb) Special Structural Inspection Documentc) Supplemental Structural Inspection Document d) Significant Structural Insp. Document

88. Initial periods for component TBO’s in respect of state govt. aircraft shall be approved bya) DGCA Hqs b) RAWO where operator is located

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c) Aviation adviser to the state govt. d) None of the above

89. An operator can apply for upward revision of maintenance periods/TBO’s ifa) Minimum four consecutive major maintenance schedules reveal satisfactory

condition of aircraft/componentb) Component premature removal rate is within 0.3/1000 hours continuously for

last 06 monthsc) They are having minimum 05 years experience in operating the type of

aircraftd) Both a) and b)

90. The requirements are enumerated for an AO located outside India ina) CAR Section – 2 Series “E” Part-I b) Rule 133Bc) AAC 4 of 1998 d) All the above are correct

91. Mark the incorrect sentence.a) Cat- A organizations manufacture aircraft/aircraft components/aircraft goods.b) For Cat A, B, C, D& E organizations separate approval in cat F is not

required.c) The organization, which tests the RPM gauge, will be approved in D category.d) The approval to organizations is based on the concept of delegated system of

responsibility.

92. If you are having an organization for carrying out inspection of components by magnetic particle method, the organization shall seek approval in ___ categorya) A Category b) C Categoryc) D Category d) None of the above

93. Separate approval in category in “F” is required for the organization approved for___ if he wants to establish a storea) D category b) G Categoryc) Both a) and b) d) None of the above

94. Certificate of Approval containsa) Privileges of an AO b) Scope of approvalc) Defining the limits of an AO d) none of the above are correct

95. Certificate of maintenance is issued in respect of Light aircraft after carryout routine inspection schedules Heavy aircraft after carryout special inspection schedulesLight aircraft after carrying out modification and overhaul process and treatmentAll of the above

96. Quality assurance manual is a documents detailinga) Operators procedures and practices in detailb) As in (a) observance of which will ensure compliance with the airworthiness

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c) As in (b) and safety requirement of the DGCA and manufacturerd) None of the above is correct

97. Release note can be issued bya) An AO only b) Any organization manufacturing aircraft partc) Chief designer d) All of the above are correct

98. Rejection note can be issued by An AO b) Any other organization with maintenance capacityc) All the above are correct d) none of the above is correct

99. Granting approval in any category will be depend upona) Scope of the approval shall be less than 100 hrs. Inspection scheduleb) Request of the applicant and not on his capability c) As in (b) and approval will be specified in certificate of approval /

capability list while granting initial approvald) None of the above

100. Mark the incorrect statement, if any.An organization will be initially granted part approval, and given 03 months time

to meet the deficiencies for final grant of approval.Granting approval will be dependant on request of the applicant and his

capability/capacity to perform work as required by DGCA.Scope of approval for routine maintenance of aircraft shall not be less than 100

hrs inspection schedule.No incorrect statement.

101. Organization located in India seeking approval shall submit application in form a) CA 182 B b) CA 182 C c) CA 182 D d) None of the above

102. Mark the wrong statement, if any.a) In case Indian operators desire to carry out maintenance activities including

daily insp. of their fleet outside India, DGCA HQs. will grant such approval.b) For grant of approval, a statement signed by the Accountable Manager is

mandatory.c) CA 182 D is used for renewal of approval of foreign organizations.d) All above statements are correct.

103. Approval of Indian organization affected by a) Director of airworthiness of region b) DAW at DGCAc) Controller of Airworthiness d) Any DGCA Officer of the region

104. Name of the manual, which shall reflect the scope of the approvala) QC manual b) QA manual

c) Maintenance system manual d) None of the above

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105. The storage and handling procedures for Electro static device components are detailed in …… for guidancea) AAC 5 of 2000 b) ACC 4 of 2000c) AAC 6 of 2001 d) None of the above

106. Scope of approval of an organization will depend onQualification of QCM & Dy. QCMCapacity of the organization and availability of the equipmentsBoth a) & b) d) none

107. Name the eligible person who cannot be an accountable managera) Chief executive b) Dy. MDc) Any other person not having necessary financial authority to ensure

compliance of safety requirements d) MD

108. Nodal officer can be appointed bya) State government b) As in (a) who is having own AMOc) As in (a) who has contracted maintenance of his aircraft to an AMOd) General aviation organization

109. Qualification and experience for a nodal officer is A senior person in department having 5 years of aviation experienceA senior person in department having 10 years of aviation experienceAs in (b) satisfied to DGCAAs in (a) or (b) satisfied to RAO

110. The function of nodal officer is to a) Ensure that all personnel are appropriately trained and qualified to accomplish

the workb) Ensure that appropriate instructions are developed, maintained, documented

and followed for compliance with requirements.c) Provide required spare parts and components from approved sources with

appropriate documents before use on aircraft.d) All of the above.

111. Certifying staff of an AO issuing C of M must havea) Involved in at least 3 months of actual maintenance experience in

preceding 24 months.b) As in (a) get sufficient refresher course in each 2 years periodc) As in (b) the programme for the training is reflected in QC or training

manuald) None of the above

112. Quality control cell of an AO has to monitor

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Product standardAirworthiness of aircraft engine / componentsCompliance with adequate procedures to ensure good maintenance practices

stipulated by manufacturers/ DGCAAll of the above

113. Internal audit of an AO is performed bya) QC department b) Quality assurance unitc) Reliability monitoring unit d) none of the above

114. Mark the wrong statements, if any.The quality assurance personnel will be from QC dept., who shall be highly

experienced and have rating/approval in their area of work.The quality assurance manager gives his report directly to QCM.The application for grant of approval of fuel companies shall be submitted at

DGCA HQs.All are incorrect statements.

115. Frequency of an internal audit to be carried out by an AO is a) Once in year b) Thrice in year c) Twice in year d) None

116. For an operator who carried out his first in house audit of the year in June, the next audit can be carried out ina) Next year July b) November c) September d) One audit is sufficient

117. Who will ensure that necessary corrective action is taken promptly on the observations made by audit team during spot checks and internal audit?a) Accountable manager b) QA Managerc) QC Manager d) Nodal Officer

118. Mark the correct statement, if any.a) A copy of safety audit report along with remedial action taken by the

QCM shall be reported to RAWO/Sub RAWOb) DGCA shall take disciplinary action on the basis of above reportc) Procedure for in house audit is reflected in maintenance system manuald) None of the above is correct statement

119. Quality control and Quality assurance manual of Indian airlines will be approved bya) RAWO b) Sub-RAWO where IA Head Office is basedc) DGCA Head quarters d) None of the above

120. QC manual of fuel companies shall be submitted for approval at a) RAWO b) DGCA HQs

c) Sub-RAWO where the fuel company is based d) none of the above

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121. Maintenance system manual of an AO to be approved bya) RAWO b) DGCA HQsc) As in (a) consultation with (b) d) None of the above

122. A list of maintenance related forms would be available ina) Maintenance system manual b) Engg. Organization manualc) QC manual, Section II- maintenance d) Quality assurance manual

123. Name the manual that contains the procedure for use spares under a pool agreement a) Maintenance system manual b) Aircraft Manualc) Engg. Organization Manual d) None of the above

124. A list containing current life of every major component shall be reflected ina) QC manual b) QA manual c) EO Manual d) None of above

125. The approval of an AO valid up to12 months from the date of issue / renewal Valid up to 31 Dec of the year in which issued/renewedAs in (b) subjected to comply with regulation and requirementsAs in (C) and payment of any charges prescribed by DGCA

126. Kingfisher Airlines will start scheduled airlines operation from April 2005 with Airbus A-320 aircraft. They have an approved QCM who has 10 years experience in A-320 aircraft. Their inspection schedules shall be approved bya) QCM b) Sub-RAWO c) DGCA HQs. d) none of these

127. Mark the correct statement, if any.a) The inspection schedule of organization approved in Cat D will be approved

by QCM if it has more than 03 years experienceb) DGCA HQs shall approve inspection schedule of Cat E organizations.c) Once approved no item of inspection can be removed from inspection

schedules of Cat A organizations.d) All correct statements.

128. CAR Series E Part VII deals witha) Fuels & lubricants b) Stores c) AMO d) Test laboratories

129. Organizations approved in Cat D shall issuea) Certificate of manufacture b) Release notesc) Certificate of maintenance d) None of these.

130. Organizations seeking approval in Cat D shall have to meet the requirements laid down in a) CAR Series E Part VII b) CAR Series E Part IIc) CAR Series E Part I d) CAR Series E Part IV

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131. Mark the correct statement, if any.The third copy of release note will be sent to RAWOThe fourth copy of rejection note will be sent to RAWOWhen a new certificate of approval is issued, previously issued certificate is to be

returned to the RAWO.All correct statements.

132. Petroleum in bulk meansa) Petroleum contained in a container exceeding 900 ltrs. in capacity. b) Petroleum in a receptacle in excess of 1900 ltrs.c) Petroleum in a receptacle exceeding 900 gallons in capacity.d) None of these.

133. Which organization needs an approval from Chief Inspector of Explosives, in addition to approvals from DGCA? a) Cat A b) Cat E c) Cat D

d) All approvals are granted by DGCA, no additional approval needed.

134. Organizations approved in Cat E will issue a voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation fuel delivered by it into an aircraft in order to certify a) Quantity b) Quality c) Airworthiness requirements d) none of these

135. Release notes shall be preserved by approved stores organizations for at leasta) Ten years b) Five years c) Two years d) One year

136. Rule____ specifies that applicants who have passed a course from DGCA approved institute will be granted one year relaxation in total aeronautical experience for grant of AME license.a) 60 b) 61 c) 62 d) 63

137. Instructors in a training school shall be approved bya) Chief Instructor b) local airworthiness office where school is situatedc) RAWO c) none of the above

138. Which of the following is not part of training manual?Names and experience of all regular instructorsNames and address of all students semester wiseDetails of practical training to be impartedAll above are parts of training manual.

139. Mark the correct statements, if any.a) Cat D organizations shall preserve their records for five years. b) Cat G organizations shall preserve their records for five years.c) Cat F organizations shall preserve their records for five years.d) All are correct statements.

140. The quantity of unusable fuel is to be determined if not available in the flight manual beforea) C of A renewal b) Type certification of aircraft

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c) Complete overhaul of aircraft d) All of the above

141. Fuelling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo-propeller engine is with in30 mtrs from refueling point/refuelling eqpt. / vent As in a) within 15 mtrs.As in a) within 43 mtrs.None of these.

142. Who will furnish the fuelling company personnel with information regarding correct procedure of fuelling and precautions to be observed for a type of aircraft?a) QCM of the fuelling company b) The manufacturerc) Aircraft operator d) none of these

143. To prevent water remaining in the tanks all the filters should be purged once in a) 02 weeks b) Every week c) Every month d) Every day

144. Mark the incorrect statement, if any.a) The aircraft shall not be refuelled with in 30 mtrs of radar equipment under

test.b) The aircraft wheel chocks are placed properly and aircraft brakes are applied

before refuelling is started.c) The refuelling equipment shall follow oblique approach to the aircraft by

reversing the equipment towards the aircraft.d) No incorrect statement.

145. Mark the correct statement, if any.Over wing refuelling shall be carried out during electrical storms only if the

aircraft is properly earthed and bonded to the aircraft.During refuelling, the refuelling valve will be opened first and ensured that the

fuel flows into the aircraft. Only after that bonding connections will be made to ensure safety.

Both a) & b) are correct d) both a) & b) are incorrect.

146. Drag chains are used during refuelling fora) To hold the aircraft firmly to prevent it from moving during refuelling.b) To hold the refuelling equipment firmly to prevent it from rolling and

damaging/harming aircraft and personnel during refuelling.c) Static electricity discharge bonding.d) Earthing.

147. Recorded data such as fuel flow Vs TAS in case of jet engine public transport aircraft shall be evaluated against a) Alert values suggested by operator b) Alert values approved by DGCA

c) Alert values every month d) All are correct

148. Mark the correct statement, if any.Fixed wing aircrafts and Helicopter with a seating capacity of greater than 20

shall be permitted to be refueled with passengers on board.During refueling only strobe lighting of all types will be permitted to be operated.

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In case of a fuel spillage covering an area greater than 5 sq. mtrs, fuelling operations shall stop.

All the above are correct statements.

149. Barrelled AVGAS if remains unused for ___ period should be lab tested before use.a) Six weeks b) Six months c) Six years d) none of these

150. In checking the aircraft wheels for high temperature the wheels shall be approached from the a) Front & back c) Left side or right sidec) Top side d) No such restrictions

Essay type questions: (Marks)

01. What are the conditions for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition? (03)

02. What is the objective of airworthiness directorate? (02)

03. What is critical shut down? (02)

04. What are the conditions for employing a foreign AME before he certifies an aircraft?

(03)

05. What recommendations does the airworthiness authority give when adverse trends are

observed in any operator’s maintenance standards? (04)

06. What is the aim of safety oversight programme? (02)

07. Name examples of at least 05 situations that indicate negative trends in maintenance

standards? (04)

08. Through which statutory/regulatory documents does the DGCA ensure the Safety

oversight of an operator? (03)

09. Write short notes on conditions for using MEL? (03)

10. What does preamble of MEL contain? (04)

12. Define the following.

a) Condition monitoring

b) Emergency check list

c) Damage tolerant

d) Quality control

e) Certificate of maintenance

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f) Aircraft components

g) Maintenance

h) Approved organization

i) Defect

j) Scheduled operator

k) Certificate of Manufacture

l) FRC (2 Marks each)

13. What is the content of the report, which an operator shall submit to RAWO within 24

hours in case of a mechanical delay of 15 minutes or more for dispatch? (05)

14. What details does the fleet performance & engg. statistics report of a scheduled

operator contain and at what periodicity shall they prepare it? (05)

15. Name at least 03 defects classified as group I defects? (03)

16. List out at least 03 defects classified as group II defects? (03)

17. What are the primary sources of information for maintenance control by reliability?

(04)

18. Briefly explain the action to be taken if any system of an aircraft is above alert value.

(05)

19. What changes in maintenance control reliability method will require prior approval of

DGCA? (05)

20. What shall the RAWO do when any operator’s engine reliability index is above alert

value? (03)

21. What corrective programme will be undertaken by the operator when his engine

reliability index is above alert value? (04)

22. At what periodicity will the average fuel and oil consumption of LA engine be

entered in engine logbook? (03)

23. List out the input parameters for on condition maintenance of piston engines (10)

24. What factors will be kept in view while determining proven service life of an

aircraft/component? (07)

25. Under which conditions can an operator apply for upward revision of maintenance

periods/TBO’s? (03)

26. Define briefly the categories in which DGCA grants approval to aviation

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organizations and the scope of each category. (06)

27. Who can become an Accountable Manager and explain his duties briefly? (04)

28. Write short notes on QCM. (03)

29. Who needs a nodal officer and what are his qualification and experience

requirements? (03)

30. List out the manuals required to be prepared by the organizations seeking approval

and who approves them? (06)

31. What is the content of Engineering organization manual? (03)

32. Write any 05 points to be covered in MSM. (05)

33. What is the requirement for approval remaining valid? (04)

34. What is release note? Who can issue release notes? Write distribution of release

notes. (05)

35. What is rejection note? Who can issue rejection notes? Write the distribution of

rejection notes (05)

36. What changes in the organization shall be notified to DGCA by AO? (03)

37. Write briefly the contents of QC manual. (04)

38. What is the difference between bonded stores and quarantine stores? (04)

39. What is the qualification requirement for CI of an AME school? (03)

40. What documents are required in a night halt station? (04)

41. Briefly explain the method of determination of unusable fuel in case of light aircrafts

below 5700 Kgs. AUW. (04)

42. What are the conditions for refuelling an aircraft with passengers on board? (03)

43. What is the grade of filter required for AVGAS and ATF tank installations? (04)

44. What are the occasions when the sampling of fuel should be carried out from a tank

or sump? (03)

45. What are the checks to be carried out on a new hose to be used on fuel installations?

(03)

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