bank of baroda specialist officer mock test 1 - ixambee

Bank of Baroda Specialist Officer Mock Test 1

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The answers along with explanations are given at the end of the question paper

Section: Reasoning Aptitude

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are eight friends who live in an eight-storey building. The ground floor is numbered one and the topmost floor is numbered eight. Each of them likes different brand of clothes, viz Zara, Levis, Burberry, Gucci, Adidas, Diesel, Versace and Puma, but not necessarily in the same order.

(i)There is only one floor between P and the floor on which person who likes Puma lives. The person who likes Puma does not live on floor number 1. S lives just below Q.

(ii) The one who likes Zara lives on an even-numbered floor and just above the floor on which person who likes Adidas lives. The person who likes Diesel lives on an even-numbered floor but not on the eighth floor. Neither S nor W lives on the first floor.

(iii) Only one person lives between the one who likes Versace and S. P lives on an odd-numbered floor and T lives just above P. Q lives on the fourth floor.

(iv) Only two persons live between the person who likes Diesel and P. U lives just below the one who likes Adidas. S like neither Adidas nor Puma. The person who likes Burberry does not live on an odd-numbered floor. V does not like Levis.

(v) There are two floors between the floor on which W lives and the floor on which T lives. Only two persons live between the one who likes Gucci and the one who likes Burberry.

Question No. 1 Who among the following likes Levis? Options :

1. S

2. R

3. U

4. T

5. None of these Question No. 2 How many persons are there between T and Q? Options :

1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

5. None of these



Question No. 3 Who among the following lives on the topmost floor? Options :

1. The one who likes Zara

2. The one who likes Diesel

3. The one who likes Burberry

4. The one who likes Levis

5. None of these Question No. 4 Which of the following combinations is/are true? Options :

1. Floor no. 2 – S – Gucci

2. Floor no. 5 – U – Puma

3. Floor no. 1 – R – Levis

4. Floor no. 8 – T – Zara

5. None of these Question No. 5 P likes which of the following brands? Options :

1. Zara

2. Puma

3. Diesel

4. Adidas

5. None of these Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In the following questions, $, @, ©, % and * are used with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q.’

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q.’

‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q.’



‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q.’

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q.’

Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find with of the three conclusions I, II, and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

Question No. 6 Statements: P $ Q, Q % R, S @ R, T % S

Conclusions :

I. P % T

II. Q * T

III. S $ P

Options :

1. Only I is true

2. Only III is true

3. Either I or II is true

4. All are true

5. None is true Question No. 7 Statements: J * K, K @ L, L © M, M $ N

Conclusions

I. N % M

II. N @ M

III. L % J

Options :

1. Only I and II are true

2. Either I or II and III are true

3. Only II and III are true

4. All are true

5. None of these



Question No. 8 Statements: G © H, H % I, I @ J, K * J

Conclusions :

I. G % K

II. H % K

III. G * I

Options :

1. None is true

2. Only II is true

3. Only I and II is true

4. Only III is true

5. None of these Question No. 9 Statements: A* B, B $ C, D % C, D © E

Conclusions :

I. A © E

II. B © E

III. D % A

Options :

1. None is true

2. Only I is true

3. Only II is true

4. Only III is true

5. None of these Question No. 10 Statements: U $ V, V © W, W @ X, X * Y

Conclusions :

I. U % V

II. W @ U

III. X % V



Options :

1. None is true

2. Only I is true

3. Only II is true

4. Only III is true

5. None of these Directions (11-13): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

There are ten family members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y. There are three generations in the family. There are three married couple in the family. Q is the only sister of V's brother W. V and Y are the married couple. P is the mother of Y. S is the brother of Y. R is the father in law of V. X is the mother of Q. U is the father in law of Y. T is the son V.

Question No. 11 How is V related to S? Options :

1. Brother

2. Brother in law

3. Cousin

4. Father

5. Husband Question No. 12 How is X related to T? Options :

1. Grandfather

2. Sister

3. Grandmother

4. Mother

5. Brother



Question No. 13 How is Q related to T? Options :

1. Aunt

2. Uncle

3. Spouse

4. Cousin

5. Niece Directions (14-15): In the following questions, the symbols #, &, @ and $ are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given questions:

P # Q - P is in the south direction of Q at distance of either 5 or 3 m.

P @ Q - Q is in the north direction of P at distance of either 7 m or 8m.

P & Q - Q is in the east direction of P at distance of either 5 or 4 m.

P $ Q - P is in the west direction of Q at distance of either 6 m or 4 m.

P # & Q - Q is in the southeast direction of P.

P @ & Q - P is in the northeast direction of Q.

Question No. 14 If A # B $ C # & D are related to each other then what is the probable shortest distance between A and C? Options :

1. 3√5 m

2. 5 m

3. 4 m

4. 6 m

5. Both 1 & 2



Question No. 15 If J @ & K $ L $ M, then what is the shortest distance between K and M (if KLM form a straight line and length of KL and LM are different)? Options :

1. 13 m

2. 14 m

3. 15 m

4. 16 m

5. 10 m Directions (16-18): Each of the following questions consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the options that indicate a combination where the third statement can be logically deduced from the first two statements and that option will be your answer.

Question No. 16 Statement:

I. Some callers are travellers.

II. All travellers are adventurers.

III. No adventurer is dealer

IV. Some dealers are travellers

V. Some dealers are adventurers.

VI. Some tourists are callers.

Options :

1. II, III, IV

2. VI, I, V

3. IV, II, V

4. IV, III, II

5. None is correct



Question No. 17 Statement:

I. Some mouse are nests.

II. Some tins are cisterns.

III. No cisterns is rubber.

IV. Some yolks are mouse.

V. Some rubbers are mouse.

VI. All nests are yolks.

Options :

1. I, V, III

2. V, IV, VI

3. I, VI, IV

4. IV, VI, I

5. None is correct Question No. 18 Statement:

I. All umbrella are rain.

II. Some umbrella are colours.

III. All colours are black.

IV. Some umbrella are cloud.

V. Some rain are cloud.

VI. Some black is costume.

Options :

1. V, IV, VI

2. I, II, VI

3. I, V, IV

4. I, IV, V

5. None is correct



Directions (19-20): Question consists of five statements followed by five conclusions. Consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions does not logically follow from the given statements using all statements together.

Question No. 19 Statements: All roads are streets

Some streets are lanes.

No lane is footpath.

Some footpaths are lamps.

All lamps are hoardings.

Options :

1. Some hoardings are footpaths

2. All roads being lanes is a possibility

3. Some streets are not footpath.

4. Some roads are not footpaths

5. All footpath being hoarding is a possibility Question No. 20 Statements: Some bands are combs.

No comb is pin.

All pins are clips.

Some clips are rubbers.

All rubbers are stones.

Options :

1. All combs being clips is a possibility

2. All bands being pins is a possibility.

3. Some stones are clips.

4. All pins being stones is a possibility

5. Some bands are not pins.



Directions (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

Ten friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are sitting at a rectangular table and likes a different sweets i.e. Laddu, Barfi, Rajbhog, Peda, Gulab Jamun, Petha, Rasmalai, Rasgulla, Jalebi and Kaju kathli but not necessarily in the same order. All of them are sitting at a rectangular table in such a way that four of them sit at the corners, two each on the longer sides and one each on the smaller sides, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing the centre while the rest are not facing the centre. Not more than three friends sitting together face the same direction.

(i)T sits on the immediate left of S and is not an immediate neighbour of R. P and T face the same direction. The one who likes Laddu sits immediate left of the one who likes Petha.

(ii) S and V sit diagonally and face the opposite directions. Five of them face the same directions. W does not like Petha and Jalebi. The one who likes Rasgulla sits immediate right of X, who likes Jalebi.

(iii) The one who likes Petha sits second to the left of R. Only two among four sitting on the corners face outward. W and S are sitting on the immediate left and third to the left of Y respectively.

(iv)P sits on one of the smaller sides and third to the right of U. S likes Rasmalai and sits third to the left of the one who likes Gulab Jamun. Y sits immediate right of the one who likes Kaju kathli.

(v) T likes Barfi and sits second to the left of the one who likes Peda. X is not an immediate neighbour of P, Q or U, but sits on the immediate right of R, who is not facing the centre. One of the four friends sitting on the corner is X.

Question No. 21 Which of the following persons like Rajbhog? Options :

1. P

2. R

3. W

4. Y

5. None of these Question No. 22 Who sits third to the left of the one who likes Petha? Options :

1. The one who likes Rasgulla

2. The one who likes Jalebi

3. Q

4. U

5. The one who likes Barfi



Question No. 23 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? Options :

1. T

2. The one who likes Kaju kathli

3. X

4. The one who likes Rasmalai

5. The one who likes Rajbhog Question No. 24 What is the position of S with respect to P? Options :

1. Immediate right

2. Second to the right

3. Fourth to the right

4. Can’t be determined

5. None of these Question No. 25 Who among the following sits diagonally opposite W? Options :

1. The one who likes Jalebi

2. The one who likes Rasgulla

3. S

4. The one who likes Laddu

5. None of these Directions (26-28): Study the information and answer the following questions:

In a certain code language

" overcome anger and frustration" is coded as “ 22WP, 9OB, 23OB, 13SG”

"much more than words" is coded as “ 19VN, 22PN, 13IU, 8PX ”



"feelings enmity with anybody" is coded as “ 8FG, 2OF, 19JX, 2OB”

Question No. 26 What is the code for ‘secure’? Options :

1. 23TF

2. 23RD

3. 22DR

4. 22FT

5. None of these Question No. 27 What is the code for ‘friends’? Options :

1. 12GH

2. 10FI

3. 8SG

4. 8TH

5. None of these Question No. 28 What is the code for ‘confidently’? Options :

1. 2DP

2. 2PD

3. 4EQ

4. 4QE

5. None of these Directions (29-33): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions:

In a family of 10 members they use different apps i.e. Facebook Messenger, Skype, Discord, Hangout, Kik, Slack, Snapchat, Telegram, Viber and WhatsApp are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 Naveen, Manisha, Peter, Rohit and Chetna are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. In row-2 Ankit, Amit, John, Meghna and Mohit are seated (not



necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member seated in row faces another member of the other row. All of them have relation with each other.

(i)Only one person sits between Peter’s sister and Naveen’s brother. Only two person sit between Peter’s father and Meghna’s father. Neither Manisha nor Meghna’s grandfather faces Meghna. Amit uses Hangout and Manisha neither use Facebook Messenger nor WhatsApp.

(ii) Meghna’s husband, who uses Slack, sits third to the right of Meghna’s uncle. Ankit sits second to the left of Meghna’s husband. Naveen has two sons and one daughter.

(iii) The person facing Meghna’s brother, who uses Discord, sits immediate right of Naveen’s daughter. Chetna is the grandmother of Ankit and Meghna. Rohit is the brother-in-law of Chetna.

(iv) Peter is the father of Ankit and brother of Manisha. Ankit’s grandfather, who uses Facebook Messenger, is not an immediate neighbour of Manisha.

(v) Mohit is the husband of Meghna and brother of the one, who uses Kik. Meghna uses Snapchat and Chetna uses Viber.

(vi) Peter neither uses Telegram nor Skype. John uses Kik. Rohit does not use Skype.

Question No. 29 How is Peter related to John’s brother? Options :

1. Mother-in-law

2. Father-in-law

3. Father

4. Uncle

5. None of these Question No. 30 Manisha uses which of the following apps? Options :

1. Discord

2. WhatsApp

3. Facebook Messenger

4. Skype

5. Telegram



Question No. 31 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrange and hence form a group. Which of them does not uses that group? Options :

1. Chetna

2. Naveen

3. Manisha

4. Mohit

5. Meghna Question No. 32 What is the position of Mohit with respect of Mohit’s wife? Options :

1. Third to the right

2. Second to the right

3. Immediate left

4. Immediate right

5. Second to the left Question No. 33 In which of the following pairs sits on the left end of both rows? Options :

1. Manisha- Naveen

2. Meghna- Naveen

3. Rohit - Meghna

4. Naveen- Amit

5. Amit- Rohit



Directions (34-38): In each question below a statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Question No. 34 Statement: For a safer world, there is a crucial requirement to teach self-defence to girls from an early age, so that they grow up to become self-reliant, strong and and confident individuals.

Assumptions:

I. If girls are not taught self-defence, they cannot become confident individuals.

II. If girls learn self-defence, they would be more prepared to face any unforeseen circumstance.

Options :

1. If only I implicit.

2. If only II implicit.

3. If either I or II implicit.

4. If neither I nor II implicit

5. If both I and II implicit. Question No. 35 Statement: Indian Culture is getting forgotten and the country is losing its rich heritage.

Assumptions:

I. Westernization has affected Indian traditions and customs greatly due to which Indian culture is decaying.

II. To save the heritage of a country, preserving its culture is important.

Options :





5. If both I and II implicit.



Question No. 36 Statement : Six boys aged 14-16 who were walking on a rail track with earphones on were run over by a train in Hapur, UP. The boys, seeing a speeding train approaching them on the track they were walking on, jumped to the adjacent track only to be hit by another train.

Conclusions:

I. Wearing earphones while walking may lead to accidents.

II. The boys couldn’t hear another train because of earphones.

Options :





5. If both I and II implicit. Question No. 37 Statement: "God will not forgive them. They betrayed a young girl. Money can never silence betrayal." A leader expressing grief over a property dispute between two families.

Assumptions:

I. God forgives to those who betray the older people.

II. Money can silence other crimes like murder, robbery, corruption.

Options :





5. If both I and II implicit. Question No. 38 Statement: It is not just the water in the Bellandur lake which is deemed ‘unsatisfactory’ in the water quality index.

Assumptions:

I.Besides Bellandur lake, there are some other lakes also which do not have a ‘satisfactory’ water quality index.

II. None of the lakes in the state have a ‘satisfactory’ water quality index.



Options : 1. If only I implicit. 2. If only II implicit. 3. If either I or II implicit. 4. If neither I nor II implicit 5. If both I and II implicit.

Directions :

Following are the observations of an experiment on ‘A total of 74 fish spanning eleven taxa’ that were collected throughout the study, with 10 taxa (85% of individuals) containing micro plastic in their digestive tracts.

A. Micro plastic concentrations in surface waters were significantly different among the 3 sites.

B. Micro plastic abundance in fish among the three study sites varied closely in the range of 10 (±2.3) to 13 (±1.6) micro plastic particles per fish.

C. Micro plastic concentration in the fish species ‘Round goby’ was significantly greater than species ‘fathead minnow’ and species ‘white sucker’ (all P0.05).

Question No. 39 Which of the following can be concluded from the given findings of the research?

I. As per the experiment, there is some correlation between micro plastic and digestive tracts.

II. Micro plastic abundance in fish was not significantly different among the three study sites.

III. There was a significant difference in micro plastic concentration across fish species.

IV. Abundance of micro plastic in fish was unrelated to patterns of micro plastic in the water

Options : 1. I, II and III 2. All the given statements can be concluded from the given findings of the research. 3. Both I and III 4. Both II and III 5. None of the given options Directions Statement:

The distinction between what is considered a "harmless" primary polydipsia and a diabetes insipidus is crucial, as their therapy is fundamentally different. Diabetes insipidus must be treated with the hormone vasopressin, while patients with primary polydipsia require behavioral therapy to reduce their habitual drinking. A wrong therapy can have life-threatening consequences as treatment with vasopressin without indication can lead to water intoxication. Previously, the differentiation between



these two conditions was made using a "water deprivation test" in which the patient was not allowed to drink any liquid for 16 hours after which the doctors would interpret the concentration of the urine. A new study involving around 150 patients in 11 clinics compared the conventional "water deprivation test" with a new diagnostic method. It consists of a 2-hour infusion with a hypertonic saline solution; after that, the concentration of the biomarker copeptin, which reflects the content of the hormone vasopressin in the blood, is measured in the patients' blood. This method has a much higher diagnostic accuracy: 97 percent of all patients were correctly diagnosed and treated quickly. The new test is now available for clinical use.

Question No. 40 Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?

A. Water deprivation test was often misleading and only led in about half of all cases to a correct diagnosis.

B. Hormone vasopressin is responsible for regulating the water and salt content in our body.

C. A 16-hour water deprivation test is extremely unpleasant and stressful for the patients.

D. Primary-polydipsia is developed over time through habit

Options :

1. Only A

2. Only C

3. Both B and D

4. Only D

5. A, B and C Direction (41-45): In each of the following problems, there is one question and three statements I, II and III given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each question. Question No. 41 How is Sriram related to Manish?

I. Priyanka is the mother-in-law of Reena, who is the wife of Sriram.

II. Sriram’s sister Monika is the only daughter of Manoj.

III. Monika is the sister of Manish, who is son of Manoj.

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only I and III

3. Only II and III

4. Any two of the three

5. All I, II and III are necessary



Question No. 42 Rishi’s house is in which direction with respect to Prateek’s house?

I. Paras’s house is to the North of Piyush’s house which is to the west of Prateek’s house.

II. Rishi’s house is to the East of Paras’s house.

III. Rishi’s house is to the North-East of Piyush’s house.

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only III

3. Any two of the three

4. All I, II and III are necessary

5. Question cannot be answered even with the information in all three statements Question No. 43 How is ‘come’ coded in a code language?

I. ‘his it come to’ is coded as “ sx tz xc bq” and “her it come to shop” is coded as “ bq tz ys xc ql”.

II. ‘his it came’ is coded as “xc sx qr” and ‘house to shop’ is coded as ‘tz nf ql’

III. ‘bus station to shop’ is coded as ‘ly kx tz ql’

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only II and III

3. Only I and III

4. All I, II and III

5. None of these Question No. 44 Among Param, Paras, Pranjali, Parul and Prateek, who is tallest?

I. Pranjali is taller than Paras but not as tall as Prateek.

II. Parul is shorter than only Param and Prateek.

III. Prateek is not tallest.

Options : 1. Only I

2. Only I and II

3. Only II and III

4. Only I and III

5. All I, II and III



Question No. 45 How is Q related to S?

I. T is the only daughter of U, who is the only brother of his sister.

II. R is the daughter of P, who has two sons U and S.

III. R is daughter of Q, who is mother of T.

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only II and III

3. All I, II and HI

4. I, II and III together are not sufficient

5. None of these Direction (46-50): Study the given information and answer the following the questions.

There were seven friends Anumita, Vibhanshu, Shalini, Ayush, Kalpana, Shweta and Sony like different subjects Hindi, Telugu, English, Maths, Physics, Tamil and Chemistry but not necessarily in the same order. They read on different days of the week starting from Sunday. They also like different countries such as Armenia, Argentina, Albania, Austria, Afghanistan, Australia and Algeria but not necessarily in the same order.

There were two days gap between Ayush and the one who likes Telugu. The one who likes English read immediately after the one who likes Algeria. There were two days gap between Vibhanshu and the one who likes Tamil. The one who likes Chemistry read immediately before the one who likes Australia. There were two days gap between the one who likes English and the one who likes Afghanistan. The one who likes Telugu lives below Ayush. There were two days gap between Anumita and the one who likes Algeria. The one who likes Algeria was not on Wednesday. Anumita reads before the one who likes Algeria. There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Tamil and the one who likes Afghanistan. There were two days gap between Sony and the one who likes Albania. Ayush does not like Chemistry subject. The number of days between Shweta and the one who likes Telugu is same as the number of days between Shalini and the one who likes Argentina. Sony does not like Telugu. The one who likes Albania read Physics. There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Hindi and the one who likes Armenia. Sony reads immediately after the one who likes Argentina. The one who reads Telugu does not like Austria and Armenia.

Question No. 46 Vibhanshu reads on which day ? Options :

1. Tuesday

2. Monday

3. Wednesday

4. Thursday

5. Saturday



Question No. 47 Anumita likes which country? Options :

1. Albania

2. Australia

3. Austria

4. Armenia

5. Algeria Question No. 48 Shweta likes which subject ? Options :

1. Maths

2. Physics

3. Tamil

4. English

5. Chemistry Question No. 49 The one who likes Afghanistan reads on which day ? Options :

1. Thursday

2. Monday

3. Friday

4. Wednesday

5. Sunday



Question No. 50 Who reads after three days of the one who likes Maths subject ? Options :

1. Kalpana

2. Shalini

3. Sony

4. Anumita

5. Vibhanshu

Section: English Language

Directions (51-60):

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Agriculture is a challenging sector and several issues prevent farmers, in particular small holders, from realizing greater incomes. These include low yields, weak market linkages, high price volatility, limited risk management, and poor price realization. Given the very large numbers of people involved, addressing these concerns of farmers is an important goal of public policy. For farmers’ incomes, the keys to transformative growth are, among other things, the two areas of price and yield risk management.

Price risk management: Like other commodities, market prices of agricultural products are highly volatile. Spot, futures, forwards, and options are essential tools which accurately transmit market signals to farmers and simultaneously allow them to choose the risk management approach that is best suited for them without relying on ex-post subsidies, should markets turn adverse. A number of countries have focused on making these tools easily available to farmers.

In Australia, for example, both farmers and buyers are able to purchase the necessary forward contracts and put and call options on agricultural products directly from their banks. Here cotton growers are the most prominent users of these tools to manage price risk and around 20% of wheat growers use market price risk management techniques such as futures contracts, options, and over the counter products like swaps. Easy access to these products and services has transformed the incomes and risk exposure of these farmers allowing them to respond to market signals by purchasing the level of protection that they need at market prices and altering their cropping patterns where necessary.

Yield risk management: While effective management of price risk is essential, it is also equally important for the farmer to be able to effectively manage the risks to the yield that she is able to get from her farm. Crop insurance incentivises farm investment and increases farmers’ ability to absorb shocks. However, to be effective at scale, technological tools like remote sensing and machine learning for better standardisation and quality assurance of underlying crop data are needed to streamline decision making processes between insurance providers and farmers.

In the United States, where 90% of farmland is covered by insurance, companies have started to use drone technology to gather data on insurance claims following adverse weather events that affect production. Drone footage can be assessed using machine learning and computer vision software to increase the speed, reliability and targeting of claims processing and make payouts faster. In Europe, new agricultural technology companies are offering solutions in areas such as data intelligence and processing, farm mechanisation, and robotics. By combining satellite data with artificial intelligence,



weather information, and drone-based soil mapping, technology can, for example, be used to optimise planting periods, forecast crop yields, detect pests and diseases, and even help pinpoint for the government where new irrigation projects need to be located for maximum impact. For example, a recent agreement between PartnerRe, a US based, diversified reinsurer, and Farmers Edge, an American decision-agriculture company, will allow farmers to access customised insurance products with integrated precision-farming capabilities. Insurers will also benefit from a more efficient loss adjustment process.

If farmers, the world over, including in emerging economies such as India, are able to benefit from such approaches towards price and yield risk management, they will be able to build a great deal of resilience in their approaches towards agriculture while responding accurately to the signals from the wider agricultural market.

Question No. 51 What challenges in the agriculture sector, according to the passage, are the reasons behind farmers’ low incomes?

A. Price instability

B. less produce

C. low prices

D. poor irrigation facilities

Options :

1. B, C and D

2. Both A and C

3. A, B and C

4. All A, B, C and D

5. A, C and D Question No. 52 Marked improvement in growth of the farmers’ income can be achieved by addressing which domains?

A. Managing risk related to pricing

B. Managing risks related to technological advancements

C. Managing risks related to yields

Options :

1. Both A and B

2. Both A and C

3. Only A

4. Both B and C

5. All A, B and C



Question No. 53 What techniques, according to the passage, are used by the famers in Australia indulged in wheat production to manage the risk of market price?

A. Swaps

B. Options

C. Future Contracts

D. Spot

Options :

1. B, C and D

2. Both A and C

3. A, B and C

4. All A, B, C and D

5. A, C and D Question No. 54 What, according to the passage are the benefits of crop insurance?

A. encourages investment in farming

B. allows farmer to fix the market rate in advance

C. makes the farmer more comfortable in handling unpleasant situations

Options :

1. Both A and B

2. Both A and C

3. Only A

4. Both B and C

5. All A, B and C Question No. 55 What is needed to be productive when producing in large quantities?

A. remote sensing

B. machine learning

C. quality assurance

Options :

1. Both A and B

2. Both A and C

3. Only A



4. Both B and C

5. All A, B and C

Question No. 56 By the combination of what types of information/technologies can technology be used to increase crop yields?

A. data obtained by satellites

B. artificial intelligence

C. Drone based surveillance

Options :

1. Both A and B

2. Both A and C

3. Only A

4. Both B and C

5. All A, B and C Question No. 57 Transformative Options :

1. Superficial

2. Changing

3. Implanting

4. Extricating

5. Expelling Question No. 58 Absorb Options :

1. Require

2. Take in

3. Eliminate

4. Neglect

5. Perform



Question No. 59 Prominent Options :

1. Eloquent

2. Explicit

3. Cataract

4. Ordinary

5. Inundation Question No. 60 Resilience Options :

1. Preeminence

2. Pliability

3. Rigidity

4. Constraint

5. Criterion Direction (61-65): In the following questions two columns are given containing three sentences/phrases each, A, B, C and D, E, F respectively. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. If none of the options given forms a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e. “None of these” as your answer. Question No. 61 Column (1): Column (2): (A) I would not have gone (D) the storm is approaching (B) We should move away from (E) they were afraid here (C) The girl was terrified (F) move on Options :

1. C-E

2. Both B-E and C-F

3. B-E

4. B-D

5. None of these



Question No. 62 Column (1): Column (2): (A) We should be able to differentiate (D) must possess a minimum level of skill and the desire to win. (B) Every member of the team (E) the team must gel together (C) The committee decided to give up (F) it had to be recommended Options :

1. B- E

2. A- D

3. C-D

4. B-D

5. None of these Question No. 63 Column (1): Column (2): (A) I think I will just take a backseat (D) as she was sure of the success. (B) It is not working (E) and try hard for it to be done. (C) He learnt how to programme (F) let everyone else get on with sorting matters out. Options :

1. B- F

2. A- E

3. C-E

4. A-F

5. None of these Question No. 64 Column (1): Column (2): (A) I could not manage (D) could you explain that again? (B) I am sorry I am in muddle (E) I have understood what you’re trying to say (C) She rushed to the hospital (F) reach safely Options :

1. B- D

2. A- D



3. C-E

4. A-F

5. None of these

Question No. 65 Column (1): Column (2): (A) The fact is that there’s been a huge increase (D) have further reduced (B) You have been in a lot of trouble lately (E) choose the best (C) I asked for permission (F) you would better toe the line from now on. Options :

1. A- E

2. A- F

3. B-F

4. C-D

5. None of these Directions (66-70): From the given sentences, choose the one which contains no error (ignore the errors of punctuation). If none of the sentences is correct, choose ‘None is correct’ as your answer.

Question No. 66 Find the grammatically correct sentence. Options :

1. In foreign policy, it is important for national leadership to choose their rhetoric carefully and back its words with at least modest action.

2. In foreign policy, it is importance for national leadership to choose its rhetoric carefully

and back its words with at least modest action.

3. In foreign policy, it is important for national leadership to chose its rhetoric carefully and back its words with at least modest action.

4. In foreign policy, it is important for national leadership to choose its rhetoric carefully and

back its words with at least modest action.

5. None is correct




1. With Pakistan’s international isolation deepening and its economy in dire straits, the military their is tactically seeking “peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.

2. With Pakistan’s international isolation deepening and its economy in dire straits, the

military there is tactically seeking “peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.


military there is tactics seeking “peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.


military there is tactics sought “peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.

5. None is correct


1. At present, courts are empower to grant a child’s custody to either parent depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

2. At present, courts are empowered to granting a child’s custody to either parents

depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

3. At present, courts are empowered to grant a child’s custody to either parent depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

4. At present, courts are empowered to grant a child’s custody to either parents depending

on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

5. None is correct Question No. 69 Find the grammatically correct sentence. Options :

1. The period between the oil shocks of the 1970s, which characterizes the demise of the post-war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age of Washington Consensus.

2. The period for the oil shocks of the 1970s, which characterizes the demise of the post-

war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age in Washington Consensus.



3. The period between the oil shocks of the 1970s, which character the demise of the post-war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age of Washington Consensus.

4. The period between the oil shocks of the 1970s, which character the demise of the post-

war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age in Washington Consensus.

5. None is correct


1. One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrim break-up from BJP and its initial role in opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own political compulsions.

2. One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrimonious break-up from BJP and its initial role in

opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own politics compulsions.

3. One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrim break-up with BJP and its initial role in opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own politics compulsions.

4. One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrimonious break-up with BJP and its initial role in

opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own political compulsions.

5. None is correct

Directions (71-75):

The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words denominated by A, B, C, D, E and F as answer choices and from the six choices you have to pick two correct answers, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Question No. 71 The ‘ISRO espionage case’ marked a ______________ chapter in the history of police investigation in the country.

(A) fulfilled (B) disgraceful (C) obligated (D) assignment (E) shameful (F) administrative

Options :

1. (A) and (D)

2. (B) and (C)

3. (C) and (F)

4. (C) and (E)

5. (B) and (E)



Question No. 72 The Supreme Court has ordered a stay on the Reserve Bank of India’s February 12 circular asking banks to ______________ loans as non-performing even if repayment was delayed by just one day, and resolve them within 180 days.

(A) recognize (B) apprehend (C) identify (D) assign (E) reprimand (F) execute

Options :

1. (A) and (D)

2. (A) and (C)

3. (C) and (B)

4. (C) and (F)

5. (B) and (E) Question No. 73 Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of _________________ on the next financial crisis that could be building up needs to be taken in all seriousness.

(A) guard (B) grace (C) thought (D) caution (E) vigilant (F) attention

Options :

1. (A) and (B)

2. (B) and (C)

3. (C) and (D)

4. (C) and (E)

5. (D) and (F) Question No. 74 Foreign investors in the Indian market are used to unexpected twists in the regulatory landscape, but they _______________ talk tough in the public domain.

(A) filling (B) knowing (C) seldom (D) usual (E) nowhere (F) rarely

Options :

1. (A) and (B)

2. (B) and (C)

3. (C) and (F)

4. (C) and (E)

5. (B) and (E)



Question No. 75 A shrinking vote share for the centrist parties and a notable showing by the far right in Sunday’s elections in Sweden ______________________ the growing anti-immigrant mood in the Nordic nations and across Europe.

(A) resonate (B) deflect (C) grow (D) announce (E) echo (F) supercede

Options :

1. (A) and (E)

2. (F) and (C)

3. (C) and (D)

4. (C) and (B)

5. (B) and (E) Direction (76-80): Select the phrase/connector (it must be at the start) from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences. Question No. 76 (a) The route to Kailash Mansarovar pilgrimage through Simikot is arduous.

(b) There is lack of proper road network and the pilgrims have to depend on air service which can operate only in clear weather.

(i) Whereas

(ii) The route to….as

(iii) The route to…..due to

Options :

1. Only ii

2. Both ii and iii

3. Only i

4. Both I and ii

5. None of these



Question No. 77 (a) They have had no respect for the company’s rules.

(b) Now everyone is suffering from the after-effects of the complacency.

(i) Besides having

(ii) Although

(iii) Having had

Options :

1. Only ii

2. Only iii

3. Only i

4. Both i and iii

5. None of these Question No. 78 (a) GDP measures income but fails to measure poverty, health and quality of life.

(b) GDP has become the single most important tool for Governments, financial institutions and policymakers.

(i) Nonetheless

(ii) However

(iii) Although

Options :

1. Only ii

2. Only i

3. Both I and ii

4. Only iii

5. None of these Question No. 79 (a) A similar operation was undertaken by nine commercial flights.

(b) They were used to evacuate 158 pilgrims from Simikot to Nepalganj.

(i) Besides using

(ii) Though they were

(iii) A similar operation .that



Options :

1. Only i

2. Both I and iii

3. Only iii

4. Both ii and iii

5. None of these Question No. 80 (a) The pilgrims have been stranded at Simikot amidst bad weather for a few days.

(b) The situation turned serious on Monday morning when Ms. Narayanan died due to high altitude-related sickness.

(i) While the pilgrims

(ii) Although

(iii) However

Options :

1. Only iii

2. Both i and ii

3. Only ii

4. Both ii and iii

5. None of these Directions (81-85): In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five choices given to make the passage complete and coherent (Coherent means logically complete and sound)

Question No. 81 The law that empowers the police to arrest people without warrants (Section 41 of the CrPC) is reasonably stringent, demanding that some conditions be met, including that such arrests be carried out to prevent commission of further offences, tampering of evidence, and influencing of witnesses. ___________________________. Recently, Tamil Nadu has attracted attention in this connection, particularly for the heavy-handed treatment of those opposing the Chennai-Salem eight-lane highway project. The latest in a slew of unjustified round-ups and arrests was Swaraj India Party’s chief, Yogendra Yadav; ironically, he was on nothing more than a fact-finding mission to meet farmers affected by or opposed to the project. Options :

1. In this prosecutorial ecosystem, jail succeeds in trumping bail almost every time and magistrates, who are empowered to refuse remand and grant bail, continue to issue orders mechanically.



2. Unfortunately, a power that affects the liberty of citizens and which can ‘bring humiliation… and cast scars forever’, as the Supreme Court noted in Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014), continues to be used in a cavalier way.

3. The prosecution has 180 days to file a charge sheet, a period during which bail is

routinely denied.

4. Mr. Yadav was let off, but in most cases arrests without warrant follow a dishearteningly familiar course, with the accused sent to custody after the police oppose bail.

5. None of these

Question No. 82 In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble: Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. __________________________. These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. Given that these are small loans up to ₹10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. Options :

1. The former RBI Governor has strongly defended the RBI against criticism, often unfair, over its policies on NPA recognition and resolution.

2. The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is ₹6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the

total outstanding bank credit.

3. Mr. Rajan’s advice on loan waivers has been made by him and others in the past.

4. The same logic holds true for crop loans made through Kisan Credit Cards.

5. None of these Question No. 83 There was a time when Pete Sampras’s tally of 14 Grand Slam singles titles — the last of which came at the U.S. Open in 2002 — seemed like the acme of sporting achievement in men’s tennis. ________________________________. On Sunday, Novak Djokovic became that third man, defeating Argentine Juan Martin del Potro, for his third U.S. Open title at Flushing Meadows. The 31-year-old Serb has never been considered a once-in-a-generation talent, as have Roger Federer and Rafael Nadal, the ones above him in the trophy count. But nobody represents the modern-day game as well as Djokovic. He is the ultimate practitioner of the attrition-based baseline tennis, and at his best, with his supremely efficient patrolling of the court, is near invincible. Options :

1. Little did anybody expect that in the next 16 years, across 64 Majors, not one or two but three players would stand shoulder to shoulder with the American great.

2. But adversity energised him, and he found a level which his opponent couldn’t match.



3. In fact, the 95-minute second set in the final was a microcosm of Djokovic’s last two years.

4. Over two weeks in New York he hit this high many times over.

5. None of these

Question No. 84 Ugandan President Yoweri Museveni has been apotheosised among African leaders by comparisons to Nelson Mandela or by labels such as “beacon of hope”. But a crackdown on political dissent last month in Arua, a town in northwestern Uganda, suggests that his regime may be gradually turning it into a de facto one-party state. It began on August 13, when Mr. Museveni was campaigning in Arua for a by-election.___________________________. Then, even as Mr. Museveni was leaving the area, his motorcade was stoned, allegedly by Bobi Wine’s supporters. The reprisal was swift and brutal. Police used teargas and shots on the crowds and security personnel “brutalised” Opposition members. Although street protests took place in the capital, Kampala, immediately after news broke of the events in Arua, civil unrest escalated after it became known that Bobi Wine and several other MPs had been arrested and apparently ill-treated in custody. Options :

1. Now a new generation of young Ugandans are united by the growing preponderance of social media, platforms that enable fierce debates over burning issues in national, not only local, politics.

2. On the surface, the Museveni government may have created the illusion that it has

smoothed over the violent episode, yet there is an open challenge from Bobi Wine that could shake the ruling National Resistance Movement (NRM) to its very core.

3. When Bobi Wine appeared in court several days later, he was on crutches; but he won a

reprieve by getting bail.

4. In a different part of town, a musician-turned-politician named Robert Kyagulanyi Ssentamu — known by his stage name Bobi Wine — also drew large crowds.

5. None of these

Question No. 85 If banks failed to comply with the RBI’s new rules, these stressed assets had to be forced to undergo swift insolvency proceedings under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). This comes just weeks after the Allahabad High Court refused to grant relief to troubled power companies facing action from the RBI. The apex court’s decision to overturn RBI rules and transfer all pleas seeking exception from them to itself is clearly the biggest challenge against the IBC yet. __________________. The postponement of the Supreme Court’s next hearing of the case to mid-November will send the signal that in contrast to hopes that asset resolution under the new bankruptcy regime would be done within a strict time frame, there are likely to be considerable delays in the resolution of stressed assets. Distressed power companies, and a number of other firms in the shipping, sugar and textile sectors, however, will be relieved as they are spared from bankruptcy proceedings for now. Options :

1. In mid-August, the polling firms were projecting that the odds were approximately 50-50 for both the parties wining the majority in the House.

2. Trump supporters and opposers sharply differ over his performance as President, and, for

that reason, these mid-terms become pivotal.



3. It is likely to cause significant uncertainty in the resolution of stressed assets and

undermine investor confidence in the bankruptcy process.

4. At present, the ruling Republicans control both the chambers of Congress.

5. None of these Directions (86-95): In the passage given below, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word.

Eradication of poverty poses two (86) ……. First, the ongoing programmes need to be continually monitored and evaluated to make them more effective and synergic and also to extend their reach. The second, and a more formidable challenge, is to bring into the mainstream those who (87) ……… left out of the processes of growth and development.

Poverty can be (88) …… by well – conceived programmes. But removing ‘exclusion’ – a factor that severely impairs any development effort (89) ……..creating an island of discontent – (90) ……. societal reforms that are far more difficult to implement. Given the increasing attention the objective of ‘inclusive growth’ has been getting in (91) ……. times, India’s policy perspective related to poverty alleviation must go beyond the ‘poverty line’ and extend to structures and processes underlying ‘exclusion’.

The two books under (92) ……… provide a wealth of ground level data (93) ……. the excluded groups and they are presented under the conventional groupings – the Scheduled Castes; the Scheduled Tribes; and women. For obvious reasons, there is some overlapping (94) …… the two, and this review is based chiefly (95) ……. the first book, Poverty and social Exclusion in India.

Question No. 86 Choose the most appropriate answer.

Options :

1. problems

2. solutions

3. changes

4. Challenges

5. None of these Question No. 87 Choose the most appropriate answer.

Options :

1. have

2. has been

3. will be

4. have been

5. None of these



Question No. 88 Choose the most appropriate answer.

Options :

1. aggravated

2. aggravated

3. increased

4. raised


Options :

1. of

2. from

3. by

4. for

5. None of these Question No. 90 Choose the most appropriate answer. Options :

1. required

2. requires

3. require

4. have required


Options : 1. current

2. now a days

3. previous

4. Recent

5. None of these



Question No. 92 Choose the most appropriate answer. Options : 1. construction 2. writing 3. review 4. scrutiny 5. None of these Question No. 93 Choose the most appropriate answer. Options :

1. of

2. on

3. from

4. to

5. None of these Question No. 94 Choose the most appropriate answer. Options :

1. among

2. during

3. through

4. between


Options : 1. of

2. on

3. from

4. to

5. None of these



Direction (96-100):

A sentence is divided into five parts (1), (A), (B), (C), (D). There is an error in the parts (A), (B), (C) and (D) which makes the sentence grammatically or contextually incorrect. Choose the option with parts containing error and ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.

Please note that the sentence marked as (1) in bold will be correct and an error if any of the parts will only be in two parts. Question No. 96 The poor (1) are getting effected (A) disproportionately with respect to (B)/ their limited contribution on (C)/ a rise in global temperature (D).

Options :

1. BD

2. CD

3. AB

4. AC

5. No Error Question No. 97 The next ten years (1) did prove to be critical (A)/ in terms of human responses (B)/ across all economic sectors and countries (C)/ to mitigating climate change (D). Options :

1. AC

2. AD

3. BC

4. BD

5. No Error Question No. 98 The Supreme Court’s observations (1),/ while denying bail to defence analyst Abhijit Iyer-Mitra, (A)/ to the effect that he incites religious feelings (B)/ in a video posted on social media, (C)/ was out of place in what was a bail hearing (D). Options :

1. AC

2. AD

3. BC

4. BD

5. No Error



Question No. 99 In a mature democracy (1),/ the casual resort to (A)/ criminal prosecution to perceived (B)/ insults to either a religion or a class (C)/ of society ought to be active discouraged (D). Options :

1. AD

2. BD

3. BC

4. CD

5. No Error Question No. 100 Along with the celebrations, (1) / this statistic gives reason for (A)/ the community of scientists to (B)/ introspect over what makes an enabling environment (C)/ for women to practise science in (D).

Options :

1. AD

2. BD

3. BC

4. CD

5. No Error

Section: Quantitative Aptitude Directions (101-105): Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below : Percentage of failed student in different exams :



Ratio of failed and passed girls to the boys:

Question No. 101 If total number of students in RBI Grade B is 8000, then what will be the number of pass boys in RBI Grade B? Options :

1. 1000

2. 2400

3. 3600

4. 1520

5. None of these Question No. 102 If number of failed students in SBI PO is 3600, then what will be the number of failed girls in SBI PO? Options :

1. 1444

2. 1251

3. 1500

4. 1680

5. None of these



Question No. 103 If number of failed students in Nabard Grade A is 5400, then what is the total number of students in Nabard Grade A? Options :

1. 12000

2. 14100

3. 14200

4. 17400

5. None of these Question No. 104 If total number of students passed in IBPS PO is 3600, then what is the number of girls failed in same exam? Options :

1. 842

2. 784

3. 450

4. 900

5. 655 Question No. 105 If total number of students in Indian Bank PO and SBI PO is 4200, then how many students failed in both the exams together? Options :

1. 1880

2. 1120

3. 1450

4. 1680

5. cannot be determined



Directions (106-110): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series? Question No. 106 140 92 137 95 ? 98 Options :

1. 134

2. 104

3. 112

4. 136

5. None of these Question No. 107 7 12 ? 117.25 532.125 2932.1875 Options :

1. 38.25

2. 36.25

3. 39.75

4. 32.5

5. None of these Question No. 108 4 5 14 51 ? 1125 Options :

1. 220

2. 260

3. 200

4. 240

5. None of these



Question No. 109 12 6 17 ? 191 953 Options :

1. 49

2. 43

3. 47

4. 51

5. None of these Question No. 110 22 12 -2 26 -51 ? Options :

1. 99.5

2. 81.25

3. 69.75

4. 78.5

5. None of these Question No. 111 A tank is fitted with 4 pipes, some of which that fill the tank and others that empty the tank. Each of the pipes that fills the tank fills it in 4 hours, while each of those that empty the tank empties it in 3 hours. If all the pipes are kept open when the tank is full, it will take 6 hours to drain the tank. How many of these are filling pipes? Options :

1. (4)

2. (6)

3. (3)

4. (2)

5. (5)



Question No. 112 The average monthly salary of 13 workers and 5 managers in a factory was 500. When one of the managers whose salary was 620, was replaced with a new manager, the average salary of the team went down to 480. Find the salary of the new manager?

Options :

1. 160

2. 260

3. 320

4. 280

5. 340 Question No. 113 A sum of money invested for a certain number of years at 8% p.a. simple interest amounts to Rs.360. The same sum of money invested for the same number of years at 4% p.a. simple interest amounts to Rs.240only. For how many years was the sum invested?

Options :

1. 28 years

2. 27 years

3. 25 years

4. 23 years

5. 20 years Question No. 114 Ankit, Sushil and Mayank enter into a partnership by investing Rs.1800, 2200 and 1400. Ankit is a working partner and gets one-fourth of the profit for his services and the remaining profit is divided among the three in the ratio of their investments. What is the amount of profit that Sushil gets if Ankit gets a total of Rs. 3600?

Options :

1. 2400

2. 2200

3. 2600

4. 2800

5. None of these



Question No. 115 The barrel of a fountain pen is cylindrical in shape whose radius of base is 1.4 cm and is 10 cm long. One such barrel in the pen can be used to write 150 words. A barrel full of ink which has a capacity of 123.2 cubic cm can be used to write how many words?

Options :

1. 300

2. 275

3. 250

4. 325

5. None of these Directions (116-120): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Savings of different friends in two months.



Question No. 116 Savings of Mohit in August is approximately what percent more than the savings of Karan in July? Options :

1. 100%

2. 120%

3. 150%

4. 135%

5. 140% Question No. 117 If Karan gave 26% of his savings in July to his mom and 10% to charity and Sudhanshu gave 25% of his savings in August to his brother and 15% of his savings to charity, then find ratio between the remaining savings of Karan in July to that of Sudhanshu in August? Options :

1. 248:759

2. 616:1311

3. 156:567

4. 342:1155

5. None of these Question No. 118 Find the average savings of Neeraj and Sudhanshu in August and Deepesh, Mohit and Karan in July? Options :

1. 1660.5

2. 1870

3. 1618

4. 1826

5. 1789.5



Question No. 119 Find the difference between the central angle of savings of Sudhanshu in July to that of the central angle of savings of Neeraj in same month? Options :

1. 28.6 degree

2. 30.2 degree

3. 32.4 degree

4. 36.5 degree

5. None of these Question No. 120 Find the total amount of savings of Neeraj and Mohit together in both the months? Options :

1. Rs 5750

2. Rs 6402.5

3. Rs 7325

4. Rs 6287.5

5. None of these Directions (121-125): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? Question No. 121 (44 × 33 ) ÷ 2.2 + 36% of 6250 + ? = 46% of 9240 - (28 × 25 ) ÷ 1.4 Options :

1. 740.2

2. 840.4

3. 780.2

4. 820.2

5. None of these



Question No. 122 32 × 28 × 1.5 + 15% of 3250 - ? = 42% of 8450 - 52% of 10500 Options :

1. 3742.5

2. 3924.25

3. 3648.25

4. 3526.5

5. None of these Question No. 123 34% of 6850 + 54 × 26 × 2.5 + ? = (24 × 35 ) ÷ 1.2 + 52% of 10250 + 28% of 5650 Options :

1. 1814

2. 1651

3. 1773

4. 1522

5. None of these Question No. 124 24% of 5450 - ? + 152 ÷ (0.5) 2 = 42% of 6450 + (32 × 25 ) ÷ 1.6 - 36% of 7050 Options :

1. 1632

2. 1475

3. 1537

4. 1345

5. None of these Question No. 125 2/3 of 4/5 of 12% of 24250 = ? + 24% of 4850 - 35% of 4640 Options :

1. 2120

2. 2130



3. 2310

4. 2012

5. None of these Directions (126-130): Study the following line graph carefully and answer the given questions :

Number of students (in hundreds) in three different universities.

Question No. 126 Find the approx. average number of students in G.E.U.

Options :

1. 1667

2. 2100

3. 1800

4. 2500

5. 3000



Question No. 127 Find the ratio between the total number of students in UPES in 2015 and 2016 together and in LPU in 2014 and 2017. Options :

1. 5:7

2. 3:1

3. 3:7

4. 4:9

5. None of these Question No. 128 Find the average number of students in UPES in 2012, 2013, 2016 and 2017.

Options :

1. 2420

2. 2550

3. 2325

4. 2250

5. None of these Question No. 129 Find the difference between the total number of students in 2012 and 2016 in all the three universities.

Options :

1. 4500

2. 3500

3. 2750

4. 1500

5. None of these



Question No. 130 Total number of students in the GEU in 2015 and 2012 was approximately what percentage of the total number of students in LPU in 2013 and 2014?

Options :

1. 43%

2. 33%

3. 41%

4. 37%

5. 31% Direction (131-135): In these questions, a question is given followed by information in three statements. You have to consider the information in all the three statements and decide the information in which of the statement(s) is not necessarily required to answer the question and therefore can be dispensed with. Indicate your answer accordingly. Question No. 131 Find the Sakshi’s present age?

I. Sakshi’s present age is three times the age of her daughter.

II. Ratio between present ages of Sakshi and her father is 3:4 respectively.

III. Five years hence the ratio between Sakshi’s age and her daughter’s age will be 29:13 respectively.

Options :

1. Only II

2. Only III

3. Either I or II only

4. Either II or III only

5. None of these Question No. 132 At what time will the train reach Dehradun from Saharanpur?

I.The train crosses another train of equal length of 400 metres and running in opposite directions in 15 seconds.

II. The train leaves Saharanpur at 8 a.m. for Dehradun situated at a distance of 1176 km.

III. The 400 metres long train crosses a signal pole in 20 seconds.



Options :

1. Only I

2. Only II

3. III only

4. II and III only

5. All I, II and III Question No. 133 What is the length of a running train X crossing another running train Y?

I.These two trains take 15 seconds to cross each other.

II.These trains are running in opposite directions.

III. The length of the train Y is 240 metres.

Options :

1. Only II

2. Only III

3. Either I or II only

4. Either II or III only

5. None of these Question No. 134 Find the area of circle?

I. The radius of the circle is one fourth the length of a rectangle and the breadth of the rectangle is one fourth the length of the rectangle.

II. The radius of the circle is equal to the sided of a square.

III. The area of the square is 1,444 sq. cm.

Options :

1. Only I

2. Only I and III

3. Only II and III

4. Any two of them

5. All together are necessary



Question No. 135 What was the age of Karan 3 years ago?

I. Kaushal is four years years older than Karan.

II. The ratio of Kaushal’s present age to Karan’s is 3:2.

III. The difference between the age of Kaushal and that of Badal is 22 years.

Options :

1. Only III

2. Only I and II

3. Only II

4. Only II and III

5. All together are necessary Question No. 136 Raghav bought two mobiles in a total of Rs. 9600. He sold first mobile at a profit of 60% and second mobile at a loss of 80%. In the whole transaction he got a net profit of 25%. Find the cost price of each mobile. Options :

1. Rs 7200 and Rs 2400

2. Rs 4800 and Rs 4800

3. Rs 5200 and Rs 4400

4. Cannot be determined

5. Rs 4600 and Rs 5000 Question No. 137 Deepak wants to go from London to Manchester via train but due to some problem he misses his train and he has to hire a taxi for it. The charge of taxi for this trip is 150% more than that by train. Charges per km by train is Rs. 6. If train takes 13/6 hours to cover the required distance with an average speed of 25 m/sec, then find charge given by Deepak to taxi driver. Options : 1. Rs 2750 2. Rs 2925 3. Rs 3125 4. Rs 2550 5. None of these



Question No. 138 The present population of a village is 30,000. The population increases in next year at a rate of 25% but in further next year the population decreases by a certain rate. If after two years, the population is 28,125 then find the rate of decrement of population in second year. Options :

1. 25%

2. 15%

3. 30%

4. 20%

5. None of these Question No. 139 The height of a hollow cone is (100/3)% more than that of side of a square whose perimeter is 54 meters. The diameter of base of cone is 32 meters. If cost of painting of outer surface of cone is Rs. 14/m² then what is the total cost to paint the outer surface of cone? Options :

1. Rs 16,896

2. Rs 18,294

3. Rs 18,924

4. Rs 17,264

5. None of these Question No. 140 What is the probability of getting a number from first 40 natural numbers (including the extreme numbers also) which is either a multiple of 3 or 4? Options :

1. 7/20

2. 17/20

3. 21/40

4. 19/40

5. None of these



Directions (141-145): In each of these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

Question No. 141 I. 2x2 + 21x + 49 = 0

II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established Question No. 142 I. 24y2 +55y - 24 = 0

II. 16x2 + 46x + 15 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y Question No. 143 I. 6y2 - 19y + 10 = 0

II. 9x2 - 27x + 14 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y



Question No. 144 I. 6x2 + 37x + 45 = 0

II. 6y2 + 19y + 10 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y Question No. 145 I. y2 - 4y - 77 = 0

II. x2 - 25x + 156 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y Question No. 146 An alloy of zinc and silver has 60% zinc. Another alloy of zinc and carbon has zinc and carbon in the ratio 4: 5. These two alloys are mixed in ratio 3:1. Quantity of silver is what percent more/less than the quantity of zinc in final alloy.

Options :

1. 25%

2. 15%

3. 12.5%

4. 35%

5. None of these



Question No. 147 20 men, working 4 hours a day can do a piece of work in 15/2 days. Find the number of days in which second group of 30 men working 2 hrs a day can do twice the work. Assume that 6 men of the first group do as much work in 2 hour as 8 men of the second group do in 3 hrs. Options :

1. 30 days

2. 40 days

3. 60 days

4. 80 days

5. None of these Question No. 148 A shopkeeper marks up the price of his product by 20%. If he increases the discount from 10% to 15%,the profit would decrease by Rs 36. How much LOSS would he earn if he gives a discount of 30% on the marked price? Options :

1. Rs 264

2. Rs 242

3. Rs 210

4. Rs 216

5. None of these Question No. 149 Sunil borrowed a certain sum of money from Kanchan under the following repayment scheme based on simple interest. 10% p.a. for the initial 2 years, 8% p.a. for the next 2 years, 6% p.a. for the next 2 years, 12% p.a. after the first 6 years. Find the amount which a sum of Rs. 8000 taken for 12 years becomes at the end of 12 years? Options :

1. Rs 14260

2. Rs 16430

3. Rs 15680

4. Rs 16440

5. None of these



Question No. 150 Rinku and Tinku are travelling from point P to Q, which are 30 km apart. Travelling at a certain speed Rinku takes 1/2 hour more than Tinku to reach point Q. If Rinku doubles his speed he will take 15 minutes less than Tinku to reach point Q. At what speed was Rinku driving from point P to Q? Options :

1. 20 km/hr

2. 30 km/hr

3. 25 km/hr

4. 40 km/hr

5. None of these

Section: Professional Knowlege Question No. 151 Mutual funds in India are registered with

Options :

1. SUUTI

2. GoI

3. SEBI

4. RBI

5. Both SEBI and RBI Question No. 152 An investment fund that is traded on an exchange is known as

Options :

1. Mutual fund

2. ETF

3. AIF

4. VC fund

5. Hedge Fund



Question No. 153 Which of the following is not a benefit from a Mutual Fund? Options :

1. Investor has custody of securities where fund invests.

2. Investor is able to diversify risk

3. Investor can save costs

4. Investor can get professional management to manage his money.

5. Diversification Question No. 154 Which of the following is NOT a small savings scheme of the government? Options :

1. Public Provident Fund (PPF)

2. Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP)

3. National Savings Certificate (NSC)

4. Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme (SSS)

5. None of the above Question No. 155 Mutual Fund schemes are first offered to investors through: Options :

1. IPO

2. NFO

3. Stock Exchange

4. AMFI

5. Depositories Question No. 156 A SIP plan of mutual funds is said to be one of the safest way to invest in markets for a retail investor. What does an SIP stand for? Options :

1. Stock investment Plan

2. Systematic Investment Plan



3. Securities Investment Program

4. Smart Investment Program

5. Secure Investment Program

Question No. 157 Short term capital asset in relation to shares and units of mutual funds means a capital asset held by an assesse ________ Options :

1. for more than twelve months immediately preceding the date of its transfer

2. for more than thirty six months immediately preceding the date of its transfer

3. for not more than twelve months immediately preceding the date of its transfer

4. for not more than thirty six months immediately preceding the date of its transfer

5. None of the above Question No. 158 What is a ULIP? Options :

1. Unit Linked Investment Plan

2. Unit Linked Insurance Plan

3. Unsecured Liabilities Investment Product

4. Unique Leveraged Investment Product

5. Unique Leveraged Insurance Product Question No. 159 The regulator of insurance products in India is? Options :

1. RBI

2. SEBI

3. IRDA

4. PFRDA

5. AMFI



Question No. 160 What is the main benefit of Estate Planning?

Options :

1. Peace of mind

2. To avoid probate

3. To ensure the property passes to the intended person

4. To plan health care treatment

5. All of the above Question No. 161 An investor can open the following number of PPF accounts Options :

1. (1)

2. (2)

3. (3)

4. (5)

5. Any number of accounts Question No. 162 Health insurance can help in tax planning by allowing deduction under which section of Income tax Act? Options :

1. 80 C

2. 80 CCC

3. 80 D

4. 80 E

5. 80 G Question No. 163 A “Hybrid fund ” is the one that: Options :

1. Invests in both bonds and stocks

2. Started as a closed-end investment company, but changed to a mutual fund

3. Different “Loads” for different classes of investors in the fund



4. Can serve as an investment vehicle, but also provides check writing privileges

5. All of the above Question No. 164 The maturity period of liquid fund is maximum _____ days. Options :

1. 181

2. 270

3. 450

4. 91

5. 364 Question No. 165 Which of the following cannot extend a loan to an individual/business?

Options :

1. Commercial Bank

2. Small finance Bank

3. Payments Bank

4. NBFC

5. All of the above can extend loans Question No. 166 An investor cannot earn interest on which of the following products?

Options :

1. Bank Current account

2. Bank Savings account

3. Corporate Fixed deposit

4. Corporate NCD

5. None of the above



Question No. 167 SIDBI stands for Options :

1. Speciality Investment Development Bank of India

2. Solar Industries Development Bank of India

3. Small Industries Development Bank of India

4. Savings and Insurance Development Bank of India

5. State Investment for Development Bank of India Question No. 168 Banks check the CIBIL of an individual borrower to know his/her ________

Options :

1. Bank balance

2. Income profile

3. KYC details

4. Credit score

5. None of the above Question No. 169 Bank of Baroda was nationalized in Options :

1. 1949

2. 1969

3. 1974

4. 1980

5. 1998 Question No. 170 Bancassurance is a relationship between Bank and– Options :

1. Education

2. Insurance Company

3. Employee



4. Customer

5. All of these Question No. 171 The interest rate on PPF currently (Dec 2018) is Options :

1. 7.6%

2. 7.8%

3. 8.0%

4. 8.2%

5. 8.5% Question No. 172 Which of the following is not a public sector bank in India?

Options :

1. Andhra Bank

2. Federal Bank

3. IDBI Bank

4. Vijaya Bank

5. None of the above Question No. 173 General Insurance Corporation of India was founded in Options :

1. 1956

2. 1969

3. 1972

4. 1981




Question No. 174 Which of the following insurance products are NOT provided by LIC in India? Options :

1. Term insurance plan

2. Endowment insurance plan

3. Unit linked insurance plan

4. Motor insurance

5. All of the above are provided by LIC Question No. 175 RTGS is one of the funds transfer mechanisms used by banks to transfer money. What does RTGS stand for? Options :

1. Real time gross payment system

2. Rare time gross payment system

3. Real time gross settlement

4. Rare time gross settlement

5. None of the above Question No. 176 A company can take a loan from various financial institutions like banks or NBFCs. What is an NBFC? Options :

1. Network of Banking and Financial Co-operatives

2. New Banks and Finance Company

3. Nationalized Banks and Financial Companies

4. Non-Banking Financial Company

5. New Business Financing companies Question No. 177 National Pension System (NPS) is a pension cum investment scheme launched by Government of India to provide old age security to Citizens of India. NPS is regulated by? Options :

1. RBI

2. SEBI



3. IRDA

4. PFRDA

5. None of the above Question No. 178 Which one of the following does not belong to the major general insurance private sector companies in India? Options :

1. Bajaj Allianz General Insurance

2. Reliance General Insurance

3. Royal Sundaram General Insurance

4. Tata AIG General Insurance

5. The Oriental Insurance Company Question No. 179 When was the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority constituted? Options :

1. 1938

2. 1956

3. 1971

4. 1993

5. 1999 Question No. 180 In a saving account, money can be deposited on Options :

1. quarterly basis

2. annual basis

3. as per the convenience of the depositor

4. monthly basis

5. in one lump sum



Question No. 181 What two factors determine prices in a market Options :

1. Demand and supply

2. Inflation and unemployment

3. Number of buyers and sellers

4. Interest rates and exchange rates

5. None of these Question No. 182 Primary Focus of wealth manager is Options :

1. Client

2. Service

3. Market

4. Both A and C

5. All A,B and C Question No. 183 Bank of Baroda has initiated a major Business Process Reengineering to give a big boost to sales growth by enhancing customer satisfaction and by making possible alternate channel migration thus reinventing itself to challenges of the 21st century. What is the name of this project?

Options :

1. Project Avnayan

2. Project Navnirmaan

3. Project Avgunthit

4. Project Rachna

5. Project Drishti Question No. 184 While designing a client specific plan, the wealth manager is concerned about_______

I. Data gathering and goal setting

II. Identification of financial issues

III. Recommendations and implementation of periodic review



IV. Revision of client plan

Options :

1. Except IV

2. Except III

3. Except I

4. All

5. I and II only Question No. 185 When an investor is reluctant to take risk for gain but will take risk to avoid loss is called _______ Options :

1. Risk suppression

2. Risk Aversion

3. Loss Aversion

4. Loss Repression

5. Loss Suppression Question No. 186 Direct tax does not include Options :

1. Wealth Tax

2. Corporation Tax

3. Sales Tax

4. Estate Tax

5. Income Tax Question No. 187 Cross-selling means ________ Options :

1. Selling a interrelated services

2. Cross country marketing

3. Selling other products to existing customers

4. Selling to insurance firms

5. Selling to employees



Question No. 188 Sales forecasting involves Options :

1. sales planning

2. distribution channels

3. sales pricing

4. All of the above

5. None of the above Question No. 189 Which type of life insurance contract designed to pay a lump-sum after a specified term on its maturity Options :

1. Universal life coverage

2. Endowments

3. Unit linked Insurance

4. Term Insurance

5. None Question No. 190 The balance sheet of an organization gives information regarding _________. Options : 1. Result of operations for a particular period 2. The financial position as on a particular date 3. The operating efficiency of the firm 4. Financial position during a particular period 5. The operating health of the firm



Question No. 191 ESOP stands for ___________. Options :

1. Efficient Service of Promises

2. Employees Service Option Projects

3. Effective System of Projects

4. Employees Stock Option Plan

5. Essential Security of Police Question No. 192 Sales are declining, profits are declining and competition is increasing. These indicate that the product may be in:

Options :

1. Introduction stage

2. Decline stage

3. growth stage

4. All the above

5. None of the above Question No. 193 SWOT Analysis refers to _________.

Options :

1. Marketing tool to understand constraints and potentials of self and competitor

2. External environment analysis

3. Internal environment analysis

4. Strategic planning for selling product

5. South-west organization for trade



Question No. 194 In banks ROA means __________.

Options :

1. Rate of Allocation

2. Return on Assets

3. Return on Advances

4. Ratio of Assets

5. Only (B) and (C) Question No. 195 Giffen goods are the goods for which demand decrease when their prices

Options :

1. Increase

2. Decrease

3. Remains constant

4. Reduce to a certain level

5. None of these Question No. 196 What tends to happen in the short term when there is excess demand in a market Options :

1. Prices rises in the market

2. Prices fall in the market

3. Governments intervene by raising taxes

4. Businesses makes lower profits




Question No. 197 BEP Stands for: Options :

1. Breaking equity point

2. Breaking every point of sales

3. Break Even Point

4. A and B

5. None Question No. 198 Advertising and sales promotion, public relations are three of the five tools of the promotion mix. The other two are Options :

1. Personal selling, direct marketing

2. Home banking, internet banking

3. Neither of the above

4. Physical evidence and people

5. None of the above Question No. 199 HNI stands for: Options :

1. Hindustan National Investment

2. High National Investment

3. High Net worth Individual

4. High National Investment

5. None



Question No. 200 Mutual fund business from existing bank customers can be mobilized through

Options :

1. Road-shows

2. carpet bombing

3. telemarketing

4. cross- selling

5. online marketing



Answers and Explanations Question.1. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From (i), (ii) and (iii), we will get the basic information as shown below:

From (i), S lives on floor no. 3.

From (iii), we will have two cases:

The one who likes Versace lives either on floor no. 1 or 5. As P lives on an odd-numbered floor

From (i), (iii) and (iv), in

Case (i) and case (ii), If P lives on floor no. 5, then T will live on floor no. 6. As there are two floors between the floor on which W lives and the floor on which T lives but here S lives on floor no.3.

If P lives on floor no. 1, then T will live on floor no. 2. W lives on floor no.5. As there is only one floor between P and the floor on which person who likes Puma lives but the one who likes Puma cannot lives on floor no. 3.

So, only floor left for P, T and W are floor no. 7, 8 and 5 respectively. The one who likes Puma live on floor no. 5. The person who likes Diesel lives on floor no. 4.

But case (ii) will get discarded as there is no floor left for the one who likes Puma.

So, we will continue with case (i).



From (ii), only even numbered floor left for the one who likes Zara is floor no. 8 and the person who likes Adidas lives on floor no. 7.

From (iv), U lives on floor no. 6.

From (v), The person who likes Burberry cannot not live on floor no. 2 as there is no floor no. left for the one who likes Gucci. So, only even numbered floor left for the one who likes Burberry lives on floor no. 6 and the one who likes Gucci lives on floor no. 3.

Only brand and person left for floor no.2 is Levis and R.

Only person left for floor no. 1 is V does not like Levis.

Final arrangement as shown below:



Question.2. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: From (i), (ii) and (iii), we will get the basic information as shown below:








Question.6. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Decoded statement: P ≤ Q, Q > R, S = R, T > S

Decoded conclusion: I. P > T II. Q < T III. S ≤ P

Combined Inequalities: P ≤ Q > R = S < T

P ≤ Q > R = S < T No relationship can be established between P and T. Hence conclusion I is not true.

P ≤ Q > R = S < T No relationship can be established between Q and T. Hence conclusion II is not true.

P ≤ Q > R = S < T No relationship can be established between S and P. Hence conclusion III is not true.

Question.7. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Decoded statement: J < K, K = L, L ≥ M, M ≤ N

Decoded conclusion: I. N > M II. N = M III. L > J

Combined Inequalities: J < K = L ≥ M ≤ N

J < K = L ≥ M ≤ N M ≤ N. Hence either conclusion I or II is true.

J < K = L ≥ M ≤ N J < L. Hence conclusion III is true.

Question.8. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Decoded statement: G ≥ H, H > I, I = J, K < J



Decoded conclusion: I. G > K II. H > K III. G < I

Combined Inequalities: G ≥ H > I = J > K

G ≥ H > I = J > K G > K. Hence conclusion I is true.

G ≥ H > I = J > K H > K. Hence conclusion II is true.

G ≥ H > I = J > K G > I. Hence conclusion III is not true.

Question.9. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Decoded statement: A < B, B ≤ C, D > C, D ≥ E

Decoded conclusion: I. A ≥ E II. B ≥ E III. D > A

Combined Inequalities: A < B ≤ C < D ≥ E

A < B ≤ C < D ≥ E No relationship can be established between A and E. Hence conclusion I is not true.

A < B ≤ C < D ≥ E No relationship can be established between B and E. Hence conclusion II is not true.

A < B ≤ C < D ≥ E D > A. Hence conclusion III is true.

Question.10. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Decoded statement: U ≤ V, V ≥ W, W = X, X < Y

Decoded conclusion: I. U > V II. W = U III. X > V

Combined Inequalities: U ≤ V ≥ W = X < Y

U ≤ V ≥ W = X < Y U ≤ V. Hence neither conclusion I nor II is true.

U ≤ V ≥ W = X < Y No relationship can be established between X and V. Hence conclusion III is not true.

Question.11. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:




Shortest distance between K and M = 6 + 6 = 12 m



but we are given that distance between KL and LM is different so either KL = 6 and LM = 4 or KL = 4 and LM = 6

so shortest distance between KM = 6 + 4 = 4 + 6 = 10 m

Question.16. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: All travellers are adventurers (A) + No adventurer is dealer (E) ⇒ No traveller is a dealer (E). Hence option 1 is not correct.

Some dealers are adventurers (I) + Some callers are travellers (I) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 2 is not correct.

Some dealers are travellers (I) + All travellers are adventurers (A) ⇒ Some dealers are adventurers (I). Hence option 3 is correct.

Some dealers are travellers (I) + No adventurer is dealer (E) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 4 is not correct.

Question.17. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Some mouse are nests (I) + Some rubbers are mouse (I) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 1 is not correct.

Some rubbers are mouse (I) + Some yolks are mouse (I) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 2 is not correct.

Some mouse are nests (I) + All nests are yolks (A) ⇒ Some mouse are yolks (I) ⇒ Conversion ⇒ Some yolks are mouse (I). Hence option 3 is correct.

Some yolks are mouse (I) + All nests are yolks (A) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 4 is not correct.



Question.18. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Some rain are cloud (I) + Some umbrella are cloud (I) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 1 is not correct.

Some umbrella are colours (I) ⇒ conversion ⇒ Some colours are umbrella (I) + All umbrella are rain

(A) ⇒ Some colours are rain (I) ⇒ conversion ⇒ Some rain are colours (I). Hence option 2 is not correct.

All umbrella are rain (A) + Some rain are cloud (I) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence option 3 is not correct but option 4 is correct.

Question.19. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Some footpaths are lamps (I) + All lamps are hoardings (A) ⇒ Some footpaths are hoardings (I) ⇒

Conversion ⇒ Some hoardings are footpaths (I) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ All footpath may be hoarding (A). Hence conclusion I follows.

All roads are streets (A) + Some streets are lanes (I) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ All roads may be lanes (A). Hence conclusion II follows but conclusion IV does not follow.

Some streets are lanes (I) + No lane is footpath (E) ⇒ Some streets are not footpath (I). Hence conclusion III follows

Question.20. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: No comb is pin (E) + All pins are clips (A) ⇒ Some clips are not combs (O*) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ All combs may be clips (A). Hence conclusion I follows.

Some bands are combs (I) + No comb is pin (E) ⇒ Some bands are not pins (O) ⇒ Probable conclusion

⇒ Some bands may be pins (I). Hence conclusion II does not follow but conclusion V follows.

Some clips are rubbers (I) + All rubbers are stones (A) ⇒ Some clips are stones (I). Hence conclusion III follows.

All pins are clips (A) + Some clips are rubbers (I) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ Some pins are rubbers (I)

+ All rubbers are stones (A) ⇒ ⇒ Some pins are stones (I) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ All pins may be stones (A). Hence conclusion IV follows.

Question.21. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: From (ii), we will have two cases:

If S and V sits either at place no. 9 or 4 and faces either inside the centre or outside the centre.

From (ii), (v) and (iv), If S faces the centre, then T sits at place no. 8.

If S faces outside the centre, then T sits at place no. 10.

From (iii), we will have two subcases:

Case (i).a. If Y sits at place no. 2 and faces the centre, then W sits at place no.1.

From (v), X is sitting one of the corner. So, X will sit at place no. 6.

From (iv) and (v), P cannot sit at place no. 5 as X is not an immediate neighbour of P. So, P will sit at place no. 10 and U will sit place no. 3 and faces the centre.



Only person left for Q and R is either at place no. 7 and 5 but we also know that Q is not an immediate neighbour of X. So, this case will get discarded.

Case (i).b. If Y sits at place no. 6 and faces outside the centre, then W sits at place no.7.


From (iv) and (v), P cannot sit at place no. 10 as X is not an immediate neighbour of P. So, P will sit at place no. 5 but we have no place left for U. So, this case will get discarded.

Case (ii).a. If Y sits at place no. 6 and faces outside the centre, then W sits at place no.7.


From (iv) and (v), P will sit at place no. 5 and U will sit place no. 8 and faces outside the centre. As Q is not an immediate neighbour of X. So, Q and R will sit at place no. 3 and 2 respectively. R faces outside the centre.



Case (ii).b. If Y sits at place no. 2 and faces the centre, then W sits at place no.2.


From (iv) and (v), P cannot sit at place no. 10 and T is already sitting on place no. 10. So, this case will get discarded.

From (ii), X likes Jalebi and faces the centre, the one who likes Rasgulla will sit at place no. 2.

From (iv), the one who likes Gulab Jamun sits at place no. 6. P likes Kaju kathli and faces the centre and T will also faces the centre.

From (iii), The one who likes Petha sits at place no. 4.

It is clear that Q will face outside the centre.

From (v), the one who likes Peda sits at place no. 8.

From (i), The one who likes Laddu sits at place no. 3.

Only sweet left for W is Rajbhog.




Question.26. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Reverse numerical value of last letter in the word ‘secure’ i.e. ‘E’ → 22

Immediate succeeding of second letter in a word ‘secure’ i.e. ‘E’ → F

Immediate succeeding of first letter in a word ‘secure’ i.e. ‘S’ → T

Question.27. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Reverse numerical value of last letter in the word ‘friends’ i.e. ‘S’ → 8

Immediate succeeding of second letter in a word ‘friends’ i.e. ‘R’ → S

Immediate succeeding of first letter in a word ‘friends’ i.e. ‘F’ → G

Question.28. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Reverse numerical value of last letter in the word ‘confidently’ i.e. ‘Y’ → 2



Immediate succeeding of second letter in a word ‘confidently’ i.e. ‘O’ → P

Immediate succeeding of first letter in a word ‘confidently’ i.e. ‘C’ → D

Question.29. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: We will draw family from the above information:

From (ii), we will have two cases:

Case 1.

Meghna’s husband is Mohit, who uses Slack sits at place no. 10 and Ankit sits at place no. 8. Meghna’s uncle is Amit sits at place no. 7.

From (iii), Naveen’s daughter is Manisha sits at place no. 4.

From (i) and (iv), Ankit’s grandfather is Naveen cannot sit at place no. 3 and 5. If he sits at place no. 2, then Meghna’s father i.e. Peter sits at place no. 5. Meghna cannot sit at place no. 9. So, only place left for Meghna is place no. 6. This case will get discarded as only one person sits between Peter’s sister i.e. Manisha and Naveen’s brother i.e. Rohit. But Naveen is already sitting in the respective place.



Case 2.

Meghna’s husband, who uses Slack sits at place no. 9 and Ankit sits at place no. 7. Meghna’s uncle sits at place no. 6.


From (i) and (iv), Ankit’s grandfather is Naveen cannot sit at place no. 2 and 4. If he can sit either at place no. 1 or 5, then Meghna’s father i.e. Peter can sit either at place no. 4 or 2. Meghna will sit at place no. 10 in first subcase but in second case there is no place left for Meghna. So, second subcase will het discarded.

Rohit sits at place no. 5, who is Naveen’s brother.

Only persons left for place no. 8 and 2 are John and Chetna respectively.




Case 1.






Case 2.










Case 1.






Case 2.










Case 1.






Case 2.










Case 1.






Case 2.








Question.34. Answer : Option 2 Question.35. Answer : Option 2 Question.36. Answer : Option 5 Question.37. Answer : Option 4 Question.38. Answer : Option 1 Question.39. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: IV – We cannot say so as no relation between the concentration of microplastic in water and in fish has been given.

I. Micro plastic is found in digestive tracts of fishes but these two are not always related.

Only II and III follow. II follows because of B and III follows because of C.

Question.40. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: behaviour is similar to that of primary-polydipsia in which the patient drinks a lot of water, it is possible that patients suffering with Diabetes insipidus drink a lot of water due to shortage of water or salts in the body which may be controlled by hormone vasopressin. Thus. II can be inferred.

“while patients with primary polydipsia require behavioural therapy to reduce their habitual drinking.” Thus, IV can be inferred from the statement.

Question.41. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: from (II) and (III), Sriram is the brother of Manish.

Question.42. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Because there is no distance provided. So, we cannot define the exact direction.



Question.43. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Only I and II are necessary to give answer. Come = bq

Question.44. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Only II and III are necessary to give answer. Param is the tallest. Param > Prateek > Parul >_ > _

Question.45. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: From II and III We can say that Q is mother of S.

Question.46. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: (i)There were two days gap between Ayush and the one who likes Telugu. The one who likes English read immediately after the one who likes Algeria.

(ii)There were two days gap between vibhanshu and the one who likes Tamil. The one who likes Chemistry read immediately before the one who likes Australia.

(iii)There were two days gap between the one who likes English and the one who likes Afghanistan. The one who likes Telugu lives below Ayush. There were two days gap between Anumita and the one who likes Algeria. The one who likes Algeria was not on Wednesday.

(iv)Anumita lives above the one who likes Algeria. There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Tamil and the one who likes Afghanistan.

(v)There were two days gap between Sony and the one who likes Albania. Ayush does not like Chemistry subject.

(vi) The number of days between Shweta and the one who likes Telugu is same as the number of days between Shalini and the one who likes Argentina. Sony does not like Telugu.

(vii) The one who likes Albania read Physics. There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Hindi and the one who likes Armenia. Sony reads immediately after the one who likes Argentina. The one who reads Telugu does not like Austria and Armenia.

By (iii) and (iv) There were two days gap between Anumita and the one who likes Algeria. Anumita lives above the one who likes Algeria.

By (i) The one who likes English read immediately after the one who likes Algeria.



By (iii) Since there were two days gap between the one who likes English and the one who likes Afghanistan so Afghanistan will be above the one who likes English.

By (iv) There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Tamil and the one who likes Afghanistan. So Tamil can be either below or above Afghanistan. Here we get two conditions:

(1)condition:-

By (ii) There were two days gap between Vibhanshu and the one who likes Tamil.

By (iii) The one who likes Algeria was not on Wednesday. So (1) condition is not possible.

Day Person Subject Country

Sunday Anumita

Monday - Afghanistan

Tuesday -

Wednesday - Tamil Algeria

Thursday - English

Friday -

Saturday Vibhanshu

(2)condition:-


By (i) There were two days gap between Ayush and the one who likes Telugu. Here we get two condition:

When Anumita reads on Monday-

By (ii) and (v) The one who likes Chemistry read immediately before the one who likes Australia. Ayush does not like Chemistry subject. So Chemistry can be either on Tuesday or Thursday. Here we are getting two condition therefore we will move with another condition.


Sunday Ayush Tamil

Monday Anumita

Tuesday - Afghanistan

Wednesday Vibhanshu Telugu

Thursday - Algeria

Friday - English

Saturday -

When Anumita reads on Tuesday -


Sunday Ayush

Monday - Tamil

Tuesday Anumita



Wednesday - Telugu Afghanistan

Thursday Vibhanshu

Friday - Chemistry Algeria

Saturday - English Australia

By (vi) Sony does not like Telugu.

By (ii) and (v) The one who likes Chemistry read immediately before the one who likes Australia. Ayush does not like Chemistry subject. So only one place left for chemistry and Australia.

By (vi) and (vii) The number of days between Shweta and the one who likes Telugu is same as the number of days between Shalini and the one who likes Argentina. Sony does not like Telugu. Sony reads immediately after the one who likes Argentina. Here we get two conditions:

By (v) and (vii) There were two days gap between Sony and the one who likes Albania. The one who likes Albania read Physics.

(vii) There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Hindi and the one who likes Armenia. So this is not possible in (a) condition.

(a)condition:-


Sunday Ayush

Monday Shalini Tamil

Tuesday Anumita Physics Albania


Thursday Vibhanshu Argentina

Friday Sony Chemistry Algeria

Saturday Shweta English Australia

(b) condition:-

(vii) There is a gap of one day between the one who likes Hindi and the one who likes Armenia.














(1)condition:-




Sunday Anumita


Tuesday -


Thursday - English

Friday -

Saturday Vibhanshu

(2)condition:-








Sunday Ayush Tamil

Monday Anumita



Thursday - Algeria

Friday - English

Saturday -



Sunday Ayush

Monday - Tamil

Tuesday Anumita


Thursday Vibhanshu








(a)condition:-


Sunday Ayush









(b) condition:-















(1)condition:-




Sunday Anumita


Tuesday -


Thursday - English

Friday -

Saturday Vibhanshu

(2)condition:-






Sunday Ayush Tamil

Monday Anumita



Thursday - Algeria

Friday - English

Saturday -



Sunday Ayush

Monday - Tamil

Tuesday Anumita




Thursday Vibhanshu








(a)condition:-


Sunday Ayush







(b) condition:-















(1)condition:-




Sunday Anumita


Tuesday -


Thursday - English

Friday -

Saturday Vibhanshu

(2)condition:-








Sunday Ayush Tamil

Monday Anumita



Thursday - Algeria

Friday - English

Saturday -



Sunday Ayush

Monday - Tamil

Tuesday Anumita


Thursday Vibhanshu








(a)condition:-


Sunday Ayush









(b) condition:-















(1)condition:-




Sunday Anumita


Tuesday -


Thursday - English

Friday -

Saturday Vibhanshu

(2)condition:-






Sunday Ayush Tamil

Monday Anumita



Thursday - Algeria

Friday - English

Saturday -



Sunday Ayush

Monday - Tamil

Tuesday Anumita


Thursday Vibhanshu










(a)condition:-


Sunday Ayush







(b) condition:-


Question.51. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: “Agriculture is a challenging sector and several issues prevent farmers, in particular small holders, from realising greater incomes. These include low yields, weak market linkages, high price volatility, limited risk management, and poor price realisation.”



Question.52. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: “For farmers’ incomes, the keys to transformative growth are, among other things, the two areas of price and yield risk management.” Question.53. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: “around 20% of wheat growers use market price risk management techniques such as futures contracts, options, and over the counter products like swaps.” Question.54. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Crop insurance incentivises farm investment and increases farmers’ ability to absorb shocks. Question.55. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: to be effective at scale, technological tools like remote sensing and machine learning for better standardisation and quality assurance of underlying crop data are needed to streamline decision making processes between insurance providers and farmers. Question.56. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: By combining satellite data with artificial intelligence, weather information, and drone-based soil mapping, technology can, for example, be used to optimise planting periods, forecast crop yields, detect pests and diseases, and even help pinpoint for the government where new irrigation projects need to be located for maximum impact. Question.57. Answer : Option 2 Question.58. Answer : Option 2 Question.59. Answer : Option 4 Question.60. Answer : Option 3 Question.61. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: We should move away from here; the storm is approaching.



Question.62. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Every member of the team must possess a minimum level of skill and the desire to win. Question.63. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: I think I will just take a backseat let everyone else get on with sorting matters out.

Take a backseat – not do anything; let others act instead.

Question.64. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: I am sorry I am in a muddle; could you explain that again?

To be in a muddle – to be confused

Question.65. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: You have been in a lot of trouble lately; you would better toe the line from now on.

Toe the line – follow the rules.

Question.66. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: 1) In foreign policy, it is important for national leadership to choose their rhetoric carefully and back its words with at least modest action.

2) In foreign policy, it is importance for national leadership to choose its rhetoric carefully and back its words with at least modest action.

3) In foreign policy, it is important for national leadership to chose its rhetoric carefully and back its words with at least modest action.

4) In foreign policy, it is important for national leadership to choose its rhetoric carefully and back its words with at least modest action.

Question.67. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: 1) With Pakistan’s international isolation deepening and its economy in dire straits, the military there is tactically seeking “peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.

3) With Pakistan’s international isolation deepening and its economy in dire straits, the military there is tactics seeking “peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.

4) With Pakistan’s international isolation deepening and its economy in dire straits, the military there is tactics sought“peace” talks with India while still employing terrorists in a proxy war.



Question.68. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: 1) At present, courts are empower to grant a child’s custody to either parent depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

2) At present, courts are empowered to granting a child’s custody to either parents depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

3) At present, courts are empowered to grant a child’s custody to either parent depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

4) At present, courts are empowered to grant a child’s custody to either parents depending on the child’s overall interests and well-being.

Question.69. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 2 ) The period for the oil shocks of the 1970s, which characterizes the demise of the post-war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age in Washington Consensus.

3) The period between the oil shocks of the 1970s, which character the demise of the post-war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age of Washington Consensus.

4) The period between the oil shocks of the 1970s, which character the demise of the post-war golden age of capitalism, and the economic crisis of 2008, was also the age in Washington Consensus.

Question.70. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: 1) One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrim break-up from BJP and its initial role in opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own political compulsions.

2) One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrimonious break-up from BJP and its initial role in opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own politics compulsions.

3) One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrim break-up with BJP and its initial role in opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own politics compulsions.

4) One may argue that, given the TDP’s acrimonious break-up with BJP and its initial role in opposing the creation of Telangana, it had its own political compulsions.

Question.71. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Disgraceful/shameful – dishonourable Question.72. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Recognise/identify – classify



Question.73. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Caution/attention - care taken to avoid danger or mistakes. Question.74. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Seldom/rarely – less often Question.75. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: RESONATE/ECHO – REFLECT

Question.76. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: - The route to Kailash Mansarovar pilgrimage through Simikot is arduous as there is lack of proper road network and the pilgrims have to depend on air service which can operate only in clear weather.

- The route to Kailash Mansarovar pilgrimage through Simikot is arduous due to lack of proper road network and the pilgrims have to depend on air service which can operate only in clear weather.

Question.77. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Having had no respect for the company’s rules, everyone is suffering from the after-effects of the complacency. Question.78. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Although GDP has become the single most important tool for Governments, financial institutions and policymakers, it measures income but fails to measure poverty, health and quality of life. Question.79. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: A similar operation was undertaken by nine commercial flights that were used to evacuate 158 pilgrims from Simikot to Nepalganj. Question.80. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Only i



While the pilgrims have been stranded at Simikot amidst bad weather for a few days, the situation turned serious on Monday morning when Ms. Narayanan died due to high altitude-related sickness.

Question.81. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The law that empowers the police to arrest people without warrants (Section 41 of the CrPC) is reasonably stringent, demanding that some conditions be met, including that such arrests be carried out to prevent commission of further offences, tampering of evidence, and influencing of witnesses. Unfortunately, a power that affects the liberty of citizens and which can ‘bring humiliation… and cast scars forever’, as the Supreme Court noted in Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014), continues to be used in a cavalier way. Recently, Tamil Nadu has attracted attention in this connection, particularly for the heavy-handed treatment of those opposing the Chennai-Salem eight-lane highway project. The latest in a slew of unjustified round-ups and arrests was Swaraj India Party’s chief, Yogendra Yadav; ironically, he was on nothing more than a fact-finding mission to meet farmers affected by or opposed to the project.

Question.82. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: In his note to Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan has flagged three major sources of potential trouble: Mudra credit, which is basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; lending to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India. The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is ₹6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the total outstanding bank credit. These loans have been sanctioned under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a signature scheme of the NDA government. Given that these are small loans up to ₹10 lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor them very closely. It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these days, recoveries. Question.83. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: There was a time when Pete Sampras’s tally of 14 Grand Slam singles titles — the last of which came at the U.S. Open in 2002 — seemed like the acme of sporting achievement in men’s tennis. Little did anybody expect that in the next 16 years, across 64 Majors, not one or two but three players would stand shoulder to shoulder with the American great. On Sunday, Novak Djokovic became that third man, defeating Argentine Juan Martin del Potro, for his third U.S. Open title at Flushing Meadows. The 31-year-old Serb has never been considered a once-in-a-generation talent, as have Roger Federer and Rafael Nadal, the ones above him in the trophy count. But nobody represents the modern-day game as well as Djokovic. He is the ultimate practitioner of the attrition-based baseline tennis, and at his best, with his supremely efficient patrolling of the court, is near invincible. Question.84. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Ugandan President Yoweri Museveni has been apotheosised among African leaders by comparisons to Nelson Mandela or by labels such as “beacon of hope”. But a crackdown on political dissent last month in Arua, a town in northwestern Uganda, suggests that his regime may be gradually turning it into a de facto one-party state. It began on August 13, when Mr. Museveni was campaigning in Arua for a by-election. In a different part of town, a musician-turned-politician named Robert Kyagulanyi Ssentamu — known by his stage name Bobi Wine — also drew large crowds. Then, even as Mr. Museveni was leaving the area, his motorcade was stoned, allegedly by Bobi Wine’s supporters. The



reprisal was swift and brutal. Police used teargas and shots on the crowds and security personnel “brutalised” Opposition members. Although street protests took place in the capital, Kampala, immediately after news broke of the events in Arua, civil unrest escalated after it became known that Bobi Wine and several other MPs had been arrested and apparently ill-treated in custody. Question.85. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: If banks failed to comply with the RBI’s new rules, these stressed assets had to be forced to undergo swift insolvency proceedings under the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). This comes just weeks after the Allahabad High Court refused to grant relief to troubled power companies facing action from the RBI. The apex court’s decision to overturn RBI rules and transfer all pleas seeking exception from them to itself is clearly the biggest challenge against the IBC yet. It is likely to cause significant uncertainty in the resolution of stressed assets and undermine investor confidence in the bankruptcy process. The postponement of the Supreme Court’s next hearing of the case to mid-November will send the signal that in contrast to hopes that asset resolution under the new bankruptcy regime would be done within a strict time frame, there are likely to be considerable delays in the resolution of stressed assets. Distressed power companies, and a number of other firms in the shipping, sugar and textile sectors, however, will be relieved as they are spared from bankruptcy proceedings for now.

Question.86. Answer : Option 4 Question.87. Answer : Option 4 Question.88. Answer : Option 2 Question.89. Answer : Option 3 Question.90. Answer : Option 2 Question.91. Answer : Option 4 Question.92. Answer : Option 3 Question.93. Answer : Option 2 Question.94. Answer : Option 4 Question.95. Answer : Option 2 Question.96. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The correct sentence is-

The poor are getting affected disproportionately with respect to their limited contribution to a rise in global temperature.



A- 'Effect' is a noun and 'affect' is a verb which fits well in theis part of the sentence.

C- We always contribute 'to' something.

Question.97. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The correct sentence is-

The next ten years will prove to be critical in terms of human responses across all economic sectors and countries to mitigate climate change.


B - Talking about a apst event, thus past tense tp be used.

D - The subject here is 'observations' that is plural, thus 'were' will be used.

The Supreme Court’s observations, while denying bail to defence analyst Abhijit Iyer-Mitra, to the effect that he incited religious feelings in a video posted on social media, were out of place in what was a bail hearing.


In a mature democracy, the casual resort to criminal prosecution for perceived insults to either a religion or a class of society ought to be actively discouraged.

B - One is always prosecuted 'for' something- denoting reason further.

D- An adverb is required here, thus - 'actively'.

Question.100. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: The sentence is correct.

Along with the celebrations, this statistic gives reason for the community of scientists to introspect over what makes an enabling environment for women to practise science in.

Question.101. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Required answer = 80% of (9/16) of 8000 = 3600 Question.102. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Number of failed students = 3600



Therefore, number of failed girls in SBI PO = (7/15) of 3600

= 1680

Question.103. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Let the total number of students be x

So, 45% of x = 5400

x = 5400 (100/45)

= 12000

Question.104. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: 60% = 3600

40% = 2400

Now, ratio of failed Boys : Girls

5 : 3

8 = 2400

1 = 300

3 = 300 × 3 = 900

Question.105. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: As we dont individual number of students in any examsso we cannot find total number of failed together Question.106. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 140 - 48 = 92

92 + 45 = 137

137 - 42 = 95

95 + 39 = 134

134 - 36 = 98

Question.107. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: 7 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 12

12 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 32.5



32.5 × 3.5 + 3.5 = 117.25

117.25 × 4.5 + 4.5 = 532.125

532.125 × 5.5 + 5.5 = 2932.1875

Question.108. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 4 × 1 + 1 2 = 5

5 × 2 + 2 2 = 14

14 × 3 + 3 2 = 51

51 × 4 + 4 2 = 220

220 × 5 + 5 2 = 1125

Question.109. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: 12 × 1 - 6 = 6

6 × 2 + 5 = 17

17 × 3 - 4 = 47

47 × 4 + 3 = 191

191 × 5 - 2 = 953

Question.110. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 22 × 0.5 + 1 3 = 12

12 × 0.5 - 2 3 = - 2

- 2 × 0.5 + 3 3 = 26

26 × 0.5 - 4 3 = - 51

- 51 × 0.5 + 5 3 = 99.5

Question.111. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Let there are x fillers pipes

then, number of pipes that empty the tank = (4 - x)

Now, (4 - x)/3 - x/4 = 1/6

(16 - 4x - 3x)/12 = 1/6

16 - 7x = 2

x = 2



Question.112. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Original total salary = 18 × 500 = 9000

Now, total salary = 480 × 18 = 8640

According to the question,

9000 - 620 + x = 8640

x = 260

Alternate Method:

Net decrease in salaries = 18 * 20 = 360

So Salary of new comer= Salary of relaced person - net decrease in Salaries = 620 - 360 = 260

Question.113. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Let the principal be Rs x

Interest in Ist case = Rs 360 - x

Interest in IInd case = Rs 240 - x

According to question,

(240 - x) = (360 - x)/2

x = 120

Now, [(360 - 120) = 360 × 8 × t]/100

t = 25 years

Question.114. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Ratio of their investments = 1800:2200:1400

= 9:11:7

Let the remaining profit that is divided between them is 9x + 11x +7x = 27x

then, total profit = 27x × 4/3 = 36x

Ankit's total = (36x - 27x) + 9x

= 3600 = 18x

x = 200

Hence, Sushil's profit = 11x = 2200

Question.115. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Volume of barrrel of fountain pen = ∏r 2 h



= 22/7 (1.4) 2 10

= 61.6 cm 3

This barrel can be used to write.

Hence, a barrel of volume can be used to write = (123.2/61.6) × 150

= 300 words

Question.116. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Savings of Mohit in August = 22% of 9500 = Rs 2090

Savings of Karan in July = 11% of 8750 = Rs 962.5

Required % = [(2090 - 962.5)/962.5] × 100 = 120%

Question.117. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The remaining savings of Karan in July =11% of (100-26-10)% of 8750 = 11% of 64% of 8750 = 616

The remaining savings of Sudhanshu in August =23% of (100-25-15)% of 9500 = 23% of 60% of 9500 = 1311

Required ratio = 616:1311

Question.118. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: The total savings of Neeraj and Sudhashu in August and Deepesh in July = 15% of 9500 + 23% of 9500 + 32% of 8750 + 18% of 8750 + 11% of 8750

= 1425 + 2185 + 2800 + 1575 + 962.5

= Rs 8947.5

Required average = 8947.5/5

= 1789.5

Question.119. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The central angle of savings of Sudhanshu in July = 24% of 360

The central angle of savings of Neeraj in August = 15% of 360

Required difference = [(24 - 15)/100] of 360 = 32.4 degree

Question.120. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Total savings of Neeraj and Mohit together in both the months in July = 15% of 8750 + 18% of 8750



= 1312.5 + 1575 = 2887.5

In August = 15% of 9500 + 22% of 9500

= 1425 + 2090

= 3515

Required total = 2887.5 + 3515

= 6402.5

Question.121. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: 660 + 2250 + ? = 4250.4 - 500

? = 3750.4 - 2250 - 660

? = 840.4

Question.122. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: 1344 + 487.5 - ? = 2549 - 5460

? = 1831.5 - 3549 + 5460

? = 3742.5

Question.123. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: 2329 + 3510 + ? = 700 + 5330+1582

? = 7612 - 3510 - 2329

? = 1773

Question.124. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: 1308 - ? + 900 = 2709 + 500 - 2538

2208 - ? = 671

? = 1537

Question.125. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: 1552 = ? + 1164 - 1624

1552 = ? - 460

? = 2012



Question.126. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Required average = (2000 + 1500 + 4000 + 500 + 1500 + 500)/6

= 10000/6

= 1666.66 = 1667 approx.

Question.127. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Required ratio = (2000 + 1000) : (5000 + 2000)

= 3:7

Question.128. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Required average = (3000 + 2500 + 2000 + 1500)/4

= 9000/4

= 2250

Question.129. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Total number of students from all the three colleges in the year 2012 = (2000 + 3000 + 4000)

= 9000

Total number of students from all the three universities in 2016 = (2000 + 2000 + 1500)

= 5500

Required difference = 9000 – 5500

= 3500

Question.130. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Number of students in GEU in 2012 and 2015 = (2000 + 500) = 2500

Number of students in LPU in 2013 and 2014 = (3000 + 5000 ) = 8000

Percentage = (2500 × 100)/8000 = 31.25% = 31%(approx.)

Question.131. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From I and III

Let Sakshi’s daughter’s present’s be x years



Sakshi’s present age = 3x

After 5 years,

(3x + 5)/(x + 5) = 29/13

39x + 65 = 29x + 145

10x = 80

x = 8

Sakshi’s present age = 3x = 3 (8)

= 24 years

Question.132. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From II and III

Speed = 400/20

= 20 m/sec

= 20 × (18/5)

= 20m/sec

Time = (1176/72) = 49/3 hours

= 16 (1/3) hours or 16hrs 20 min

So, train will reach at 8am +16:20 = 8am +12 + 4:20 = 12:20 am

Question.133. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Let the length of the train X be x metres

II. These trains are running in opposite directions.

III. Length of the train Y is 240 metres.

I. Time taken by X to cross Y = (240 + x)/ relative speed = 15

Thus, even with I, II and III the answer cannot be obtained.

Question.134. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From II and III

Area of square = 1444

Side ² = 1444

Side = 38cm

Now, radius of circle = side of square

Radius of circle = 38 cm

Area of circle = ∏ r²



= ∏ (38)²

= 1444∏ cm²

Hence, only II and III are required.

Question.135. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: From I

Let Karan’s present age be x years.

Kaushal’s present age is (x + 4) years.

From II

(x + 4)/x = 3/2

Therefore, x = 8 years

Hence, Karan’s age 3 years ago = 8 – 3 = 5 years

Thus, From I and From II, we can find the age of Karan.

Question.136. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Let the CP of first mobile = Rs x

therefore, CP of second mobile = Rs (9600 - x)

{(x × 160% + 20% of (9600 - x) - 9600 } = 25% of 9600 = 2400

14x/10 = 9600 + 2400 - 1920

14x/10 = 10080

x = 7200

Therefore, CP of first mobile = 7200

CP of second mobile = 9600 - 7200

= Rs 2400

Alternate Method:

I II

60 - 80

25

80-(-25) : 60 - 25

105 : 35

3:1

So CP of Ist = 3/4*9600 = Rs. 7200

CP OF 2nd = 1/4*9600 = Rs. 2400



Question.137. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Required distance between London and Manchester = 18/5 × 25 × 13/6

= 195 km

Total charges by train = 195 × 6 = Rs 1170

therefore, Total charge given by Deepak to taxi driver = 1170 × 250/100

= Rs 2925

Question.138. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Let the required rate is x%

According to the question,

30,000 × 125% of (100 - x)% = 28125

100 - x = 75

x = 25%

Question.139. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Height of the cone = (1 + 1/3) × 54/4

= 18 m

therefore, slant height (l) = √182 + 162

= 24 m (approx)

therefore, curved surface area = ∏rl

= 22/7 × 16 × 24

Therefore, required total cost of painting = 22/7 × 384 × 14

= Rs 16,896

Question.140. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Multiple of 3 upto 40 = 40/3 = 13

Multiple of 4 upto 40 = 40/4 = 10

Multiple of 12 upto 40 = 40/12 = 3

Therefore, required probability = 13/40 + 10/40 - 3/40 = 20/40 = 1/2



Question.141. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: I. 2x2 + 21x + 49 = 0

2x2 + 7x + 14x + 49 = 0

x(2x + 7) + 7(2x + 7) = 0

x = - 7, - 7/2

II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

2y2 + 6y + 7y + 21 = 0

2y(y + 3) + 7(y + 3) = 0

y = -3, - 7/2

hence, x ≤ y

2y2 + y + 21 = 0


I. 24y2 + 55y - 24 = 0

24y2 - 9y + 64y - 24 = 0

3y(8y - 3) + 8(8y - 3) = 0

(3y + 8)(8y - 3) = 0

y = -8/3, 3/8

II. 16x2 + 46x + 15 = 0

16x2 + 40x + 6x + 15 = 0

8x(2x + 5) + 3(2x + 5) = 0

(8x + 3)(2x + 5) = 0

x = -3/8,-5/2

Hence, Relationship cannot be established between x and y.


I. 6y2 - 19y + 10 = 0

6y2 - 4y - 15y + 10 = 0

2y(3y - 2) - 5(3y - 2) = 0

(2y - 5)(3y - 2) = 0

y = 5/2, 2/3

II. 9x2 - 27x + 14 = 0



9x2 - 21x - 6x + 14 = 0

3x (3x - 7) - 2(3x - 7) = 0

(3x - 2) (3x - 7) = 0

x = 2/3, 7/3

Hence, the relationship cannot be established between x and y

Question.144. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: I. 6x2 + 37x + 45 = 0

6x2 + 10x + 27x + 45 = 0

2x (3x +5) + 9 (3x + 5) = 0

(2x + 9) (3x + 5) = 0

x = -9/2,-5/3

II. 6y2 + 19y + 10 = 0

6y2 + 4y + 15y + 10 = 0

2y(3y + 2) + 5(3y + 2) = 0

(2y + 5)(3y + 2) = 0

y = -5/2, -2/3

Hence, relationship cannot be established between x and y.

Question.145. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: I. y2 - 4y - 77 = 0

y2 + 7y - 11y - 77 = 0

(y +7) (y - 11) = 0

y = -7,11

II. x2 - 25x + 156 = 0

x2 - 12x - 13x + 156 = 0

(x - 12) (x -13) = 0

x = 12,13

Hence, x > y

Question.146. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: 1st Alloy ratio Zinc : Silver = 3:2

2nd Alloy ratio Zinc : Carbon = 4:5



In final alloy ratio is 3:1

Let quantity → 3x and 1x

Quantity of zinc in final alloy = 3/5 × (3x) + 4/9 × (1x) = (101x/45)

Quantity of Silver = 2/5 × (3x) = 6x/5

Required percentage = [101x/45 – (6x)/5]/ (101x)/45 × 100 = 46.53% (47% approximately)

Question.147. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Let efficiency of men of first group is M1 and second group is M2

6 M1 ×2 = 8 M2 ×3

M1 = 2 × M2

Work = 20 × M1 × 4 × 15 /2

According to question,

20 × M1 × 4 × 15/2 × 2 = 30 × M2 × 2 × d

d = 40 days

Question.148. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: 5% Selling Price → 36

Selling Price → 720

1.2 Cost price = 720

Cost Price = 600

New SP = 70/100 × 720 = 504

LOSS=600 – 504 = 96

Question.149. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Total amount = 8000 (10 × 2 /100 + 8 × 2/100 + 6 × 2/100 + 12 × 6/ 100) + 8000

= 9600+8000

= 17600

Question.150. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: PQ = 30 km

Rinku’s speed =x km/h

Tinku’s speed = y km/h

30/x – 30/y = 1/2 ………….. (i)



30/y – 30/2x = 1/4 …………… (ii)

From (i) and (ii)

Therefore, x = 20 km/hr

Question.151. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Mutual Fund act as trusts which pool the savings of investors, reinvest them in securities/funds to earn profits and then distribute the dividend earned amongst the investors. In return, the Asset Management Companies (AMC’s ) charge a certain amount as fees for this service. These AMC’s are registered with SEBI and is regulated by the SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1996.

Mutual funds are described as TRUSTS in the SEBI Regulations, 1996.

Question.152. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: An ETF, or exchange-traded fund, is a marketable security that tracks an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket of assets like an index fund. Unlike mutual funds, an ETF trades like a common stock on a stock exchange. ETFs experience price changes throughout the day as they are bought and sold. Question.153. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: The advantages of investing in MFs include diversification, good investment management services, liquidity, strong government-backed regulatory help, professional service, and all these at a low cost.



The disadvantages of mutual fund investing include lack of flexibility to sell or buy a stock or a portfolio of stocks of choice, Lock-in-Period clause can make exiting MF a costly affair. The investor does not have any freedom relating to customize the fund’s portfolio.

Question.154. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: All of the above are small savings schemes of the government. The current (December 2018) interest rates on these are:

· 5 Year NSC = 8% annually

· PPF = 8% annually

· KVP = 7.7% annually

· SSS = 8.5% annually

Question.155. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: A new fund offer (NFO) is the first time subscription offer for a new scheme launched by the asset management companies (AMCs). A new fund offer is launched in the market to raise capital from the public in order to buy securities like shares, govt. bonds etc. from the market. NFO is similar to the initial public offer (IPO) with an attempt to raise capital from the market. NFOs are offered for a stipulated period. This means that the investors opting to invest in these schemes at the offer price (in most cases the offer price is fixed at Rs 10) can do so in this stipulated period only. After the NFO period, investors can take exposure in these funds only at the prevailing NAV. Question.156. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: A Systematic Investment Plan (SIP) is an option where one can invest a fixed amount in a mutual fund scheme at regular intervals. For example, A can invest 1,000 in a mutual fund every month. It is a disciplined investment plan and helps reduces vulnerability to market fluctuations. SIP investments can help in attaining financial goals by taking advantage of rupee cost averaging , and growing investments with compounding benefits. Question.157. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: In case of equity shares and equity mutual funds, it is considered to be a short term capital asset (for capital gains under income tax purpose) if it is held for a period less than 12 months. If held beyond 12 months, it is considered a long term capital asset.

For all other capital assets the holding period is less than 36 months as short term and more than 36 months as long term capital assets.

Question.158. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: ULIP or Unit Linked Insurance Plan is an insurance-cum-investment product.



Question.159. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Insurance sector is regulated by IRDA (Insurance Regulation and Development Authority of India). Question.160. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: Estate planning is the act of preparing for the transfer of a person's wealth and assets after his or her death. Assets, life insurance, pensions, real estate, cars, personal belongings, and debts are all part of one's estate.

Some of the major benefits of estate planning include:

· To avoid probate

· To avoid family arguments over assets by laying down proper inheritance process

· Protecting your loved ones by ensuring they receive the assets as intended

· Plan healthcare treatment in terms of health related expenses and health related decision making

· Overall peace of mind

Question.161. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: PPF or Public Provident Fund was introduced in India in 1968 with the objective to mobilize small saving in the form of an investment, coupled with a return on it. Only one PPF Account per person is allowed at any given time.

Question.162. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: 80 c = certain investments eligible for deduction up to Rs.150000 from income

80CCC = deduction allowed for premium paid for annuity plan of an insurer

80 D = deduction for premium paid for health/medical insurance

80 E = deduction allowed for interest on education loan

80 G = deduction for donations made

Question.163. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Hybrid Funds are Mutual Funds that invest in both Debt and Equity to achieve the perfect blend of maximum diversification and decent returns.

Hybrid funds can be equity-oriented or debt-oriented.

When the fund manager invests 65% or more of the fund’s assets in equity and rest in debt and money market instruments, it’s called an aggressive hybrid fund. An asset allocation of 40 to 60% in debt or equity is called a balanced hybrid fund and a 75-90% investment in debt is a conservative hybrid



fund. For the sake of liquidity, some part of the fund would also be invested in cash and cash equivalents.

Question.164. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Liquid funds are simply debt mutual funds that invest investors’ money in very short-term market instruments such as treasury bills, government securities and call money that hold least amount of risk. These funds can invest in instruments up to a maturity of 91 days (3 months). The maturity is mostly much lower than that. Question.165. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: A Payment Bank is set up to provide small savings accounts and payments/remittance services to migrant labour workforce, low-income households, small businesses, other unorganised sector entities and other users. The deposits can be accepted upto Rs.1 Lakh only in form of demand deposits only.

The payments bank cannot undertake lending activities and cannot issue credit cards.

Question.166. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Current account is a demand deposit account on which the bank does not pay any interest. It is usually opened for business as it allows huge transactions on regular basis. Question.167. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is a development financial institution in India for developing and financing micro, small and medium enterprise sector. It was established in 1990. Question.168. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: CIBIL (Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited) is a Credit Bureau or Credit Information Company. This company is engaged in maintaining the records of all the credit-related activities of companies as well as individuals including credit cards and loans. As such, banks check the CIBIL to know the credit score of an individual/business before extending it a new loan.

A credit score is a numerical expression based on a level analysis of a person's credit files, to represent the creditworthiness of an individual. A credit score is primarily based on a credit report information typically sourced from credit bureaus.

Question.169. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Bank of Baroda was one of the 14 banks nationalised in 1969. These were ALLAHABAD BANK, BANK OF INDIA, CANARA BANK, DENA BANK, INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK, SYNDICATE BANK, UNION



BANK OF INDIA, BANK OF BARODA, BANK OF MAHARASHTRA, CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA, INDIAN BANK, PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK, UCO BANK and UNITED BANK OF INDIA.

Six more banks were nationalised in 1980 which were Andhra Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, New Bank of India, Vijaya Bank, Corporation Bank and Oriental Bank of Commerce.

Question.170. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Bancassurance, is a relationship between a bank and an insurance company, aimed at offering insurance products or insurance benefits to the bank's customers. In this partnership, bank staff and tellers become the point of sale and point of contact for the customer. Question.171. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The PPF interest rate currently for the quarter Oct 2018 – Dec 2018 is 8% compounded annually. The PPF interest is set by the Ministry of Finance and is subject to change every quarter.

Question.172. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Federal Bank is a private sector bank established in 1931 as the Travancore Federal Bank Limited and is headquartered in Aluva, Kerala. The Bank's name was changed to The Federal Bank Limited on December 2, 1949 and became a scheduled commercial bank under the Second Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 on July 20, 1970. As of September 30, 2018 the bank had 1252 branches and 1683 ATMs.

Question.173. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: General Insurance Corporation of India is a government owned insurance company founded in November 22, 1972. The entire general insurance business in India was nationalised by the Government of India through the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act of 1972.

Question.174. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: LIC is the Life Insurance Corporation of India and is the largest life insurer in India. Motor insurance falls under general insurance and is not offered by LIC but other general insurance companies.

Question.175. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: RTGS or Real time gross settlement is a funds transfer mechanism for transfer of money from one bank to another on a “real time” and on “gross” basis. This is the fastest possible money transfer system through the banking channel. Settlement in “real time” means payment transaction is not subjected to any waiting period. The transactions are settled as soon as they are processed. “Gross settlement” means the transaction is settled on one to one basis without bunching with any other transaction.



Considering that money transfer takes place in the books of the Reserve Bank of India, the payment is taken as final and irrevocable.

Question.176. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 of India, engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares, stock, bonds, hire-purchase, leasing, factoring, peer-to-peer lending, asset reconstruction, micro-finance, etc. NBFCs are also regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in India. Question.177. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: The National Pension System (NPS) is a voluntary defined contribution pension system administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), created by an Act of the Parliament of India. he Central Government had introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 1, 2004 (except for armed forces). Any individual not being covered by any Government or State Sector has been allowed to join NPS architecture under the All Citizens of India sector from May 01, 2009. Question.178. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: The Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. is a public sector general insurance company of India incorporated in September 1947. It offers motor, personal accident, health, crop insurance, etc. Question.179. Answer : Option 5 Explanation: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was set up as an autonomous body under the IRDA Act, 1999.

Question.180. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Savings account is a demand deposit in a bank that allows the depositor to deposit or withdraw money as and when required by the depositor. The depositor earns interest on the balance maintained in the savings account. The interest rate is decided by the bank and is currently 4% for most banks; although many banks pay higher savings interest rate also. Question.181. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: Demand and Supply are the most integral and vast concept or you can say the backbone of the economic world or the market.

DEMAND- Demand refers to the quantity of certain goods and services desired by the consumers in the market

SUPPLY- Supply refers to the quantity of certain goods and services which are provided to the market place by the desired suppliers of the market.



The law of supply and demand is an economic theory that explains how supply and demand is related to each other and how that relationship affects the price of goods and services. It's a fundamental economic principle that when supply exceeds demand for a good or service, prices fall. When demand exceeds supply, prices tend to rise.

There is an inverse relationship between the supply and prices of goods and services when demand is unchanged. If there is an increase in supply for goods and services while demand remains the same, prices tend to fall to a lower equilibrium price and a higher equilibrium quantity of goods and services. If there is a decrease in supply of goods and services while demand remains the same, prices tend to rise to a higher equilibrium price and a lower quantity of goods and services.

The same inverse relationship holds for the demand of goods and services. However, when demand increases and supply remains the same, the higher demand leads to a higher equilibrium price and vice versa.

Question.182. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: A wealth manager is an investment advisor that incorporates financial planning, investment portfolio management and a number of aggregated financial services for its client. Question.183. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Bank’s BPR project known as “Project- Navnirmaan” has altogether 18 activities covering both the BPR and organizational restructuring, aimed at transforming the Bank’s branches into modern “sales & service” outlets.

The most important initiatives planned under this project include – (1) Conversion of all metro and urban branches into modern centers known as Baroda Next branches; (2) Creation of Automated and Leaner Back Offices like City Back Office (for automated cheque processing etc.), Regional Back Office (for faster account opening etc), Establishment of two Call Centers, Creation of Academy of Excellence, Introduction of Frontline Automation at select branches for customer convenience and Organizational Restructuring.

Question.184. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: All of the above factors help in providing comprehensive wealth management services to the clients on an on-going basis. The wealth manager should be aware of the financial details of the client, his/her goals to be achieved through wealth management, periodic review of recommendations so that they are in line with the changing economic conditions, goals of client and client’s financial standing.

Question.185. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: In behavioral economics, loss aversion refers to people’s preferences to avoid losing compared to gaining the equivalent amount.



Question.186. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Direct taxes are directly imposed on the tax payer. They depend on the income and wealth of an individual or entity.

Some of the important direct taxes imposed in India are mentioned below:

Income Tax - It is imposed on an individual who falls under the different tax brackets based on their earning or revenue and they have to file an income tax return every year after which they will either need to pay the tax or be eligible for a tax refund.

Estate Tax – Also known as Inheritance tax, it is raised on an estate or the total value of money and property that an individual has left behind after their death.

Wealth Tax – Wealth tax is imposed on the value of the property that a person possesses.

However, both Estate and Wealth taxes are now abolished.

Sales tax is an indoirect tax which has now been subsumed by the GST .

Question.187. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: Cross-selling identifies products that satisfy additional, complementary needs that are unfulfilled by the original item. For example, a comb could be cross-sold to a customer purchasing a blow dryer. Oftentimes, cross-selling points users to products they would have purchased anyways; by showing them at the right time, a store ensures they make the sale.

Cross-selling is prevalent in every type of commerce, including banks and insurance agencies. Credit cards are cross-sold to people registering a savings account, while life insurance is commonly suggested to customers buying car coverage.

In ecommerce, cross-selling is often utilized on product pages, during the checkout process, and in lifecycle campaigns. It is a highly-effective tactic for generating repeat purchases, demonstrating the breadth of a catalog to customers. Cross-selling can alert users to products they didn't previously know you offered, further earning their confidence as the best retailer to satisfy a particular need.

Question.188. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Sales Forecasting is the process of estimating what your business’s sales are going to be in the future. A sales forecast period can be monthly, quarterly, half-annually, or annually.


An endowment policy is essentially a life insurance policy which, apart from covering the life of the insured, helps the policyholder save regularly over a specific period of time so that he/she is able to get a lump sum amount on the policy maturity in case he/she survives the policy term. This maturity amount can be used to meet various financial needs such as funding one's retirement, children's education and/or marriage or buying a house. A life insurance endowment policy pays the full sum assured to the beneficiaries if the insured dies during the policy term or to the policy holder on maturity of the policy if he/she survives the term.



Question.190. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: The balance sheet, also known as the statement of financial position, is a snapshot of a company's financial condition at a single point in time. It presents a summary listing of a company's assets, liabilities, and owners' equity. The balance sheet is prepared as of the last day of the business year. Therefore, it corresponds to the end of the time period covered by the income statement.

Question.191. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: ESOP or an Employee Stock option Plan – which is also called as Employee Stock Ownership Plans in India is a system by which a company allows its employees to purchase shares of the company. In certain cases, a foreign holding company provides the employees of an Indian subsidiary with such an option. Under this scheme, employees are granted options, which allows the employee to buy the stock at a rate below the prevailing market value of the stock or the employee is provided a certain percentage of his/her remuneration in stocks of the company. Question.192. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Product Life Cycle (PLC)

The product life cycle (PLC) is the course of a product’s sales and profits over its lifetime.

Product Life Cycle Stages

There are five distinct product life cycle stages:

Ø Product Development . When the company finds and develops a new product idea, product development starts. During product development, sales are zero, and the company’s investment costs increase.

Ø Introduction : Sales slowly grow as the product is introduced in the market. Profits are still non-existent, because the heavy expenses of the product introduction overweigh sales.

Ø Growth: The growth stage is a period of rapid market acceptance and increasing profits.

Ø Maturity : In the maturity stage, sales growth slows down because the product has achieved acceptance by most potential buyers. Profits level off or decline because marketing outlays need to be increased to defend the product against competition.

Ø Decline : Finally, sales fall off and profits drop.



Question.193. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats.

SWOT analysis is a framework used to evaluate a company's competitive position by identifying its strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Specifically, SWOT analysis is a foundational assessment model that measures what an organization can and cannot do, and its potential opportunities and threats.

Question.194. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: Return on Assets (ROA) is a type of return on investment (ROI) that measures the profitability of a business in relation to its total assets. This ratio indicates how well a company is performing by comparing the profit it’s generating to the capital it’s invested in assets. The higher the return, the more productive and efficient management is in utilizing economic resources. Below you will find a breakdown of the ROA formula and calculation.

The ROA formula is:

ROA = Net Income / Average Assets

ROA = Net Income / End of Period Assets

Where:

Net Income is equal to net earnings or net income in the year (annual period)

Average Assets is equal to ending assets minus beginning assets divided by 2

Question.195. Answer : Option 2 Explanation: A Giffen good, in economic theory, is a good that is in greater demand as its price increases. For example, if the price of an essential food staple, such as rice, rises it may mean that consumers have less money to buy more expensive foods, so they will actually be forced to buy more rice. Giffen goods are named after Sir Robert Giffen who wrote that he observed this purchasing behaviour in the Victorian poor. Giffen goods differ from Veblen goods which also experience rising demand at the same time as rising prices but in this case the rising price fuels their demand. Veblen goods are luxury items while Giffen goods are staple items.

Question.196. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: The law of supply and demand is an economic theory that explains how supply and demand is related to each other and how that relationship affects the price of goods and services. It's a fundamental economic principle that when supply exceeds demand for a good or service, prices fall. When demand exceeds supply, prices tend to rise. Question.197. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: The break-even point can be defined as a point where total costs (expenses) and total sales (revenue) are equal. Break-even point can be described as a point where there is no net profit or loss. The firm



just “breaks even.” Any company which wants to make abnormal profit, desires to have a break-even point. Graphically, it is the point where the total cost and the total revenue curves meet.

Question.198. Answer : Option 1 Explanation: The Promotion Mix refers to the blend of several promotional tools used by the business to create, maintain and increase the demand for goods and services.

The promotional mix generally involves 5 components such as

I. Personal selling

II. Advertising

III. Direct marketing

IV. Sales promotions

V. Public relations

Question.199. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: HNI is the financial term for a high net worth individual. High net worth individuals are generally those that have a diverse portfolio of assets and would benefit from professional management to secure and grow future wealth. The definition of HNI can vary based on each person's own life experiences.

While there is no standard definition of HNIs, They can be based on Net Worth, Investible surplus, assets under advice. Most common standard in India:

· Emerging HNI: Investible surplus of Rs. 25 lac - Rs. 2 cr.

· HNI: Investible surplus of over Rs. 2 cr.

Question.200. Answer : Option 4 Explanation: Cross-selling identifies products that satisfy additional, complementary needs that are unfulfilled by the original item. For example, a comb could be cross-sold to a customer purchasing a blow dryer. Oftentimes, cross-selling points users to products they would have purchased anyways; by showing them at the right time, a store ensures they make the sale.

bank of baroda specialist officer mock test 1 - ixambee

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