Current Affairs MCQs [ 20 and 21 December 2017 ] PIB TheHindu IndianExpress & Other leading newspapers

Sumant Kumar, B.Tech NIT Allahabad sumant.magadh@gmail.com https://www.facebook.com/SumantKM/

Wetlands are areas where water regulates the environment, and any animal or plant life. Which among the following constitute wetlands? 1. Lakes 2. Irrigated agricultural

land 3. Coral reefs 4. Rivers 5. Swamps and bogs 6. Salt pans

Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 4 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 2, 3 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Ans D

Wetland : o The land area where soil is saturated with moisture either

permanently or seasonally are called Wetlands. o It includes all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and

marshes, wet grasslands, peatland, oases, estuaries, deltas and tidal flats, mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs and salt pans.

o The water in these wetlands may be saltwater, freshwater or brackish water.

o It may be running or stagnant. There are six kinds of wetlands: 1. Marine or coastal wetlands which includes lagoons, rocky shores, and coral reefs. 2. Estuarine wetlands including deltas, tidal marshes and mangrove swamps 3. Lacustrine wetlands associated withlakes 4. Riverine wetlands along rivers and streams 5. Palustrine wetlands, essentially marshes, swamps and bogs. 6. Man-made wetlands like fish, shrimp and farm ponds, irrigated agricultural land, salt pans, reservoirs, gravel pits and canals.

Which of the following types of Wetland ecosystems are found in India?

• Natural wetlands in India consists of the high-altitude Himalayan lakes, followed by wetlands situated in the flood plains of the major river systems, saline and temporary wetlands of the arid and semi-arid regions, coastal wetlands

1. Bogs 2. Fens 3. Lagoons 4. Salt Marshes

Select the correct code. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Ans C

such as lagoons, backwaters and estuaries, mangrove swamps, coral reefs and marine wetlands, and so on.

• In fact with the exception of bogs and fens, Indian wetlands cover the whole range of the ecosystem types found.

• A fen is one of the main types of wetland, the others being grassy marshes, forested swamps, and peaty bogs.

• Along with bogs, fens are a kind of mire. Fens are usually fed by mineral-rich surface water or groundwater. They are characterized by their water chemistry, which is pH neutral or alkaline, with relatively high dissolved mineral levels but few other plant nutrients.

The Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary, Navelim Wetlands and Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary can all be found in the state of a) Maharashtra b) Goa c) Odisha d) Jharkhand Solution: b BirdLife International • a conservation organisation, • has recognised three new sites (mentioned in question) in Goa

as hotspots for protection. • The sites have been added to their list of “Important Bird and

Biodiversity Areas”. • Goa earlier had four recognised biodiversity areas:

o Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary and Mollem National Park,

o Carambolim Wetlands, o Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary and o Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary.

UPSC Prelims 2012 With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements: 1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States. 2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans B

With reference to Wetlands International, consider the following statements: 1. It is an international

organization set up under the provisions of the Ramsar Convention.

2. It aims to maintain and restore wetlands for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans B

Wetlands International was not set up under the provisions of Ramsar Convention. • Wetlands International is the only global not-

for-profit organization dedicated to the conservation and restoration of wetlands.

• They are concerned about the loss and deterioration of wetlands such as lakes, marshes, and rivers.

• Their vision is a world where wetlands are treasured and nurtured for their beauty, the life they support and the resources they provide.

• Wetlands International is dedicated to maintaining and restoring wetlands – for their environmental values as well as for the services they provide to people.

• We work through our network of offices, our partners and experts to achieve our goals.

• Most of their work is financed on a project basis by governments and private donors. We are also supported by government and NGO membership.

Section 64 (1A) of the Income Tax Act of 1961 a) Exempts from taxation the interest accrued on maintenance money parents pay for their minor child b) Plugs some loopholes to reduce the incidence of avoidance of tax c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b Solution: b

Section 64 (1A), as it stands now, includes that “in computing the total income of any individual, there shall be included all such income as arises or accrues to his minor child…” The purpose of the tax provision in the Act is to plug-in loopholes to prevent the avoidance of tax, causing substantial loss or leakage of revenue. • However, the High Court insisted that such an

exemption (refer above) should be created. • The Law Commission, in its 265th Report titled

‘Prospects of Exempting Income Arising Out Of The Maintenance Money of Minor’, shot down the High Court’s suggestion.

Special status under Part XXI of the Constitution are NOT available for which one of the following states? a) Jammu and Kashmir b) Assam c) West Bengal d) Sikkim Solution: c

In the context of special status given to Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements: 1. The constitution of Jammu and

Kashmir was drafted by the Constituent Assembly of India.

2. Article 370 provides permanent special status to the state.

3. The right to property is still a fundamental right in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans C

o State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution but a separate constituent assembly prepared it. The people of the State elected a sovereign Constituent Assembly which met for the first time on October 31, 1951.

o Article 370 deals with the special provision with the state of Jammu and Kashmir but this status is temporary not permanent.

o fundamental right to property is still granted to in this state.

Article 35A of the Constitution relating to 1. special

rights and privileges of permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir

2. Right to Life 3. Right to

Privacy 4. Special

status to Nagaland Ans A

Consider the following statements regarding Article 35A? 1. It was added through the Constitution (Application to

Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, issued under Article 370. 2. Article 35A protects certain provisions of the J&K

Constitution which denies property rights to native women who marry from outside the State. The denial of these rights extend to her children also.

3. Article 35A also empowers the State’s legislature to frame any law without attracting a challenge on grounds of violating the Right to Equality of people from other States or any other right under the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans D

With reference to Consumer Protection Act 1986, consider the following statements: 1. Goods are those which are manufactured, produced and

sold to consumers through retailers only. 2. The Act applies to private, public and cooperative sectors

in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans B • Goods are those which are manufactured or produced and sold

to consumers through retailers and wholesalers as well. • The Act applies to private, public and cooperative sectors in

India.

Consumer Protection Act, 1986 & NCDRC [June/Aug 2016] • an Act of Parliament. • enacted in 1986 • protect interests of consumers in India. • It makes provision for the establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of

consumers’ disputes and for matters connected therewith. • Consumer Protection Councils are established at National, state and District level to increase

consumer awareness. • Central Consumer Protection Council

o established by Central Government. o consists of the following members:

• Minister of Consumer Affairs, – Chairman, and

• Such number of other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be prescribed.

• State Consumer Protection Council

o established by State Government. o consists of following members:

• Minister in charge of consumer affairs in the State Government – Chairman. • Such number of other official or non-official members representing such interests as may be

prescribed by the State Government.

• such number of other official or non-official members, not exceeding ten, as may be nominated by the Central Government.

o The State Council is required to meet as and when necessary but not less than two meetings every year. • Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies

o District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum (DCDRF): • aka the “District Forum”. • established by State Government in each district of the State.

• The State Government may establish more than one District Forum in a district.

• It is a district level court that deals with cases valuing up to 20 lakhs. o State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC):

• aka the “State Commission”

• established by State Government in the State.

• It is a state level court that takes up cases valuing less than ₹1 crore. o National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC):

• a quasi-judicial commission

• set up in 1988

• under Consumer Protection Act of 1986. • Established by Central Government. • headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court. • It is a national level court that works for the whole country and deals with amount more than ₹1

crore. • Section 21 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 posits that the National Consumer shall have

jurisdiction: To entertain a complaint valued more than one crore.

It also has Appellate and Revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State Commissions or the District fora as the case may be.

• Section 23 of the Act provides that person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC, may Appeal to Supreme Court of India within a period of 30 days.

• Update[June 2016] The NCDRD had ordered a hospital in Mumbai to pay Rs 12,000 to a patient who had contracted HIV 20 years ago after blood transfusion.

• Based on the data revealed by The National Aids Control Organisation, in India, at least 2,234 people are reported to have been infected with HIV while getting blood transfusions in the last 17 months.

National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 • a benevolent social legislation

• lays down the rights of the consumers and provides their for promotion and protection of the rights of the consumers.

• The first and the only Act of its kind in India, • it has enabled ordinary consumers to secure less expensive and often speedy redressal of their grievances.

• By spelling out the rights and remedies of the consumers in a market so far dominated by organized manufacturers and traders of goods and providers of various types of services, the Act makes the dictum, caveat emptor (‘buyer beware’) a thing of the past. -

• The Act mandates establishment of Consumer Protection Councils at the Centre as well as in each State and District, with a view to promoting consumer awareness.

To provide inexpensive, speedy and summary redressal of consumer disputes, quasi-judicial bodies have been set up in each District and State and at the National level, called the District Forums, the State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commissions and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission respectively.

Consider the following statements regarding ‘bioplastics’ 1) Bioplastics are plastics in which all carbon is derived from microorganisms 2) All form of bioplastics are bio-degradable. Which of the above are correct 1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans D • Bioplastics are plastics in which all

carbon is derived from renewable feedstocks.

• They may or may not be biodegradable. • Biobased plastics contain both

renewable and fossil-fuel-based carbon.

Which of the following systems of healthcare is NOT indigenous to India? a) Ayurveda b) Yoga c) Siddha d) Unani Solution: d • Introduced by Arabs and Persians to India in the

12th century and with a rich literature, Unani medicine remains popular in parts of South and Central Asia.

• Unani shares many common principles with ayurveda, including the belief in the four humours.

• An ancient form of traditional medicine, Siddha originated in Tamil Nadu through the work of “siddhars” or scientist-saints.

• Siddha too shares many principles with ayurveda, including the belief in humours, elements and imbalance.

With reference to a National Park, consider the following statements: 1. It is bounded in north by

Banas river & in south by Chambal river.

Ranthambore National Park: • Park lies at the edge of a plateau, and is

bounded by north by Banas river and in south by Chambal river.

2. It is under Project Tiger. Which of following National Park has all of the above characteristics? (a) Bandhavagarh National Park (b) Ranthambore National Park (c) Kanha National Park (d) Gaurumara National Park Ans B

• Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve located at the junction of the Aravalis and the Vindhyas.

• It is site of one of the largest Banyan Tree in India at Jogi Mahal.

• The Park is under Project Tiger also. • An important geological feature the 'Great

Boundary Fault' where the Vindhya plateaus meet the Aravali hill ranges, meanders through the Reserve.

With reference to Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) disease, consider the following statements: 1. It is a viral infection. 2. Camels are a major

source of MERS. 3. It spreads through

human-to-human transmission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans D

• Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel coronavirus (MERS-CoV) that was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012.

• Coronaviruses are a large family of viruses that can cause diseases ranging from the common cold to Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS).

• Typical MERS symptoms include fever, cough and shortness of breath.

• Pneumonia is common, but not always present. Gastrointestinal symptoms, including diarrhoea, have also been reported.

• Approximately 36% of reported patients with MERS have died. • Although the majority of human cases of MERS have been attributed

to human-to-human infections, camels are a major reservoir host for MERS-CoV and an animal source of MERS infection in humans. However, the exact role of camels in transmission of the virus and the exact route(s) of transmission are unknown.

• The virus does not seem to pass easily from person to person unless there is close contact, such as occurs when providing unprotected care to a patient.

With reference to “Hornbill festival”, which of the following statement is/are correct? 1. Hornbill Festival was celebrated in Assam. 2. The Hornbill festival is named after the hornbill bird.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans B Hornbill Festival • celebrated on the State Formation Day of Nagaland

on December. • showcase of rich Naga culture and traditions,

preserved over the years in the form of music, dance and food.

• is named after the hornbill bird. The bird is highly respected and its importance is reflected in tribal folklore, songs and dances.

Which of the following is not a function or power of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India 1. It has regulatory oversight over

the Insolvency Professionals 2. One of the key responsibility of the

board is to help in revival of bankrupt MSMEs

3. It enforces rules for, corporate insolvency resolution, corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution.

4. It Collect and maintain records relating to insolvency and bankruptcy cases and disseminate information relating to such cases.

Ans B There is no such function of IBBI

With reference to SAMPADA (Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing And Development Of Agro-Processing Clusters), consider the following statements: 1. It is a major initiative

towards doubling of farmers’ income.

• The implementation of SAMPADA will not only provide a big boost to the growth of food processing sector in the country but also help in providing better prices to farmers and is a big step towards doubling of farmers’ income.

• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister has given its approval for re-structuring the schemes of the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) under new Central Sector Scheme – SAMPADA (Scheme for Agro-Marine Processing and Development of

2. It is an umbrella scheme incorporating ongoing schemes of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans A

Agro-Processing Clusters) for the period 2016-20 coterminous with the 14th Finance Commission cycle.

• The objective of SAMPADA is to supplement agriculture, modernize processing and decrease agri-waste.

• SAMPADA is an umbrella scheme incorporating ongoing schemes of the Ministry like Mega Food Parks, Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure, Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure, etc. and also new schemes like Infrastructure for Agro-processing Clusters, Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages, Creation / Expansion of Food Processing & Preservation Capacities.

Which of the following terms related to waste water treatment are correctly matched? 1) Flocculation: It involves the addition of destabilized particles together into large aggregates so that they can be easily separated from the water. 2) Sedimentation: It is a physical water treatment process using gravity to remove suspended solids from water. 3) Reverse Osmosis: In this process, pressure is used to force effluent through a membrane that retains contaminants on one side and allows the clean water to pass to the other side 1. 1 and 2 only 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. All of the above

o Sedimentation: It is a physical water treatment process using gravity to remove suspended solids from water.

o Flocculation: Flocculation is a physical process and does not involve the neutralization of charge. It involves the addition of destabilized particles together into large aggregates so that they can be easily separated from the water.

o Reverse Osmosis: In this process, pressure is used to force effluent through a membrane that retains contaminants on one side and allows the clean water to pass to the other side.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about tobacco Products (Packaging and Labelling) Amendment Rules, 2014? 1) Cigarette packets shall have the name and address of the manufacturer or packer or importer 2) Cigarette packets shall have specified health warning to cover 50% of the principal display area of the package 1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans A • Cigarette packets shall have the name and address of the

manufacturer or packer or importer and the month and year in which the commodity is manufactured or pre-packed or imported

• The cigarette packets shall have, inter alia, specified health warning to cover 85% of the principal display area of the package; 60% shall cover pictorial warning and 25% shall cover textual health warning.

Ken Betwa river interlinking project, cross through which of the following states 1. Madhya

Pradesh 2. Uttar

Pradesh 3. Rajasthan 4. Both a and

b Project cross through Bundelkhand region of UP and whole of Madhya Pradesh.

The Laakso-Taagepara method is a technique for a) Detecting exoplanets b) Neutral Real Rate of Interest estimation c) Determining the viability of moonshot urban transportation projects in developing countries d) Calculations in electoral systems Solution: d

Which one of the following states does NOT have a legislative council presently? a) Gujarat b) Telangana c) Andhra Pradesh d) Karnataka Solution: a. As of today, seven states have Legislative Council 1. Jammu and Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, 2. Maharashtra, Karnataka, 3. Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.