bankpopreviouspapers2007-09.pdf
TRANSCRIPT
Untitled-11. iz'uekfydk Øekad@ TEST BATTERY NO.
4. izk:i Øekad@ TEST FORM NUMBER
1. iz'uiqfLrdk vuqØekad@ TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NO.
BASED ON MEMORY
1. bl iz'uiqfLrdk esa uhps nh x;h pkj iz'ukofy;k¡ gSa %
iz'ukoyh I - lkekU; lpsrrk -- iz-Ø- 1 ls 50
iz'ukoyh II- vaxzsth Hkk"kk -- iz-Ø- 51 ls 100
iz'ukoyh III - vkafdd vfHk;ksX;rk --iz-Ø- 101 ls 150
iz'ukoyh IV - rdZ'kfDr vfHk;ksX;rk -- iz-Ø-151 ls 225
¼ le; lHkh 225 iz'uksa ds fy;s 135 feuV ½
2. jQ dke dsoy bl iz'uiqfLrdk ij gh fd;k tkuk pkfg, u fd fdlh dkxt ijA blds fy;s iz'uiqfLrdk esa tks Hkh [kkyh txg feyrh gks mldk bLrseky dhft;sA
3. bySDVªkfud dSYdqysVj ;k vU; blh rjg dh phtksa dk iz;ksx oftZr gSaA
4. vius mÙkj vyx mÙkji= ij ,p-ch- isafly dh lgk;rk ls fn[kykb;sA vius mÙkj n'kkZus ds fy, mÙkjn'kkZus ds fy, mÙkji= ij fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dk ikyu dhft;sA
5. vki vxj fdlh iz'u dk xyr mÙkj nsrs gSa rks isukYVh Lo:i dqN vad dkV fy;s tk;saxsA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, ;g isukYVh iz'u ds fu/kkZfjr vad dh ,d&pkSFkkbZ ;k 0.25 gksxhA
6. bl iz'uiqfLrdk dks [kksyrs gh rqjar ns[k yhft, fd 1 ls 225 rd lHkh iz'u lkQ lkQ Nis gSa ;k ugha vkSj lHkh i"B Øekuqlkj yxs gSa rFkk dksbZ i"B nksgjk ;k xk;c ugha gSaA vxj vkidks iqfLrdk esa dksbZ nks"k fn[krk gS rks mls cny dj mlh izk:i Øekad okyh nwljh iqfLrdk ys yhft;sA ubZ iqfLrdk Hkh nks"kiw.kZ u gks ;g ns[k yhft;sA
7. tc rd dgk u tk;s bl iz'uiqfLrdk dks er [kksfy;sA
8. iz'uiqfLrdk ds fiNys i"B ij tks iz'u fn;s x;s gSa] mUgsa le> yhft;sA
1. This booklet contains four tests as follows :
Test I - General Awareness .. Q.Nos. 1 to 50
Test II - English Language .. Q.Nos. 51 to 100
Test III - Quantitative Aptitude .. Q.Nos. 101 to 150
Test IV -Reasoning Ability .. Q.Nos. 151 to 225
(Composite time of 135 minutes for 225 questions)
2. Rough work is to be done only in this booklet itself
and not on any other paper. Use the empty space in
the booklet for rough work.
3. Use of electronic calculator or any other such device
is not permitted.
using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the
answersheet for indicating your answers.
5. There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked by
you. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
6. Immediately after you open this booklet, quickly check
that it contains 225 questions, that the pages are in
serial order and that there are no duplicate pages. If
you find it to be defective, get it replaced by another
booklet bearing the same Form No. Also check that
the new booklet is not defective.
7. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
8. Study the sample questions on the back cover.
TIME ALLOWED : 135 MIN.No. OF QUESTIONS : 225
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 6
TEST - I GENERALAWARENESS
Q.1. Who has been appointed as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh ?
(1) Hans Raj Bhardwaj (2) Devanand Konwar
(3) Rameshwar Thakur (4) R.L. Bhatia (5) None of these
Q.2. Jeev Milkha Singh is related to-------------.
(1) Tennis (2) Football (3) Golf (4) Chess (5) None of these
Q.3. Karl Malden who passed away recently was a famous------------.
(1) Politician (2) Sportsman (3) Actor (4) Singer (5) None of these
Q.4. Who is the author of the book "The Making of Barack Obama" ?
(1) Imran Sheikh (2) R.S. Sharma (3) Amartya Sen
(4) Richard Wolffe (5) None of these
Q.5. When is the International Youth Day celebrated ?
(1) July 11 (2) August 12 (3) September 21
(4) June 5 (5) None of these
Q.6. Central Statistical Organisation is set up during------------
(1) 1950-57 (2) 1951-52 (3) 1952-53 (4) 1942-43 (5) None of these
Q.7. Regional Rural Banks are the Brain child of----------
(1) C. Rangrajan (2) M.Swaminathan
(3) K.C. Niyogi (4) R. Gadgil (5) None of these
Q.8. The largest source of National Income in India is-------------
(1) Service sector (2) Agricultrual Sector
(3) Industrial sector (4) Trade sector (5) None of these
Q.9. Which Indian Bank has maximum branch is abroad ?
(1) Bank of Hindustan (2) State Bank of India (3) Bank of Baroda (4) Canara Bank (5) None of these
Q.10. About how much amount has been approved by Central Government for "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh" Gram Yojana" in Budget 2009-10?
(1) Rs. 100 cr. (2) Rs. 250 cr. (3) Rs. 285 cr. (4) Rs. 300 cr. (5) None of these
Q.11. How many community colleges are established by government to trained the unskilled person to improve their skills ?
(1) 630 (2) 670 (3) 600 (4) 580 (5) None of these
Q.12. How many T-20 tanks are included in Indian Army to strengthen its condition ?
(1) 50 (2) 52 (3) 59 (4) 49 (5) None of these
Q.13. Recently to which bank RBI said to make more clear norm about NPAs ?
(1) State Bank of India (2) Urban Co-operative Bank
(3) Rural Co-operative Bank (4) Allhabad Bank (5) None of these
Q.14. Government approved----------amount for Rural electrification in budget 2009-10 .
(1) Rs. 3000 cr. (2) Rs. 7000 cr. (3) Rs. 5000 cr. (4) Rs. 4000 cr. (5) None of these
7 Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK
Q.15. In which city the first EMU Train is launched ?
(1) Delhi (2) Bangalore (3) Kolkata
(4) Bangalore (5) None of these
Q.16. Which of the following countries has launched the World Largest Commercial Satellite ?
(1) Russia (2) North Korea (3) USA
(4) India (5) None of these
Q.17. Who has been appointed as the new Foreign Secretary of Bangladesh ?
(1) Nirupama Rao (2) Mijarul Quayes
(3) Shiv Shankar Menon (4) M. Touhid Hossein
(5) None of these
Q.18. Which of the following banks have won the Model Bank Award for 2009 ?
(1) Indian Bank (2) Punjab National Bank (3) Canara Bank
(4) Corporation Bank (5) None of these
Q.19. Railway Minister has announced that--------- "Adarsh Stations" will be established ?
(1) 375 (2) 400 (3) 425
(4) 455 (5) None of these
Q.20. Goa carbon will be launched its wholly owned subsidiary unit in which country ?
(1) America (2) China (3) France
(4) Japan (5) None of these
Q.21. Who has been appointed as the Secretary in the department of Defence ?
(1) Vijay Singh (2) Madhukar Gupta (3) S.N. Menon
(4) Raj Kumar Singh (5) None of these
Q.22. Which country comes at the top in the emission Green House Gases ?
(1) America (2) France (3) China
(4) India (5) None of these
Q.23. Which of the following company is the subsidiary of Indian oil cooporation ?
(1) Manali Petroleum Corporation
(2) Chennai Petroleum Corporation
(3) Madras Petroleum Corporation
(4) Bengal Petroleum Corporation
(5) None of these
Q.24. Which of the following Tax is imposed by Central Government ?
(1) Service Tax (2) Entertainment Tax (3) Sale Tax
(4) Land Tax (5) None of these
Q.25. Which Bank started Kiosc Banking in Rural sectors ?
(1) Corporation Bank (2) State Bank of India
(3) Bank of India (4) Allahabad Bank
(5) None of these
Q.26. Which of the following state is the largest producer of Tobacco in India ?
(1) Punjab (2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Kerala
(5) None of these
Q.27. In Budget 2008-09, About how much additional amount is approved for NREGA ?
(1) Rs. 400000 cr. (2) Rs. 39100 cr. (3) Rs. 35100 cr.
(4) Rs. 45100 cr. (5) None of these
Q.28. In Rajasthan-----------launches "Mini Bank Scheme".
(1) Gramin Bank (2) State Bank of India
(3) Allahabad Bank (4) Corporation Bank
(5) None of these
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 8
Q.29. What is the recent forecast of IMF about economic growth of India ?
(1) 5.4% (2) 4.7% (3) 9.8% (4) 7.8% (5) None of these
Q.30. Recently which of the following countries has made law for Rural Land Disputes ?
(1) China (2) Russia (3) India (4) Bangladesh (5) None of these
Q.31. Which of the following countries is the Major Asian Investor in India during 2008 ?
(1) Dubai (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) China (5) None of these
Q.32. "Brain Gain" scheme is related to--------.
(1) Education (2) Infrastructure Development (3) Indian Culture (4) Poverty (5) None of these
Q.33. Which of the following countries celebrate "Bastil Day" as "National Day" ?
(1) Russia (2) France (3) Japan (4) Thailand (5) None of these
Q.34. Which of the following statements is/are true about Kiosc Banking ?
(A) It will provide banking facilities to Rural India.
(B) This banking is started under "State Wide Area Network" scheme.
(C) State Bank of India started this project in Rajasthan
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) A and B (4) All (5) None of these
Q.35. Recently which country joins membership of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
(1) Bangladesh (2) Kosovo (3) China (4) North Korea (5) None of these
Q.36. How many outlet stores will be opened by Zudas France in India ?
(1) 290 (2) 280 (3) 250 (4) 270 (5) None of these
Q.37. Who is appointed as Chairman of National Developmental Council ?
(1) Dr. Man Mohan Singh (2) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(3) Nirupama Rao (4) Shiv Shankar Menon (5) None of these
Q.38. With which Bank Tata Motor signed an agreement for purchasing Fiat cars ?
(1) State Bank of India (2) Allahabad Bank (3) Canara Bank (4) Punjab National Bank (5) None of these
Q.39. Book "India and Global Economic crises " is written by-
(1) Ruskin Bond (2) Salman Rushdie (3) Y.V. Reddy
(4) Amartya Sen (5) None of these
Q.40. About how much amount has been allocated for Defence Sector in Budget 2009-10 ?
(1) Rs. 17006 cr. (2) Rs. 146100 cr. (3) Rs. 147100 cr. (4) Rs. 141703 cr. (5) None of these
9 Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK
Q.41. Q.IP. stands for–
(1) Qualified Investment Placement
(2) Qualify Investment Programme
(3) Qualified Institutional Placement.
(4) Qualified Institution Placement.
(5) None of these
Q.42. Which of the following actors are nominated for 12th Rajiv Gandhi Award ?
(1) Saif Ali Khan (2) Shahid Kapoor
(3) Sharukh Khan (4) Amitabh Bachchan (5) None of these
Q.43. Who is appointed as Home secretory of India ?
(1) Rahul Khullar (2) N. M. Nelkani (3) G.K. Pillai (4) S.S. Menon (5) None of these
Q.44. Who was the Author of Book "Boys will be Boys" ?
(1) Mohammad Hanif (2) Ruskin Bond (3) Richard Wolfee
(4) Amartya Sen (5) None of these
Q.45. 7 July is celebrated as---------------
(1) International Cooperative Day
(2) International Laughing Days
(3) International Population Day
(4) International Environmental Day
(5) None of these
(1) Legally declared Money (2) Advance Money
(3) Soft Money (4) Hot Money (5) None of these
Q.47. Finance commission is included under--------of Indian constitution.
(1) Article 180 (2) Article 220 (3) Article 280 (4) Article 260 (5) None of these
Q.48. In the recently released Monetary Policy of RBI which rate is remain unchanged ?
(1) Cash Reserve Ratio (2) Statutory Liquid Ratio
(3) Bank Rate (4) All
(5) None of these
Q.49. How many countries are included in Human Development Report which is released by UNO ?
(1) 176 (2) 179 (3) 177
(4) 165 (5) None of these
Q.50. Which one is not included in the Indian economy ?
(1) M 1
(2) M 2
(3) M 3
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 10
TEST - II English Language
Q.51-65.Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added.
Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 45.0 ppm would .have other impacts, according to the climate modelling study.
Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three- quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.
Q.51. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ? (1) As global warming is not an issue of concern. (2) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change. . (3) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts. (4) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide. (5) None of these
Q.52. What would NOT be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ? (1) Temperatures will stop soaring (2) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace (3) The rise in sea level would be lesser (4) All of the above would be the impact (5) None of these
Q.53. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century ? (A) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celcius. (B) Arctic warming would be reduced by half. (C) Thermal expansion will stop completely. (1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) All the three (A), (B) and (C) (5) None of these
Q.54. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change” ? (1) Climate change can be stopped completely. (2) Climate change can be regularized. (3) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively. (4) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized. (5) None of these
11 Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK
Q.55. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ? (1) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about degree (2) So that they could stabilize the climate change (3) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions (4) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70% (5) None of these
Q.56. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ? (1) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius (2) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches (3) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100 (4) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth (5) None of these
Q.57. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ? (1) A study of the rise in water level (2) A study of rise in temperatures (3) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions (4) A study of the Arctic region (5) A study of change in seasons
Q.58. Which of the following statements is TRUE in context of the passage ? (1) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm. (2) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked. (3) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during .the pre-industrial era. (4) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked. (5) None of these
Q.59-62. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.59. PREDOMINANTLY (1) clearly (2) aggressively (3) mainly (4) firstly (5) faintly
Q.60. MASSIVE (1) tall (2) tough (3) total (4) little (5) severe
Q.61. SHRINK (1) contract (2) physician (3) wither (4) shrivel (5) reduce
Q.62. DRAMATIC (1) unprecedented (2) thrilling (3) spectacular (4) effective (5) feeble
Q.63-65. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.63. OPPOSED (1) resistant (2) against (3) favouring (4) similar (5) agree
Q.64. DIMINISHED (1) created (2) rose (3) increased (4) lessen (5) finished
Q.65. SIGNIFICANT (1) substantial (2) minuscule (3) incoherent (4) unimportant (5) irrelevant
Q.66-70. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Q.66. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration. (1) go so well (2) going so well (3) gone as well (4) going as well (5) No correction required
Q.67. The ban was imposed by the state’s commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie. (1) had threats of burning (2) had threated to burn (3) had threatened to burn (4) had threatened to burning (5) No correction required
Q.68. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune. (1) will be inaugurate (2) is inauguration (3) will inaugurating (4) is inaugurate (5) No correction required
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 12
Q.69. At a musical night organised for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable. (1) come forward (2) come to the fore (3) came to the forth (4) came to the fore (5) No correction required
Q.70. Although scared of heights,…
4. izk:i Øekad@ TEST FORM NUMBER
1. iz'uiqfLrdk vuqØekad@ TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NO.
BASED ON MEMORY
1. bl iz'uiqfLrdk esa uhps nh x;h pkj iz'ukofy;k¡ gSa %
iz'ukoyh I - lkekU; lpsrrk -- iz-Ø- 1 ls 50
iz'ukoyh II- vaxzsth Hkk"kk -- iz-Ø- 51 ls 100
iz'ukoyh III - vkafdd vfHk;ksX;rk --iz-Ø- 101 ls 150
iz'ukoyh IV - rdZ'kfDr vfHk;ksX;rk -- iz-Ø-151 ls 225
¼ le; lHkh 225 iz'uksa ds fy;s 135 feuV ½
2. jQ dke dsoy bl iz'uiqfLrdk ij gh fd;k tkuk pkfg, u fd fdlh dkxt ijA blds fy;s iz'uiqfLrdk esa tks Hkh [kkyh txg feyrh gks mldk bLrseky dhft;sA
3. bySDVªkfud dSYdqysVj ;k vU; blh rjg dh phtksa dk iz;ksx oftZr gSaA
4. vius mÙkj vyx mÙkji= ij ,p-ch- isafly dh lgk;rk ls fn[kykb;sA vius mÙkj n'kkZus ds fy, mÙkjn'kkZus ds fy, mÙkji= ij fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dk ikyu dhft;sA
5. vki vxj fdlh iz'u dk xyr mÙkj nsrs gSa rks isukYVh Lo:i dqN vad dkV fy;s tk;saxsA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, ;g isukYVh iz'u ds fu/kkZfjr vad dh ,d&pkSFkkbZ ;k 0.25 gksxhA
6. bl iz'uiqfLrdk dks [kksyrs gh rqjar ns[k yhft, fd 1 ls 225 rd lHkh iz'u lkQ lkQ Nis gSa ;k ugha vkSj lHkh i"B Øekuqlkj yxs gSa rFkk dksbZ i"B nksgjk ;k xk;c ugha gSaA vxj vkidks iqfLrdk esa dksbZ nks"k fn[krk gS rks mls cny dj mlh izk:i Øekad okyh nwljh iqfLrdk ys yhft;sA ubZ iqfLrdk Hkh nks"kiw.kZ u gks ;g ns[k yhft;sA
7. tc rd dgk u tk;s bl iz'uiqfLrdk dks er [kksfy;sA
8. iz'uiqfLrdk ds fiNys i"B ij tks iz'u fn;s x;s gSa] mUgsa le> yhft;sA
1. This booklet contains four tests as follows :
Test I - General Awareness .. Q.Nos. 1 to 50
Test II - English Language .. Q.Nos. 51 to 100
Test III - Quantitative Aptitude .. Q.Nos. 101 to 150
Test IV -Reasoning Ability .. Q.Nos. 151 to 225
(Composite time of 135 minutes for 225 questions)
2. Rough work is to be done only in this booklet itself
and not on any other paper. Use the empty space in
the booklet for rough work.
3. Use of electronic calculator or any other such device
is not permitted.
using HB Pencil. Follow the instructions given on the
answersheet for indicating your answers.
5. There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked by
you. For each question for which a wrong answer has
been given by you, one-fourth or 0.25 of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
6. Immediately after you open this booklet, quickly check
that it contains 225 questions, that the pages are in
serial order and that there are no duplicate pages. If
you find it to be defective, get it replaced by another
booklet bearing the same Form No. Also check that
the new booklet is not defective.
7. DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
8. Study the sample questions on the back cover.
TIME ALLOWED : 135 MIN.No. OF QUESTIONS : 225
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 6
TEST - I GENERALAWARENESS
Q.1. Who has been appointed as the Governor of Madhya Pradesh ?
(1) Hans Raj Bhardwaj (2) Devanand Konwar
(3) Rameshwar Thakur (4) R.L. Bhatia (5) None of these
Q.2. Jeev Milkha Singh is related to-------------.
(1) Tennis (2) Football (3) Golf (4) Chess (5) None of these
Q.3. Karl Malden who passed away recently was a famous------------.
(1) Politician (2) Sportsman (3) Actor (4) Singer (5) None of these
Q.4. Who is the author of the book "The Making of Barack Obama" ?
(1) Imran Sheikh (2) R.S. Sharma (3) Amartya Sen
(4) Richard Wolffe (5) None of these
Q.5. When is the International Youth Day celebrated ?
(1) July 11 (2) August 12 (3) September 21
(4) June 5 (5) None of these
Q.6. Central Statistical Organisation is set up during------------
(1) 1950-57 (2) 1951-52 (3) 1952-53 (4) 1942-43 (5) None of these
Q.7. Regional Rural Banks are the Brain child of----------
(1) C. Rangrajan (2) M.Swaminathan
(3) K.C. Niyogi (4) R. Gadgil (5) None of these
Q.8. The largest source of National Income in India is-------------
(1) Service sector (2) Agricultrual Sector
(3) Industrial sector (4) Trade sector (5) None of these
Q.9. Which Indian Bank has maximum branch is abroad ?
(1) Bank of Hindustan (2) State Bank of India (3) Bank of Baroda (4) Canara Bank (5) None of these
Q.10. About how much amount has been approved by Central Government for "Pradhan Mantri Adarsh" Gram Yojana" in Budget 2009-10?
(1) Rs. 100 cr. (2) Rs. 250 cr. (3) Rs. 285 cr. (4) Rs. 300 cr. (5) None of these
Q.11. How many community colleges are established by government to trained the unskilled person to improve their skills ?
(1) 630 (2) 670 (3) 600 (4) 580 (5) None of these
Q.12. How many T-20 tanks are included in Indian Army to strengthen its condition ?
(1) 50 (2) 52 (3) 59 (4) 49 (5) None of these
Q.13. Recently to which bank RBI said to make more clear norm about NPAs ?
(1) State Bank of India (2) Urban Co-operative Bank
(3) Rural Co-operative Bank (4) Allhabad Bank (5) None of these
Q.14. Government approved----------amount for Rural electrification in budget 2009-10 .
(1) Rs. 3000 cr. (2) Rs. 7000 cr. (3) Rs. 5000 cr. (4) Rs. 4000 cr. (5) None of these
7 Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK
Q.15. In which city the first EMU Train is launched ?
(1) Delhi (2) Bangalore (3) Kolkata
(4) Bangalore (5) None of these
Q.16. Which of the following countries has launched the World Largest Commercial Satellite ?
(1) Russia (2) North Korea (3) USA
(4) India (5) None of these
Q.17. Who has been appointed as the new Foreign Secretary of Bangladesh ?
(1) Nirupama Rao (2) Mijarul Quayes
(3) Shiv Shankar Menon (4) M. Touhid Hossein
(5) None of these
Q.18. Which of the following banks have won the Model Bank Award for 2009 ?
(1) Indian Bank (2) Punjab National Bank (3) Canara Bank
(4) Corporation Bank (5) None of these
Q.19. Railway Minister has announced that--------- "Adarsh Stations" will be established ?
(1) 375 (2) 400 (3) 425
(4) 455 (5) None of these
Q.20. Goa carbon will be launched its wholly owned subsidiary unit in which country ?
(1) America (2) China (3) France
(4) Japan (5) None of these
Q.21. Who has been appointed as the Secretary in the department of Defence ?
(1) Vijay Singh (2) Madhukar Gupta (3) S.N. Menon
(4) Raj Kumar Singh (5) None of these
Q.22. Which country comes at the top in the emission Green House Gases ?
(1) America (2) France (3) China
(4) India (5) None of these
Q.23. Which of the following company is the subsidiary of Indian oil cooporation ?
(1) Manali Petroleum Corporation
(2) Chennai Petroleum Corporation
(3) Madras Petroleum Corporation
(4) Bengal Petroleum Corporation
(5) None of these
Q.24. Which of the following Tax is imposed by Central Government ?
(1) Service Tax (2) Entertainment Tax (3) Sale Tax
(4) Land Tax (5) None of these
Q.25. Which Bank started Kiosc Banking in Rural sectors ?
(1) Corporation Bank (2) State Bank of India
(3) Bank of India (4) Allahabad Bank
(5) None of these
Q.26. Which of the following state is the largest producer of Tobacco in India ?
(1) Punjab (2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Andhra Pradesh (4) Kerala
(5) None of these
Q.27. In Budget 2008-09, About how much additional amount is approved for NREGA ?
(1) Rs. 400000 cr. (2) Rs. 39100 cr. (3) Rs. 35100 cr.
(4) Rs. 45100 cr. (5) None of these
Q.28. In Rajasthan-----------launches "Mini Bank Scheme".
(1) Gramin Bank (2) State Bank of India
(3) Allahabad Bank (4) Corporation Bank
(5) None of these
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 8
Q.29. What is the recent forecast of IMF about economic growth of India ?
(1) 5.4% (2) 4.7% (3) 9.8% (4) 7.8% (5) None of these
Q.30. Recently which of the following countries has made law for Rural Land Disputes ?
(1) China (2) Russia (3) India (4) Bangladesh (5) None of these
Q.31. Which of the following countries is the Major Asian Investor in India during 2008 ?
(1) Dubai (2) Singapore (3) Malaysia (4) China (5) None of these
Q.32. "Brain Gain" scheme is related to--------.
(1) Education (2) Infrastructure Development (3) Indian Culture (4) Poverty (5) None of these
Q.33. Which of the following countries celebrate "Bastil Day" as "National Day" ?
(1) Russia (2) France (3) Japan (4) Thailand (5) None of these
Q.34. Which of the following statements is/are true about Kiosc Banking ?
(A) It will provide banking facilities to Rural India.
(B) This banking is started under "State Wide Area Network" scheme.
(C) State Bank of India started this project in Rajasthan
(1) Only A (2) Only B (3) A and B (4) All (5) None of these
Q.35. Recently which country joins membership of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
(1) Bangladesh (2) Kosovo (3) China (4) North Korea (5) None of these
Q.36. How many outlet stores will be opened by Zudas France in India ?
(1) 290 (2) 280 (3) 250 (4) 270 (5) None of these
Q.37. Who is appointed as Chairman of National Developmental Council ?
(1) Dr. Man Mohan Singh (2) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(3) Nirupama Rao (4) Shiv Shankar Menon (5) None of these
Q.38. With which Bank Tata Motor signed an agreement for purchasing Fiat cars ?
(1) State Bank of India (2) Allahabad Bank (3) Canara Bank (4) Punjab National Bank (5) None of these
Q.39. Book "India and Global Economic crises " is written by-
(1) Ruskin Bond (2) Salman Rushdie (3) Y.V. Reddy
(4) Amartya Sen (5) None of these
Q.40. About how much amount has been allocated for Defence Sector in Budget 2009-10 ?
(1) Rs. 17006 cr. (2) Rs. 146100 cr. (3) Rs. 147100 cr. (4) Rs. 141703 cr. (5) None of these
9 Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK
Q.41. Q.IP. stands for–
(1) Qualified Investment Placement
(2) Qualify Investment Programme
(3) Qualified Institutional Placement.
(4) Qualified Institution Placement.
(5) None of these
Q.42. Which of the following actors are nominated for 12th Rajiv Gandhi Award ?
(1) Saif Ali Khan (2) Shahid Kapoor
(3) Sharukh Khan (4) Amitabh Bachchan (5) None of these
Q.43. Who is appointed as Home secretory of India ?
(1) Rahul Khullar (2) N. M. Nelkani (3) G.K. Pillai (4) S.S. Menon (5) None of these
Q.44. Who was the Author of Book "Boys will be Boys" ?
(1) Mohammad Hanif (2) Ruskin Bond (3) Richard Wolfee
(4) Amartya Sen (5) None of these
Q.45. 7 July is celebrated as---------------
(1) International Cooperative Day
(2) International Laughing Days
(3) International Population Day
(4) International Environmental Day
(5) None of these
(1) Legally declared Money (2) Advance Money
(3) Soft Money (4) Hot Money (5) None of these
Q.47. Finance commission is included under--------of Indian constitution.
(1) Article 180 (2) Article 220 (3) Article 280 (4) Article 260 (5) None of these
Q.48. In the recently released Monetary Policy of RBI which rate is remain unchanged ?
(1) Cash Reserve Ratio (2) Statutory Liquid Ratio
(3) Bank Rate (4) All
(5) None of these
Q.49. How many countries are included in Human Development Report which is released by UNO ?
(1) 176 (2) 179 (3) 177
(4) 165 (5) None of these
Q.50. Which one is not included in the Indian economy ?
(1) M 1
(2) M 2
(3) M 3
Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK 10
TEST - II English Language
Q.51-65.Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A new analysis has determined that the threat of global warming can still be greatly diminished if nations cut emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by 70% this century. The analysis was done by scientists at the National Center for Atmospheric Research (NCAR). While global temperatures would rise, the most dangerous potential aspects of climate change, including massive losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and significant sea-level rise, could be partially avoided.
“This research indicates that we can no longer avoid significant warming during this century,” said NCAR scientist Warren Washington, the study paper’s lead author. “But, if the world were to implement this level of emission cuts, we could stabilize the threat of climate change”, he added.
Average global temperatures have warmed by close to 1 degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much of the warming is due to human-produced emissions of greenhouse gases, predominantly carbon dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has increased from a pre-industrial level of about 284 parts per million (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 380 ppm today. With research showing that additional warming of about 1 degree C may be the threshold for dangerous climate change, the European Union has called for dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases.
To examine the impact of such cuts on the world’s climate, Washington and his colleagues ran a series of global studies with the NCAR-based Community Climate System Model (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide levels could be held to 450 ppm at the end of this century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to reach about 750 ppm by 2100 if unchecked. The team’s results showed that if carbon dioxide were held to 450 ppm, global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius above current readings by the end of the century. In contrast, the study showed that temperatures would rise by almost four times that amount, to 2.2 degrees Celsius above current readings, if emissions were allowed to continue on their present course. Holding carbon dioxide levels to 45.0 ppm would .have other impacts, according to the climate modelling study.
Sea-level rise due to thermal expansion as water temperatures warmed would be 14 centimetres (about 5.5 inches) instead of 22 centimetres (8.7 inches). Also, Arctic ice in the summertime would shrink by about a quarter in volume and stabilize by 2100, as opposed to shrinking at least three- quarters and continuing to melt, and Arctic warming would be reduced by almost half.
Q.51. Why has the European Union called for dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas emissions ? (1) As global warming is not an issue of concern. (2) As the temperatures may rise almost by an additional one degree and this may lead to severe climate change. . (3) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to announce the cuts. (4) As all the nations have decided to cut emissions of carbon dioxide. (5) None of these
Q.52. What would NOT be one of the impacts of cutting greenhouse gas emissions ? (1) Temperatures will stop soaring (2) Ice in the Arctic sea would melt at a slower pace (3) The rise in sea level would be lesser (4) All of the above would be the impact (5) None of these
Q.53. What would be the impact of holding the carbon dioxide level at 450 ppm at the end of this century ? (A) Global temperatures would increase by 0.6 degrees Celcius. (B) Arctic warming would be reduced by half. (C) Thermal expansion will stop completely. (1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) All the three (A), (B) and (C) (5) None of these
Q.54. What does the scientist Warren Washington mean when he says “we could stabilize the threat of climate change” ? (1) Climate change can be stopped completely. (2) Climate change can be regularized. (3) Climate change and its effects can be studied extensively. (4) The ill-effects of the change in climate can be minimized. (5) None of these
11 Mahend ra ' sBPO/ANDHRABANK
Q.55. Why did Washington and his colleagues conduct a series of studies ? (1) Because they realized that the temperature increase was almost about degree (2) So that they could stabilize the climate change (3) So that they could help the European Union in cutting the carbon dioxide emissions (4) Because they found out that the greenhouse gas emissions could be cut by 70% (5) None of these
Q.56. What would be the impact of unchecked greenhouse gas and carbon dioxide emissions ? (1) The temperature would rise from the current temperature by 2.2 degrees Celsius (2) The sea-level would rise by about 5.5 inches (3) The arctic ice would stabilize by 2100 (4) The arctic ice would reduce by one-fourth (5) None of these
Q.57. What can be the most appropriate title of the above passage ? (1) A study of the rise in water level (2) A study of rise in temperatures (3) A study of the effects of greenhouse gas emissions (4) A study of the Arctic region (5) A study of change in seasons
Q.58. Which of the following statements is TRUE in context of the passage ? (1) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about 284 ppm. (2) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked. (3) The carbon dioxide emission was about 380 ppm during .the pre-industrial era. (4) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 750 ppm at the end of this century if unchecked. (5) None of these
Q.59-62. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.59. PREDOMINANTLY (1) clearly (2) aggressively (3) mainly (4) firstly (5) faintly
Q.60. MASSIVE (1) tall (2) tough (3) total (4) little (5) severe
Q.61. SHRINK (1) contract (2) physician (3) wither (4) shrivel (5) reduce
Q.62. DRAMATIC (1) unprecedented (2) thrilling (3) spectacular (4) effective (5) feeble
Q.63-65. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q.63. OPPOSED (1) resistant (2) against (3) favouring (4) similar (5) agree
Q.64. DIMINISHED (1) created (2) rose (3) increased (4) lessen (5) finished
Q.65. SIGNIFICANT (1) substantial (2) minuscule (3) incoherent (4) unimportant (5) irrelevant
Q.66-70. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Q.66. Naturally, with everything gone so well for them, it was time for celebration. (1) go so well (2) going so well (3) gone as well (4) going as well (5) No correction required
Q.67. The ban was imposed by the state’s commercial taxes department last Friday after protests by a certain community, which had threat to burn cinema halls screening the controversial movie. (1) had threats of burning (2) had threated to burn (3) had threatened to burn (4) had threatened to burning (5) No correction required
Q.68. Rakesh, an avid football player who captained his team in school and college, will inaugurate the match tomorrow in Pune. (1) will be inaugurate (2) is inauguration (3) will inaugurating (4) is inaugurate (5) No correction required
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Q.69. At a musical night organised for them, the artistic side of the doctors came as forward, as they sang beautifully and made the evening truly memorable. (1) come forward (2) come to the fore (3) came to the forth (4) came to the fore (5) No correction required
Q.70. Although scared of heights,…