ATPPROVISIONALANSWERKEY

NAMEOFTHEPOST INDUSTRIES OFFICER (MINES) CLASS-II

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PreliminaryTestheldon 11‐06‐2017QueNo. 101–300PublishDate 15-06‐2017LastDatetosendsuggestion(s) 22‐06‐2017

Note:‐

(1) AllSuggestionsaretobesentwithreferencetowebsitepublishedQuestionpaperwithProvisionalAnswerKeyOnly.

(2) AllSuggestionsaretobesentinthegivenformatonly.(3) Candidatemustensuretheabovecompliance.

(1) ઉમેદવાર વાધંા- ચૂનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન નૂાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો. (2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર ામા ંમળેલ સીર ઝની ુ તકામા ંછપાયેલ માકં જુબ વાધંા-

ચૂનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાધંા- ચૂનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક ના માકં જુબ અને તે સદંભમા ંર ૂ કરવા

(3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉ ત ચૂના ુ ંઅ કૂ પાલન કર ુ ંઅ યથા વાધંા- ચૂનો ગે કરલ ર ૂઆતો યાને લેવાશે નહ . 

ATP - A ] 13 P.T.O.

101. A line layout generally provides the advantage of:

(A) Simple tasks that can be done with less skilled manpower

(B) Lower levels of work-in-process inventories

(C) Lower material handling cost

(D) All of the above

102. Of the three costs relevant to a decision on inventory, which is most difficult to estimate?

(A) Shortage costs (B) Carrying costs

(C) Order costs (D) Transportation costs

103. If the materials are classified into ABC-VED matrix, you will fix the highest service level for

(A) AV class Items (B) CD class Items

(C) AD class Items (D) CV class Items

104. Period Order Quantity is:

(A) The quantity to be ordered every period

(B) The order quantity expressed is number of periods of supply

(C) The number of periods at the end of which the order for the calculated quantity is placed

(D) None of the above

105. Part Period Balancing means:

(A) Balancing production schedules for part of the period

(B) Partly evening out the requirements of material over several coming periods

(C) Line balancing which needs to be reviewed periodically

(D) Bringing in EOQ concepts in MRP systems in some measure

106. A Bill Of Materials (BOM) means :

(A) A listing of all of the assemblies, sub assemblies, parts and raw materials that are needed toproduce one unit of finished product.

(B) A list of all the materials required for the manufacturing during the day.

(C) A bill from the vendor for all the materials supplied by him

(D) A requisition for materials from the production shop to stores

107. The output from Material Requirement Planning (MRP) is / are:

(A) released orders which go to purchasing in - house production shops

(B) planned orders which are used for capacity planning

(C) rescheduling information used by master schedulers

(D) All of the above

108. Under a capital Rationing situation when there are budget constraints over several periods oftime, the following method is theoretically appropriate method for selection of projects:

(A) NPV (Net Present Value) (B) IRR (Internal Rate of Return)

(C) PBP (Pay Back Period) (D) None of the above

109. In order to take inflation into account we should do the following with the discount rate :

(A) Decrease it

(B) Increase it

(C) Do nothing with the discount rate since it automatically takes inflation into account

(D) None of the above

110. The first step in designing a network for a project is:

(A) Listing of activities (B) Appointing various personnel

(C) Breakdown work structure (D) Estimating resources needs

ATP - A ] 14 [Contd.

111. PERT assumes the following statistical distribution for its individual activity times :

(A) Poisson (B) Normal

(C) Binomial (D) Beta

112. PERT/CPM network analysis can be used for :

(A) project appraisal (B) project implementation

(C) project monitoring and control (D) all of the above

113. The main difference between PERT and CPM techniques is

(A) PERT uses activity on Node diagram; whereas CPM uses Activity on Arrow diagram

(B) PERT is event oriented whereas CPM is activity oriented

(C) PERT lays emphasis on cost whereas CPM lays emphasis on time

(D) PERT is probabilistic whereas CPM is deterministic

114. A quality circle is:

(A) An appointed place in a manufacturing plant, where quality characteristics of the materialsbeing processed are checked

(B) A government-appointed body to check and control the quality of output in sensitiveindustries such as defense related materials, drugs and pharmaceuticals etc

(C) A small voluntary group of employees in a company who discuss and try to improve thequality of output and other work related matters.

(D) The circular phenomenon whereby there is a constant feedback regarding quality betweenthe management and the workers.

115. Regarding specifications limits and control limits for quality it can be said that:

(A) both are one and the same

(B) control limits are wider than the specification limits

(C) specification limits are wider than control limits

(D) None of the above

116. Aggregate production planning involves :

(A) defining objectives of the organization and setting priorities to attain these

(B) studying strength, weakness, opportunities of and threats to the organization and planningthe system accordingly

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

117. Aggregate production planning is for

(A) Short term horizon (B) Intermediate time horizon

(C) Long time horizon (D) None of the above

118. Assemble line balancing aims to achieve desired production rate accompanied by

(A) maximum utilization of the plant and machinery

(B) maximum utilization of the workforce

(C) minimum inventories of raw materials and work in progress

(D) None of the above

119. Forward scheduling and backward scheduling are :

(A) finite loading systems

(B) infinite loading systems

(C) short - intervals scheduling techniques

(D) techniques used for planning production in MRP system

ATP - A ] 15 P.T.O.

120. For a company building large ships, the most useful aggregate planning and scheduling techniqueis

(A) Linear Programming Model (B) HMMS Model

(C) Transportation Problem Model (D) Network Analysis (PERT/CPM)

121. The need for departmentation arises due to following reasons :

(A) To promote decentralization in decision making

(B) To hold department heads responsible

(C) To help in increasing production

(D) To increase motivation and morale

122. The object of control is:

(A) To know current business trends

(B) To supervise effectively

(C) To take corrective action after knowing deviations

(D) To check the repetitions of faults

123. The main characteristic of functional organization is :

(A) Its structure is based on specialization

(B) Line officers act on the advice of specialists

(C) Orders flow in a line from top to bottom

(D) The ultimate responsibility of all tasks is held by a top officer

124. The following is not the principle of organization

(A) Principle of strategy (B) Principle of coordination

(C) Principle of ultimate responsibility (D) Principle of delegation

125. The following is not a component of planning :

(A) Objectives (B) Programmes

(C) Strategy (D) Forecasting

126. Management By Objectives (MBO) is :

(A) Result Oriented Philosophy (B) Concept of leadership

(C) Bureaucratic Approach (D) A process of determination of objectives

127. Which management thinker is known as "The Universalist"?

(A) Frederick Taylor (B) Henri Fayol

(C) Peter Drucker (D) L. Urwick

128. Which concept is not the contribution of Taylor

(A) Principles of high wages and low labor cost

(B) Scientific selection and training of workers

(C) Personality leadership

(D) Standardization and development of science

129. The chief feature of Bureaucratic Approach of management is

(A) Hierarchy of positions and network procedures

(B) Organizations of Industry Unions

(C) Development of accounting procedures

(D) Democratic System

ATP - A ] 16 [Contd.

130. The principles of 'unity of command' connote that:

(A) An employee should receives orders from only one superior

(B) There should be one plan for one group

(C) A department should have only one boss

(D) Regarding one plan only one officer should issue the instructions

131. According to American ideology :

(A) Administration is wider than and above management

(B) The task of administration is to implement the goods and policies of organization

(C) The job of management is to determine the policies.

(D) Management is concerned with the ultimate control of executive class

132. Contingency management concept assumes that :

(A) A best method of doing work can be determined in management

(B) Management depends on traditions

(C) Management depends on personal ability and skills, not on circumstances

(D) There is no single way to manage in all circumstances

133. In which type of business form owner has a freedom of decision making?

(A) Sole Trade (B) Partnership

(C) Company (D) Co-operative

134. Establishment functions of entrepreneur are:

(A) Conceiving a business idea (B) Evaluation of idea

(C) Project Planning (D) All the above

135. The obstructing element in the development of entrepreneurship is:

(A) Orthodox Society (B) Lack of capital

(C) Monopoly (D) All the above

136. Main functions of financial management is/are

(A) Financial planning (B) Procurement of funds

(C) Allocation of net profits (D) All of these

137. Which one is not included in financial management

(A) Procurement of finances (B) Co-ordination in organisation

(C) Financial control (D) None of these

138. The objectives of financial management is/are

(A) Profit maximisation (B) Wealth maximization

(C) A and B both (D) None of the above

139. As per quantitative concept working capital means:

(A) Total of current assets

(B) Difference of current assets and current liabilities

(C) Excess of current Assets over current liabilities

(D) All the above

140. As per quantitative concept, working capital means:

(A) Total of current assets

(B) Difference of current Assets and current liabilities

(C) Excess of fixed assets over current liabilities

(D) All the above

ATP - A ] 17 P.T.O.

141. According to operating cycle concept, working capital is :

(A) networking capital

(B) circulating capital

(C) operating capital

(D) required liquid part of net working capital during operating cycle method

142. ________ is/are fixed working capital

(A) Minimum stock of raw materials (B) Minimum stock of finished goods

(C) Minimum bank balance (D) All the above

143. Nature of seasonal working capital is:

(A) short-term (B) medium-term

(C) long-term (D) variable

144. Adequate working capital is required for

(A) Prompt payment to suppliers

(B) Increase in credit

(C) Exploitation of favourable opportunities

(D) All of above

145. Requirement of ________ working capital changes due to fluctuation in demand.

(A) fixed (B) variable

(C) circulating (D) operating

146. Excess working capital is the evidence of

(A) Ideal funds (B) defective credit policy

(C) Managerial inefficiency (D) All the above

147. Forecasting of working capital is based on _________ according to net current assets method

(A) cash cost (B) credit sales

(C) total cost (D) credit policy

148. Forecasting of working capital is possible by preparing _________

(A) balance sheet (B) historical balance sheet

(C) projected balance sheet (D) All the above

149. Factor(s) that determine the organization of financial functions is/are

(A) varying financial needs (B) the ability of financial officers

(C) financial systems (D) All of these

150. Which of the following is not source of long-term finance ?

(A) commercial paper (B) debenture

(C) ordinary equity (D) none of the above

151. Term loans commonly used in India to finance large expansions or modernization projects arealso known as

(A) Lease financing (B) Letter of credit

(C) Right issue (D) Project financing

152. Limitations of ordinary equity shares issues includes

(A) flotation cost (B) earning dilution

(C) ownership dilution (D) All of the above

153. Trade credit is the source of

(A) short-term finance (B) medium-term finance

(C) long-term finance (D) None of the above

ATP - A ] 18 [Contd.

154. Commercial paper are generally issued by

(A) small size firm (B) medium size firm

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) large size firm

155. In case of cash discount, after the discount period credit is:

(A) free of cost (B) costlier

(C) cheaper (D) None of the above

156. When inventory is offered as security to the bank as issue of loan it is called

(A) Mortgage (B) Hypothecation

(C) Pledge (D) Lien

157. Which of the following suggest investor preference for current dividends

(A) Walter's model (B) Gordon's model

(C) M M model (D) Residual theory

158. Which is true for the M M model of dividend policy:

(A) Share price goes up of dividend is paid

(B) Share price goes down of dividend is paid

(C) Share price is not affected by dividend

(D) None of the above

159. Walter model would suggest 100% dividend payout ratio when relation between cost of capital(K) and internal rate of return (r) is given as follow

(A) K > r (B) K < r

(C) K = r (D) none of the above

160. In Gordon's model market price of share would be zero if there is no dividend payout. Itmeans,

(A) shares are available free of cost (B) shares are not being traded

(C) shares have no intrinsic values (D) None of the above

161. In M M model the arbitrage is between

(A) Dividend and fresh investment (B) Dividend and borrowings

(C) Project and fresh investment (D) None of the above

162. Which of the following is part of dividend policy

(A) bonus shares (B) cash dividend

(C) share repurchase (D) share split

163. Maximum time gap between declaration of dividends and payment of dividends is

(A) 10 days (B) 20 days

(C) 30 days (D) 40 days

164. Dividend distribution is paid by

(A) shareholders (B) the company distributing dividends

(C) lenders (D) none of the above

165. Capital budgeting is a part of

(A) Receivable management (B) Investment decision

(C) Dividend decision (D) Capital Structure

166. Profitability Index is most closely related with

(A) accounting rate of return (B) internal rate of return

(C) net present value (D) payback period

ATP - A ] 19 P.T.O.

167. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the cash reserve ratio, what does itmean

(A) The commercial banks will have more money to lend

(B) The commercial banks will have less money to lend

(C) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend

(D) Union Government will have less money to lend

168. Custom duty is an instrument of

(A) monetary policy (B) foreign trade policy

(C) industrial policy (D) fiscal policy

169. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) concept was first introduced in

(A) China (B) Japan

(C) India (D) Pakistan

170. Core industries are:

(A) Basic Industries (B) Consumer goods Industries

(C) Capital goods Industries (D) Government Industries

171. Speculative demand for cash is determined by

(A) the rate of interest (B) the level of income

(C) the general price level (D) the market conditions

172. Venture Capital firms prefer _________ for investment

(A) Ventures with high potential (B) Small routine business

(C) Firms with low borrowing capacity (D) None of the above

173. Essential elements of a business plan include

(A) Description of the product or service (B) Details of the management

(C) Financial projections (D) All of the above

174. The difference of gross domestic product and net domestic product is

(A) Utilization of fixed capital (B) Current transfers from government

(C) Net direct tax (D) Net factor income from foreign countries

175. Net national income according to factor cost is

(A) National income (B) Total disposable income

(C) Earned Income in public sector (D) None of the above

176. Characteristics of capitalism is

(A) society ownership (B) private ownership

(C) government ownership (D) none of the above

177. Mission of new industrial policy 2015 of government of Gujarat are:

(A) To create employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workforce

(B) To become global hub for manufacturing

(C) To become regional hub for manufacturing

(D) Both (A) & (B)

178. The micro, small and medium enterprise development act was made effective in year

(A) 2004 (B) 2005

(C) 2006 (D) 2007

ATP - A ] 20 [Contd.

179. "Ease of doing business" is promoted by

(A) ministry of external affairs

(B) RBI

(C) FICCI

(D) development of industrial policy and promotion

180. Out of the following which one is not the function of department of industrial policy andpromotion

(A) Formulation and implementation of industrial policy

(B) Monitoring the industrial growth

(C) Formulation of FDI policy

(D) Formulation of EXIM policy

181. "Make In India" is seen by

(A) RBI (B) Ministry of foreign affairs

(C) Ministry of commerce and industry (D) IRDA

182. Department of industrial policy and promotion was established in

(A) 1995 (B) 1991

(C) 1994 (D) 1996

183. Oil engine cluster has been developed at

(A) Bhavnagar (B) Ahmedabad

(C) Anand (D) Rajkot

184. Brass parts cluster has been attached to

(A) CGCRI (B) ATIRA

(C) EDI (D) NIFT

185. In case of micro entreprises for manufacturing unit investment into plant and machinery isconsidered :

(A) up to Rs. 20 lakhs (B) up to Rs. 25 lakhs

(C) up to Rs. 30 lakhs (D) up to Rs. 35 lakhs

186. ‘Make in India’ programme has indentified ________ sectors.

(A) 20 (B) 22

(C) 25 (D) 27

187. SIDBI provides indirect assistance through :

(A) service sector assistance

(B) receivable finance scheme

(C) (A) and (B) above

(D) Micro and Small Enterprise Refinance Scheme (MSERS)

188. SIDBI provides direct assistance through :

(A) SMILE – Make in India soft loan fund

(B) Financing schemes for sustainable development

(C) Growth Capital & Equity

(D) All the above

189. In Monetary Review on 8th February, 2017, RBI has kept Repo rate ________ .

(A) unchanged (B) changed to 7.25%

(C) changed to 8.25% (D) None of the above

ATP - A ] 21 P.T.O.

190. Which among the following formulates fiscal policy ?

(A) RBI (B) Finance Ministry

(C) President (D) Planning Commission

191. Real Money Policy relates to :

(A) High Price Level (B) Large Money Supply

(C) High Production (D) High Interest Rate

192. Which of the following tax is not levied by the Union Government ?

(A) Income Tax (B) Land Revenue

(C) Excise Duty (D) Wealth Tax

193. The annual record for all the monetary transactions of a country with other countries of theworld is known as :

(A) Balance of Trade (B) Balance of monetary receipt

(C) Balance of payments (D) Balance Sheet

194. All are the benefits of GST in India except.

(A) Easy compliance (B) Higher cascading effect

(C) Improved competitiveness (D) Removal of cascading

195. Head office of the National Board for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises situated at

(A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai

(C) Chennai (D) Hyderabad

196. Who is the Ex-officio Chair person of Gujarat Special Economic Zone Development Authority ?

(A) Chief Minister of Gujarat

(B) Chief Secretary to the Government of Gujarat, ex-officio

(C) Secretary to the Government of Gujarat, Industries

(D) The Secretary to the Government of Gujarat, Finance Department, ex-officio

197. The two Managerial practises that emeuged from Taylor's Scientific Management are piece-rate incentive system and

(A) Time and motion study (B) Fatigue study

(C) Organization study (D) Work study

198. IBRD (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development) also known as

(A) EXIM Bank (B) World Bank

(C) IMF (D) International Financial Bank

199. The World Trade Organization was formed in the year ________ with GATT as it basis

(A) 1993 (B) 1994

(C) 1995 (D) 1996

200. Trade Related Entrepreneurship Assistance and Development (TREAD) scheme for womenhas provided for financial loans through NGO's to

(A) Non-farming activity (B) Farming activity

(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None of the above

201. All are the remedies for Industrial Sickness except :

(A) Minimizing Input Cost

(B) Rehabilitation Programme

(C) Financial Support from lending Institutions

(D) Increase in Cost of Production

ATP - A ] 22 [Contd.

202. Which one is not the external factor which leads to Industrial Sickness

(A) International Competition (B) Shortage of Essential Inputs

(C) Advancement of Technology (D) Poor Utilization of Resources

203. Which city of India is also known as “Diamond City”?

(A) Mumbai (B) Surat

(C) Bangalore (D) Hyderabad

204. GIFT Stands for

(A) Global International Finance Tec-City

(B) Gujarat International Finance Tec-City

(C) Government International Finance Tec-City

(D) Gujarat Indian Financial Trading-City

205. To fuel the growth of Indian Insurance Industry, foreign investment cap in an Insurancecompany has increased to ________ from 26% with the safeguard of Indian ownership andcontrol.

(A) 40% (B) 49%

(C) 51% (D) 74%

206. The Supreme court of India recently ordered that only vehicles with engines compliant withBS ________ standards must be sold from April 1, 2017

(A) III (B) IV

(C) V (D) II

207. As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016, the creditors committee has to take decisionsregarding insolvency resolution by

(A) 75% majority (B) 50% majority

(C) 60% majority (D) 51% majority

208. Indian telecom industry going through consolidation phase after entry of Reliance - Jio, thelatest merger between is

(A) Airtel and R-Com (B) Idea and Airtel

(C) Airtel and Vodafone (D) Vodafone and Idea

209. On 23rd September, 2013, Committee on comprehensive financial services for small businessand low income households, headed by ________ was formed by the RBI

(A) Nachiket Mor (B) Raghuram Rajan

(C) Manmohan Singh (D) Urjit Patel

210. India's growing E-commerce sector attracted players from worldwide, China's E-commercegiant Alibaba invested in which Indian company ?

(A) Myntra (B) Snapdeal

(C) Paytm (D) Mobiwik

211. Payment banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank India (RBI),Which is first payment bank in India ?

(A) Airtel (B) Paytm

(C) Idea Money (D) freecharge

ATP - A ] 23 P.T.O.

212. Which of the following belong to the factors affecting the location decisions ?

(I) Supply of capital

(II) Availability of raw Materials

(III) Recreational facilities

(IV) Market proximity

(A) (I), (II) and (III) (B) (I), (II) and (IV)

(C) (I), (III) and (IV) (D) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

213. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would

(A) Thrive

(B) Disappear

(C) Be absorbed within large innovative firms

(D) Be absorbed within non-innovative firms

214. Who said that the job of the entrepreneur is “Creative destruction”?

(A) Peter Drucker (B) Pierre Trudean

(C) Joseph Schumpeter (D) Brian Mulroney

215. Who suggested that innovation is the core of entrepreneurship ?

(A) Timmons (B) Kirton

(C) Drucker (D) Cromie

216. Which of the following is not considered a common characteristic of an entrepreneur ?

(A) Internal locus of control (B) High need for achievment

(C) Self - confidence (D) External locus of control

217. The resistance of employees in an organization against flexibility, growth and diversificationcan be overcome by developing

(A) Entrepreneurship (B) Intrapreneurship

(C) Managerial domain (D) Administrative domain

218. The entrepreneur who does not change the method of production already introduced is

(A) Drone entrepreneur (B) Fabian entrepreneur

(C) Classical entrepreneur (D) None ot these

219. The initial capital that is required to obtain loans from the financial institutions is called

(A) Seed capital (B) Incentive

(C) Subsidy (D) None of these

220. The advance given to cover the finance requirement during the time lag between the sanctioningand disbursement of term loan by financial institutions is known as

(A) Soft loan (B) Seed capital

(C) Capital subsidy (D) Bridge loan

221. ________ entrepreneur neither introduce new changes nor adopt new methods innovated byothers

(A) Technical (B) Fabian

(C) Induced (D) Business

222. Gujarat government’s Cottage and Rural Industries Policy, 2016 provides an award ofRs. ________ for the best woman artisan

(A) Rs. 1.50 lakh (B) Rs. 1.25 lakh

(C) Rs. 1.75 lakh (D) Rs. 1.00 lakh

ATP - A ] 24 [Contd.

223. Rate of subsidy on loan amount to women under Shri Vajpayee Bankable Yojana in rural areasis

(A) 30% (B) 40%

(C) 35% (D) 38%

224. Under craft business development scheme clusters / centers having artisans between ________to ________ are elegible for the scheme

(A) 100 to 250 (B) 50 to 100

(C) 500 to 1000 (D) 100 to 300

225. Under department of commerce total number of divisions are

(A) 10 (B) 8

(C) 9 (D) 12

226. The department of commerce is functionally organized into the following divisions except(A) International Trade Policy Division (B) Export Products Division

(C) Export Industries Division (D) Manufacturing Industries Division

227. There are ________ statutory commodity boards under the department of commerce. Theseboards are reponsible for production, development and export.

(A) 8 (B) 4

(C) 7 (D) 5

228. Which one is not the statutory commodity boards under the department of commerce

(A) Tea Board (B) Coffee Board

(C) Sugar Board (D) Rubber Board

229. State Trading Corporation has how many branch offices in India ?

(A) 10 (B) 15

(C) 13 (D) 8

230. India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF) was established in ________ and headed by ________

(A) 2002 and The Commerce Secretary (B) 2005 and The Prime Minister

(C) 2003 and The Commerce Secretary (D) 2001 and The Prime Minister

231. The head office of The Indian Institute of Packaging is situated at

(A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi

(C) Kolkatta (D) Chennai

232. The official export certification body of India which ensures quality and safety of productsexported from India

(A) Export - Inspection Council (EIC) (B) Export Promotion Council

(C) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (D) Import - Export Ministry

233. DGFT issues licenses to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations through anetwork of ________ Regional offices and an extension counter at ________ .

(A) 40 and Indore (B) 36 and Indore

(C) 40 and New Delhi (D) 36 and New Delhi

234. The Cashew Export Promotion Council of India (CEPC) was established by the Governmentof India in the year

(A) 1960 (B) 1965

(C) 1955 (D) 1952

235. Which one is not true for department of commerce, it controls

(A) 10 Export Promotion Council (B) 5 Public Sector Undertaking

(C) 10 Autonomous Bodies (D) 2 Advisory Board

ATP - A ] 25 P.T.O.

236. Who is the Chairperson of State level implementation committee, which executes the schemeof Assistance for Environmental protection measure (Under New Industrial Policy, 2015.Gujarat)

(A) Industries Commissioner

(B) Chief Engineer, GIDC

(C) Joint / Deputy Industries Commissioner

(D) Deputy Engineer, GIDC

237. As per “Scheme of Financial Assistance for Skill Development to MSME Sector” any MSMEshall spnsor candidate for skill development from its workfore or a fresh candidate for itsrequirement. The assistance proveded for the course fees is upto Rs. ________

(A) Rs. 25,000 (B) Rs. 15,000

(C) Rs. 10,000 (D) Rs. 50,000

238. ________ means a University / Institute of a specific department having its specific sectorialspecialization or ability to mentor over all skill development activities

(A) Nodan Institute (B) Anchor Institute

(C) Host Institute (D) Home Institute

239. Logistic Park as approved by the committee should be completed within a period of ________from the date of approveal of project by the committee.

(A) 2 years (B) 5 years

(C) 3 years (D) 10 years

240. As per new Industrial Policy 2015 of Gujarat Govt., Industrial park will be provided financialassistance of ________ of eligible fixed capital investment in building and infrastructure facilities(except land cost) with a maximum cap. upto ________ .

(A) @ 15% and Rs. 15 Crores (B) @ 25% and Rs. 30 Crores

(C) @ 10% and Rs. 10 Crores (D) @ 50% and Rs. 15 Crores

241. As per New Industrial Policy 2015, Gujarat “Industrial Park” means an estate developed inminimum area of ________ for establishment of minimum ________ .

(A) 20 Hectares and 10 Industrial Units (B) 10 Hectares and 20 Industrial Units

(C) 5 Hectares and 15 Industrial Units (D) 15 Hectares and 5 Industrial Units

242. Which one is not the function of unit approval committee ?

(A) approve the plan for establishment of factory under the Factories Act, 1948, 63 of 1948

(B) registration of unit and grant licence for starting, running and operating of the unit, underany of the State Acts,

(C) to acquire land in the zone, by consent agreement or through proceedings under the LandAcquisition Act, 1894 for the purpose of this Act

(D) Site clearance under the factories Act, 1948 on behalf of inspectorate of factories andboiler, 63 of 1948

243. The Micro and Small Enterprises Facilitation Council shall consists of

(A) Not less than 3 but not more than 5 members from different categories prescribed

(B) Not less than 5 but not more than 10 members from different categories prescribed

(C) Not less than 1 but not more than 3 members from different categories prescribed(D) Not less than 10 but not more than 14 members from different categories prescribed

244. National Board for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises shall meet at least

(A) Once in every 6 months in a year (B) Once in a every 12 months in a year

(C) Once is a every 2 months in a year (D) Once in a every 3 months in a year

ATP - A ] 26 [Contd.

245. As per “Scheme for Assistance for Labour Intensive Industries” of New Industrial Policy 2015,Gujarat interest subsidy of ________ with the maximum amount of Rs. 1 crore per annum fora period of 5 years from the date of commencement of commercial production is admissible.

(A) @ 10% (B) @ 7.5%

(C) @ 7% (D) @ 5%

246. As per “Scheme for Assistance for Research and Development Activities” of New IndustrialPolicy, 2015, Gujarat assistance for contract / sponsored research work from any enterprisewill be considered @ ________ of project cost, excluding cost of land and building subject tomaximum Rs. ________ .

(A) 50% and Rs. 50 lakh (B) 50% and Rs. 25 lakh

(C) 20% and Rs. 25 lakh (D) 75% and Rs. 50 lakh

247. As per “Scheme for Market Development Assistance” of New Industrial Policy, 2015, Gujaratassistance to MSME enterprises of manufacturing sector participation in international tradefair outside India ________ for rent of stall or space, cost of product literature and displaymaterial subject to a maximum of Rs. ________

(A) @ 50% and Rs. 2 lakh (B) @ 25% and Rs. 5 lakh

(C) @ 50% and Rs. 4 lakh (D) @ 25% and Rs. 3 lakh

248. BIFR stands for :

(A) Bureau of Industrial and Financial Refurbishment

(B) Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction

(C) Bureau of Industrial and Financial Refinement

(D) Board of Industrial and Financial Renovation

249. Which of the following was earlier known as SIDO ?

(A) KVIC (B) MSME - DO

(C) NSIC (D) NIESBUD

250. Small scale industries face several difficulties in the marketing and distribution of their productsdue to lack of :

(A) salesperson (B) market demand

(C) marketing network (D) market research

251. Problems faced by women entrepreneurs are :

(A) Mobility problem (B) Family responsibilities

(C) Lack of financial support (D) All of these

252. SIDBI was delinked from IDBI to provide greater functional autonomy and operational flexibilityin the year :

(A) 2000 (B) 2002

(C) 2003 (D) 2005

253. A unit is called sick unit :

(A) if it has not incurred cash losses in the immediately preceding two years and is not expectedto incur losses during the current year.

(B) if it has eroded networth to the extent of at least 50%.

(C) if it has a proper working capital advance account with the bank over a period of 12 to 18months.

(D) if it has paid four consecutive half yearly or two consecutive annual instalments of principleand interest on term loan.

ATP - A ] 27 P.T.O.

254. All are the objectives of a scheme for promotion of innovation, Rural Industry andEntrepreneurship except :

(A) promote entrepreneurship culture in India.

(B) grassroots economic development at district level.

(C) promote innovation to further strengthen the competitiveness of large enterprise sector.

(D) facilitate innovative business solution for unmet social needs.

255. As per Credit Linked Capital Subsidy scheme maximum ceiling of loan eligible for support is :

(A) 15% of the investment in eligible plant and machinery.

(B) ceiling on loan – Rs. 100 lakh.

(C) ceiling on subsidy – Rs. 15 lakh

(D) All of the above

256. As per scheme of technology upgradation / setting up / modernisation / expansion of foodprocessing industry grant of ________ of the cost of plant and machinery and related technicaland civil works subject to a maximum of Rs. ________ in general area is permissible.

(A) 25% and Rs. 50 lakhs (B) 15% and Rs. 35 lakhs

(C) 20% and Rs. 30 lakhs (D) 10% and Rs. 40 lakhs

257. The value of national income adjusted for inflation is called :

(A) Per capita national income (B) Disposable national income

(C) National national income (D) Real national income

258. Who said “Capitalism contain seeds of its own destruction” ?

(A) Karl Marx (B) Adam smith

(C) Ricardo (D) Samuelson

259. Who is the Chairperson of Monetary Policy Committee in India ?

(A) Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India

(B) Governor of the Reserve Bank of India

(C) Prime Minister of India

(D) Finance Minister of India

260. National LED programme launched on January 15, 2015, its implementing by :

(A) Energy Efficiency Service Limited (B) Energy Saving Services Limited

(C) National LED Agency (D) National Energy Saving Ltd.

261. Fiscal Incentive is provided to leather footwear (footwear with uppers made of leather) withretail sale price of more than INR 1000 per by reducing excise duty to :

(A) 10% (B) 5%

(C) 4% (D) 6%

262. In pharmaceuticals sector for brown field projects FDI has been allowed upto ________ throughautomatic route.

(A) 100% (B) 50%

(C) 74% (D) 26%

263. Merchandize Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) provides duty rewards to eligible textile andapparel categories to an extent of ________ of Free on Board (FOB) value.

(A) 5 - 8% (B) 2 - 5%

(C) 6 - 8% (D) 7 - 9%

ATP - A ] 28 [Contd.

264. Government of India has established fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) of Rs. 10,000 crorewith ________ as part of Start up Action Plan.

(A) SBI (B) IDBI

(C) SIDBI (D) NABARD

265. Government provides Fiscal Incentives such as accelerated depreciation, concessional customduty, excise duty exemption, income tax holidays for ________ years to promote renewableenergy.

(A) 8 years (B) 10 years

(C) 5 years (D) 15 years

266. In union budget 2017-2018 ________ platform, leveraging IT, is launch with atleast 350 onlinecourses.

(A) SWAYAM (B) Self Academy

(C) E-Education (D) E-Course

267. In union budget 2017-18 for passenger safety, a ________ will be created with a corpus of Rs.1 lakh crores over a period of 5 years.

(A) Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh (B) Rashtriya Rail Suraksha Kosh

(C) Rashtriya Rail Raksha Kosh (D) Rashtriya Rail Yatri Raksha Kosh

268. As per union budget 2017-2018 of India dedicated Micro Irrigation Fund is established inNABARD to achive ‘Per Drop More Crop’ with on initial corpus of :

(A) Rs. 2500 crores (B) Rs. 5000 crores

(C) Rs. 3000 crores (D) Rs. 1000 crores

269. Automatic stabilizer refer to :

(A) Inherent mechanisms in the stock market that automatically cause stock market gains tobe cancelled out by losses, which make expected long run return equal to zero.

(B) The invisible hand mechanisms which automatically bring the economy out of a recession.

(C) Government revenue and expenditure items that change automatically in response tochanges in economic activity.

(D) Discretionary monetary policy maneuvers designed to keep inflation under controlautomatically

270. In line with the “________” roadmap, Rs. 10,000 crores for recapitalisation of banks is providedin 2017-18 union budget.

(A) Bank Raksha (B) Indradhanush

(C) Bank Suraksha (D) Shakti

271. Which institution was established in 1955 for facilitating growth to small enterprises in India.

(A) NSIC (B) SIDO

(C) SSIB (D) NABARD

272. In union budget 2017-2018, ________ initiative launched to provide tele-medicine, educationand skills through digital technology is called.

(A) Digigram (B) Digirural

(C) Digigaon (D) Digivillage

273. State financial corporation is incorporated under :

(A) State Financial Corporation Act, 1952

(B) State Financial Corporation Act, 1958

(C) State Financial Corporation Act, 1951

(D) State Financial Corporation Act, 1956

ATP - A ] 29 P.T.O.

274. Under Stand-Up India scheme in case of non-individual enterprises ________ of the shareholding should be held by either SC / ST and / or women entrepreneur.

(A) 40% (B) 75%

(C) 51% (D) 35%

275. For Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which is involved in space researchmanufacturing of rockets and other related works, which of the following types of facilitylayout will suit best its requirement ?

(A) Service facility layout (B) Fixed position layout

(C) Product layout (D) Process layout

276. “Demand for reservation in jobs for minorities refers to an example of key component ofgeneral environment of business.” Name this component :

(A) Technological Environment (B) Legal Environment

(C) Social Environment (D) None of the above

277. According to the monetary approach of exchange rate forecasting, inflation is the outcome of :

(A) Increase in wages in the economy

(B) Increase in real output growth

(C) Increase in money supply in excess of real output growth

(D) Adverse effect of political factors on the economy

278. Ramesh Electronics is considering the purchase of testing equipment that will cost Rs. 5,00,000to replace old equipment. Assume the new machine will generate after tax savings of Rs. 2,50,000per year over the next four year. If cost of capital is 15%, what is the discounted paybackperiod of the investment ?

(A) 1.5 years (B) 2 years

(C) 1.75 years (D) 2.6 years

279. Financing a long-lived asset with short-term financing would be :

(A) an example of “Moderate risk – Moderate (potential) profitability” asset financing.

(B) an example “Low risk – Low (potential) profitability” asset financing.

(C) an example of “High risk – High (potential) profitability” asset financing.

(D) an example of the “Hedging approach” to financing.

280. Enterprises engaged in the manufacturing of production of goods pertaining to any industriesspecified in the first schedule to the Industries Development Act, 1951 as a medium enterprises,where the investment in plant and machinery more than ________ and does not exceed________ .

(A) Rs. 1.5 crores and Rs. 20 crores (B) Rs. 1 crore and Rs. 5 crores

(C) Rs. 5 crores and Rs. 10 crores (D) Rs. 2.5 crores and Rs. 7.5 crores

281. A local firm has earned a good reputation because of quality paper bags manufactured by it.Moreover, it is environmental conscious and makes use of only recycled paper for manufacturingthe bags. So when the firm advertise that it uses only recycled paper products, it is :

(A) meeting its social obligation. (B) being socially responsive.

(C) meeting its ethical responsibilities. (D) paying attention to the bottom line.

282. A written document that explains what the corporate culture considers to be “right” and“wrong” behaviour is called an :

(A) Vision statement (B) Ethics training

(C) Code of ethics (D) Ethics audit

ATP - A ] 30 [Contd.

283. Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (TUFS) of Govt. of India is for :

(A) lather industry (B) textile and jute industry

(C) cement industry (D) None of the above

284. Under scheme for Technology Upgradation / Establishment / Modernisation for food processingindustries of Govt. of India in difficult areas the assistance is in the form of grant subject to________ % of plant & machinery and technical civil work subject to a maximum ofRs. ________ .

(A) 25% ; Rs. 25 lakhs (B) 30% ; Rs. 40 lakhs

(C) 33.33% ; Rs. 75 lakhs (D) None of the above

285. Under Integrated Development of Leather Sector of Govt. of India, the financial assistance is________ % of plant and machinery for MSME and ________% of P & M for other units.

(A) 30% ; 20% (B) 35% ; 25%

(C) 40% ; 30% (D) None of the above

286. ________ scheme of Govt. of India focus on enhancing competitiveness of MSMEs throughenergy efficiency and product quality certification and reduction in emission of green housegases.

(A) Technology & quality upgradation support for MSME

(B) Technology upgradation fund scheme

(C) Both (A) and (B) above

(D) None of the above

287. Which automobile giant recently decided that it will stop its sales in India and only export fromits plants in India ?

(A) General Motors (B) Volvo

(C) Ford (D) Hyundai

288. What shall constitute quorum of GST Council meeting in India ?

(A) One half of the total member of its members

(B) Two third of the total member of its members

(C) One fourth of the total member of its members

(D) None of the above

289. Which article spells formation of GST Council in India ?

(A) 270 (B) 246A (2)

(C) 269A (1) (D) 279(A)

290. Technology Upgradation Fund scheme of Govt. of India became effective from :

(A) 31/01/2014 (B) 31/01/2015

(C) 31/01/2016 (D) 31/01/2017

291. Marketing Assistance scheme by NSIC is a scheme of :

(A) Department of Commerce, Govt. of India

(B) Ministry of MSME, Govt. of India

(C) Industries and Mines Department, Govt. of Gujarat

(D) None of the above

292. Under scheme support for entrepreneurial and Managerial Development of SMEs of Govt. ofIndia financial assistance for each inculcate / idea may vary between Rs. ________ lakh subjectto overall ceiling of Rs. ________ lakh.

(A) 5 – 10 lakh ; 50 lakh (B) 4 – 8 lakh ; 62.5 lakh

(C) 10 – 12 lakh ; 72.5 lakh (D) None of the above

ATP - A ] 31

293. Under schemes for assistance labour intensive industries of Govt. of Gujarat assistance can beavail for ________ time expansion.

(A) one (B) two

(C) three (D) four

294. Under which scheme of Govt. of Gujarat the eligible new enterprise will be reimbursed at 80%of the net VAT paid for 5 years from the date of commercial production ?

(A) Mukhya Mantri Yuva Udyami Yojana

(B) New enterprise cum enterprise development scheme

(C) Scheme for financial assistance to plastic industry

(D) None of the above

295. Skill Upgradation & Quality Improvement and Mahila Coir Yojna is a scheme of

(A) Ministry of MSME, Govt. of India

(B) Ministry of Women and Child Development, Govt. of India

(C) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

(D) None of the above

296. Under “Make in India” scheme India and Russia will jointly make ________ helicopter.

(A) Kamov 226 (B) Tejas

(C) Dhruv (D) Cheetah

297. At state level Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme is implemented through :

(A) State KVIC Directorates

(B) State Khadi and Villages Industries Board

(C) District Industries Centres

(D) All of the above

298. Which of the following decreases working capital ?

(A) Issue of partly convertible debentures (B) Discounting bills receivable

(C) Issue of bonus shares (D) Redemption of preference shares

299. Corporate social responsibility is about :

(A) The ethical rights and duties between a company and its host societies.

(B) Moral rights and duties between a company and its shareholders

(C) Quality of leadership of organizations

(D) Misuse of corporate ethics policies

300. Which one is the first public sector enterprise to be accorded the status of “Five Star ExportHouse” by Government of India for long term contribution to Exports ?

(A) MMTC Limited (B) STC Limited

(C) PEC Limited (D) FCI Limited