AP BIOLOGY SRING SEMESTER EXAM

___1. When the sun rises and a leaf begins the process of photosynthesis, which sequence of

events results in the appearance of the stomata and guard cells as in X?

a. 2,1,6, 7 b. 6,8,3,2 c. 1,6,4,5 d. 5,7,1,4 e. 3,7,5,2

___2. The ions, whose movement into and out of the guard cells cause the stomata to appear

as in X or Y are

a.

Na+ ions b. OH- ions c. Ca++ ions d. I- ions e. K+ ions

___3. Which of the long day plants would flower under the conditions described above?

a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 5 d. 2 and 3 e. 1 and 5

___4. Which of the 5 plants is the control in this experiment?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

___5. All of the following are growth-stimulating substances in plants except

a. indoleacetic acid b. abscisic acid c. gibberelin d. cytokinin e. none

___6. Which of the following is an effect typical of animal hormones but not plant hormones

a. they primarily control growth and development of cells

b. their effects depend on the site of action and stage of growth in the organism

c. their hormone signals can be amplified by membrane proteins

d. their effect depends on the hormone balance relative to the concentration of

other hormones present

e. they may respond to environmental cues by adjusting behavior

___7. Transfusion #2 results in agglutination because the

a. recipient has Anti-A antibodies d. donor has A and B antigens

b. donor has Anti-B antibodies e. donor can receive AB blood

c. recipient has Anti-B antibodies

___8. The reason Transfusions #9, 10, and 11 cause no reaction is that AB blood

a. contains A antigens b. contains B antigens c. donors are considered

universal donors

d. cannot be transfused into A, B, or O blood e. does not contain Anti-A and Anti-B

antibodies

___9. The animals in one particular phylum have two tissue layers, a gastrovascular cavity,

and radial symmetry. Which of the following is an additional characteristic of the animals of

this phyla?

a. simple nervous system c. a two chambered heart e. an open

circulatory system

b. anterior cephalization d. a complete digestive system

___10. Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

a. control of activity of phosphofructokinase in glycolysis by excess ATP

b. control of thyroxin over the production of TSH by the pituitary gland

c. control of blood sugar levels by insulin and glucagon

d. control of calcium levels by calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

e. control of uterine contractions by the pressure of the fetus's head

___11. In the diagram: Extracellular digestion is occurring in organism(s)

a. I b. II c. III d. a and c e. b and c

___12. In the diagram, a gastrovascular cavity is found in organism(s)

a. I b. II c. III d. a and c e. b and c

___13. Which of the following is correct about the fetal-maternal dissociation curve for

hemoglobin illustrated on the previous page?

a. the pH of maternal blood is higher than fetal blood

b. maternal blood contains more red blood cells than fetal blood

c. fetal blood is saturated at a higher oxygen partial pressure than maternal blood

d. the partial pressure of oxygen is lower in maternal blood at 60% saturation

e. fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen at lower partial pressure

___14. Steroid hormones take longer than other hormones to produce their effect. This is

because

a. their target cells must formulate new proteins before an effect can take place

b. second messengers act slowly

c. they are large molecules and move slowly through the blood

d. because they are large polar molecules, they do not enter cells easily

e. they are synthesized in very small quantities by their glands

___15. Information carried by your optic nerve is perceived as "sight" whereas information

carried by your auditory nerve is perceived as "sound". Which of the following best explains

this?

a. the information is carried to different areas of your brain

b. the structure of neurons in the optic nerve differs from those in the auditory

nerve

c. light energy and sound waves are different from each other

d. different ions enter and leave the axons of the two different nerves

e. action potentials that carry visual information are of a different amplitude and

frequency than those carrying sound information

___16. Which of the following can contribute to density-dependent regulation of

populations?

a. the accumulation of toxic wastes d. all of the above are true

b. intraspecific competition for nutrients e. none of the above

c. predation

___17. A goiter is associated with improper functioning of which gland

a. parathyroid b. adrenal c. thyroid d. pancreas e. ovaries and testes

___18. Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations

a. offspring with good chances of survival d. a high intrinsic rate of increase

b. many offspring per reproductive episode e. early parental reproduction

c. small offspring

___19. An example of Mullerian mimicry is

a. an insect that resembles a twig

b. two poisonous frogs that resemble one another in coloration

c. a butterfly that resembles a leaf

d. a beetle that resembles a scorpion

e. a moth with spots that look like large eyes

___20. One function of the corpus luteum

a. convert into a hormone-producing follicle after ovulation d. produce prolactin in

the alveoli

b. nourish and protect the egg cell e. stimulate ovulation

c. produce progesterone and estrogen

___21. An example of cryptic coloration is the

a. stripes of a skunk

b. green color of a plant

c. markings of a viceroy butterfly

d. colors of an insect pollinated flower

e. mottled coloring of peppered moths living in the unpolluted regions of

England

___22. An oat seedling above is exposed to light. The tip is removed, rotated 180, and then

replaced. The seedling is placed in complete darkness. Which of the below experiments best

describes the condition of the coleopile tip at the end of the experiment?

___23. Organisms in a food web responsible for recycling the nutrients of dead plants and

animals are the

a. producers b. primary consumers c. secondary consumer d. decomposers e.

tertiary consumers

___24. Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except the

a. ovule b. style c. megasporangium d. anther e. ovary

___25. The clonal selection theory implies that

a. related people have similar immune response d. memory cells are

present at birth

b. antigen activate specific lymphocytes e. only certain cells

produce interferon

c. the body selects which antigens it will respond to

___26. Which of the following causes the Earth’s seasons

a. global air circulation d. changes in the Earth’s distance from the sun

b. global wind patterns e. the tilt of the Earth’s axis

c. ocean currents

___27. Carrying capacity (K)

a. is calculated as the product of annual per capita birth rate (r)

b. remains constant in the presence of density dependent population regulation e.

none

c. differs among species, but does not vary within a given species

d. is often determined by energy limitation

___28. In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to 8 after one species was

removed. The species removed was likely a/an

a. community facilitator c. herbivore e. mutualistic organisms

b. keystone predator d. resource partitioner

___29. Which of the following cells produce testosterone

a. sperm cells b. hypothalamus c. interstitial cells d. anterior pituitary e. seminiferous

tubules

___30. In the diagram, skeletal muscle is illustrated by type(s)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1 and 2 e. 1 and 3

___31. In the diagram, cardiac muscle is illustrated by type(s)

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1 and 3 e. 2 and 3

___32. Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes

a. spiral and indeterminate cleavage, coelom forms as split in solid mass of

mesoderm

b. spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth, schizocoelous

development

c. spiral and determinate cleavage, enterocoelous development

d. radial and determinate cleavage, enterocoelous development, blastopore

becomes anus

e. radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth, schizocoelous

development

___33. All of the following are characteristics of arthropods except

a. an exoskeleoton c. jointed appendages e. dorsal nerve cord

b. numerous species d. a diversity of gas exchange structures

___34.Corals are most closely related to

a. jellyfish b. hydras c. sea anemones d. sponges e. comb jellies

___35. In which class did jaws first occur?

a. Agnatha b. Chondrichthyes c. Osteichthyes d. Ostracodermi e.

Placodermi

___36. Which of the following is not a vertebrate

a. duck billed platypus b. penguin c. salamander d. toad e. starfish

___37. The class Osteichthyes is characterized by

a. a bony endoskeleton, operculum, and swim bladder d. an amniotic egg

b. a cartilaginous endoskeleton e. a maternal pouch called a

marsupium

c. teeth that are replaced regularly

___38. Which of the following is a correct statement about sugar movement in phloem

a. diffusion can account for the observed rates of transport

b. movement can occur both upward and downward in the plant

c. sugar is translocated from sinks to sources

d. only phloem cells with nuclei can perform sugar movement

e. sugar transport does not require energy

___39. Which of the following is a correct statement about the cells of the human retina?

a. cone cells can detect color and rod cells cannot

b. cone cells are more sensitive to light than rod cells are

c. cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment

d. rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the retina

e. rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells

___40. All of the following statements about learning and behavior are correct except

a. insight learning involves the ability to reason

b. associative learning involves linking one stimulus with another

c. operant conditioning is a type of innate behavior that involves drive

d. behavior can be modified by learning, but some apparent learning is due to

maturation

e. imprinting is a learned behavior with an innate component acquired during a

critical period

___41. The most common kind of dispersion in nature

a. clumped b. random c. uniform d. indeterminate e. dispersive

___42. The relationship between existing between cattle egrets and cattle

a. parasitism b. mutualism c. inhibition d. facilitation e. commensalism

___43. Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth’s primary

productivity

a. tundra b. savanna c. salt marsh d. open ocean e. tropical rain forest

___44. The second meiotic division occurs during stage

a. 1 b. 1-2 c. 2-3 d. 3-4 e. 5-6

___45. The reproductive processes illustrated above are

a. spermatogenesis and fertilization d. mitosis and cytokinesis

b. oogenesis and fertilization e. fertilization and gastrulation

c. fertilization and cleavage

___46. According to the hypothesis of island biogeography, species richness would be

greatest on an island that is

a. small and remote c. large and close to a mainland e. environmentally homogeneous

b. large and remote d. small and close to a mainland

___47. When you first walk from a brightly lit area into darkness, which of the following

occurs?

a. the photopsins in your cones become bleached

b. your rod cells become hyperpolarized

c. the receptor cells release less neurotransmitter

d. lateral inhibition caused by your horizontal cells ceases

e. your rhodopsin is still dissociated into retinal and opsin and your rods are

temporarily nonfunctional

___48. The archenteron develops into the

a. mouth in protostomes c. placenta e. endoderm

b. blastocoel d. lumen of digestive tract

___49. Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with its action?

a. oxytocin-stimulates uterine contraction during childbirth

b. thryoxine- stimulates metabolic processes

c. insulin- stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver

d. ACTH- stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex

e. Melatonin- affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction

___50. Which of the following tropic hormones is incorrectly paired with its effect?

a. FSH-stimulates production of eggs and sperm

b. TSH-stimulates the thyroid gland

c. Epinephrine-decreases blood glucose levels

d. Glucagon-raises blood glucose levels

e. Mineralocorticoids-promotes excretion of K+ and reabsorbtion of Na+ from

the kidneys

___51. The key difference between an ectotherm and an endotherm is that

a. ectotherms generate energy mainly from fermentation; endotherms mainly

from cell respiration

b. ectotherms are mostly aquatic animals; endotherms are mostly terrestrial

c. ectotherms warm their bodies by absorbing environmental heat; endotherms

mainly use metabolic heat to warm their bodies

d. ectotherms are "cold-blooded" animals with a body temperature that cannot

reach the high body temperatures of endotherms

e. ectotherms are all invertebrates; endotherms are all vertebrates

___52. Which of the following results in long-term immunity?

a. the passage of maternal antibodies to her developing fetus

b. the inflammatory response to a splinter

c. the administration of serum obtained from people immune to rabies

d. the administration of the chickenpox vaccine

e. the passage of maternal antibodies to her nursing infant

___53. In negative pressure breathing, inhalation results from

a. forcing air from the throat down into the lungs d. contracting the diaphragm

b. using muscles of the lungs to expand the alveoli e. contracting the abdominal muscles

c. relaxing the muscles of the rib cage

___54. Simple cuboidal epithelium usually functions in

a. secretion of substances by glands d. covering body surfaces

b. lining internal surfaces subject to abrasion e. attaching muscles to bone

c. packing and padding body parts

___55. Buds and sprouts often form on tree stumps. Which of the following hormones would

you expect to stimulate their formation?

a. auxin b. cytokinins c. abscisic acid d. ethylene e. gibberellins

___56. Stomata open when guard cells

a. sense an increase in CO2 in the air spaces of the leaf

b. flop open because of a decrease in turgor pressure

c. become more turgid because of an influx K+, followed by the osmotic entry of

water

d. close aquaporins, preventing uptake of water

e. accumulate water by active transport

___57. Acts like a fixed lens

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

___58. Area of the retina rich in cone cells for color vision

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 e. 10

___59. Wood consists of

a. bark b. periderm c. secondary xylem d. secondary phloem e. cork

___60. Only an animal species with a diaphragm can be expected to have

a. hair b. feathers c. scales d. lungs e. moist

skin

___61. Which of the following is not true of the chelicerates

a. they have antenna

b. their body is divided into a cephalothorax and an abdomen

c. the horseshoe crab is one surviving marine member

d. they include ticks, scorpions, and spiders

e. their anterior appendages are modified as pincers or fangs

___62. Organisms having body type 2 would be known as

a. acoelomates b. coelomates c. pseudocoelomates d. schizocoelomates e.

entercoelomate

___63. An organism described as a deuterostome would have body type

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 2 and 3 e. 1 and 3

___64. Which of the following principles does the diagram on the previous page illustrate?

a. greenhouse effect c. eutrophication e. commensalism

b. soil conservation d. succession

___65. The climax vegetation is the

a. pinewoods b. oakwoods c. foredunes d. beech-maples e. cottonwoods

___66. In the above terrestrial food web, the available free energy is the greatest in which of

the following species?

a. A b. C c. B, C, and D d. E and F e. G

___67. If, in county I, infant mortality declined and the birth rate remained the same, then

initially the population would be expected to

a. be more evenly distributed among the age classes d. increase in the oldest

age classes

b. be even more concentrated in the young age classes e. increase in the median

age classes

c. c. stabilize at the illustrated level for all age classes

___68. In Country I, approximately what percentage of the individuals were younger than

fifteen years of age?

a. 10% b. 21% c. 42% d. 52% e. cannot

be estimated from the graph

___69. The relationship of a fungus and an alga in a lichen

a. symbiosis c. energy pyramid e. net primary productivity

b. law of tolerance d. ecological succession

___70. Accounts for water being held to the walls of xylem vessels

a. root pressure b. transpiration c. translocation d. adhesion e. guttation

___71. The embryo of which of the following species does not have an amnion?

a. bird b. turtle c. lizard d. fish e. human

___72. The banding pattern of viceroy butterflies is an example of

a. mimicry b. homology c. polymorphism d. mutualism e. commensalism

___73. Cells migrate over the dorsal lip of the blastopore

a. cleavage b. organogenesis c. gastrulation d. neurulation e. fertilization

___74. This process establishes the germ layers

a. cleavage b. organogenesis c. gastrulation d. neurulation e.

fertilization

___75. The answer is E

Answer each essay on your own sheet of paper.

76. To survive, organisms must be capable of avoiding, and/or defending against, various

types of environmental threats. Respond to EACH of the following: describe how

adaptive coloration, mimicry OR behavior function as animal defenses against

predation. Include TWO examples in your answer, and compare the human immune

response with the secondary immune response to the same antigen

76. Survival depends on the ability of an organism to respond to changes in the

environment. Some plants flower in response to changes in day length. Some

mammals may run or fight when frightened. For BOTH examples, describe the

physiological mechanisms involved in the response

77. Biological recognition is important in many processes at the molecular, cellular,

tissue, and organismal levels. Select TWO of the following and for EACH you

choose, explain how the process of recognition occurs and give an example.

a. organisms recognize others as members of their own species

b. antigens trigger antibody responses

c. target cells respond to specific hormones

ANSWERS

1. D

2. E

3. E

4. D

5. B

6. E

7. C

8. E

9. A

10. E

11. E

12. B

13. E

14. A

15. A

16. D

17. C

18. A

19. E

20. C

21. E

22. D

23. D

24. B

25. B

26. E

27. D

28. B

29. C

30. C

31. B

32. B

33. E

34. C

35. E

36. E

37. A

38. B

39. A

40. C

41. A

42. E

43. D

44. D

45. B

46. C

47. E

48. D

49. C

50. C

51. C

52. D

53. E

54. A

55. B

56. C

57. D

58. D

59. B

60. C

61. A

62. C

63. C

64. D

65. D

66. A

67. B

68. C

69. A

70. D

71. E

72. A

73. D

74. C

75. E