S20 Final Review

Practice

Science 20 Final Review

Unit A – Chemical Change 1. An atom has 19 protons and 20 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom is

A. 1

B. 19

C. 20

D. 39

Use the following diagrams to answer questions 2 to 4.

2. The element represented in the diagram on the left is

A. aluminium

B. fluorine

C. lithium

D. sodium

3. The diagram on the right is a(an)

A. atomic diagram

B. Bohr diagram

C. Lewis dot diagram

D. energy level diagram

4. The element represented in the diagram on the right is

A. aluminium

B. fluorine

C. lithium

D. sodium

S20 Final Review

Practice

5. For a chlorine atom to become a chloride ion, the chlorine atom must

A. gain one electron

B. lose one electron

C. share an electron

D. lose all its electrons

6. Which is an example of an ionic compound?

A. aluminium

B. plastic

C. rock salt

D. sugar

7. Sodium and chlorine form a bond when

A. sodium gains one electron and chlorine loses one electron

B. sodium loses one electron and chlorine gains one electron

C. sodium gains seven electrons and chlorine loses seven electrons

D. sodium loses seven electrons and chlorine gains seven electrons

8. Cobalt(II) nitrate is dissolved in water. The cobalt(II) nitrate is considered to be the

A. product

B. solution

C. solvent

D. solute

9. Which substance is a non-electrolyte?

A. calcium carbonate

B. aqueous ethanol

C. hydrochloric acid

D. sodium sulfate

S20 Final Review

Practice

10. Which is not a reason why a solution with a greater concentration reacts faster

than a solution that is more dilute?

A. A chemical reaction is a result of collisions between particles.

B. A dilute solution has more particles of solute available for collisions than a

concentrated solution.

C. A concentrated solution has more particles of solute available for collisions than

a dilute solution.

D. The probability of collisions increases as the number of solute particles within a

system increases.

11. For which calculation is the following formula used?

A. molar concentration

B. parts per million

C. percent by volume

D. percent of solvent

12. A bottle of insect repellent states that the percent by volume concentration of

DEET is 14%. What volume of DEET is in a 500-mL container?

A. 35 mL

B. 70 mL

C. 140 mL

D. 500 mL

13. The number of grams in three moles of solid ammonium chloride, NH4Cl(s), is

A. 50.47 g

B. 53.50 g

C. 102.96 g

D. 160.50 g

S20 Final Review

Practice

14. A student dissolves 45.2 g of Mg(OH)2(s) in enough water to make 1.00 L of

solution. The concentration of this solution is

A. 4.52 mol/L

B. 1.00 mol/L

C. 0.775 mol/L

D. 0.109 mol/L

15. A teacher wants to make 200 mL of a 0.600-mol/L solution of KOH(aq). What

volume of a 2.00-mol/L stock solution is required for this dilution?

A. 60.0 mL

B. 240 mL

C. 667 mL D. 1.67 x104 mL

16. Based on the equation 4 Ag(s) 2 H2S(g) O2(g) 2 Ag2S(s) 2 H2O(l), what is

the mole ratio of H2S(g) to Ag2S(s)?

A. 2/1

B. 2/2

C. 2/4

D. 4/2

17. Hydrogen sulfide can be used in aqueous solutions to separate out metal ions. On

the other hand, hydrogen sulfide in the air causes considerable damage to silver objects.

When a silver goblet tarnished in the presence of hydrogen sulfide (and oxygen), 1.20

mol of silver sulfide formed. What amount of silver was consumed?

A. 4.80 mol

B. 2.40 mol

C. 1.20 mol

D. 0.600 mol

S20 Final Review

Practice

18. In producing pure iron metal from its ore, iron(III) oxide and carbon (coke) must

react according to the following balanced chemical equation:

Fe2O3(s) 3 C(s) 2 Fe(s) 3 CO(g)

Suppose 5.89 103 mol of iron ore are consumed. How many moles of pure iron metal

are produced?

A. 1.47 103 mol

B. 2.95 103 mol

C. 5.89 103 mol

D. 1.18 104 mol

20. Which is an example of oxidation?

A. K+(aq) e– K(s)

B. Au3+

(aq) 3e– Au(s)

C. Fe2+

(aq) 2e– Fe(s)

D. Li(s) Li+(aq) e–

21. Which is an example of reduction?

A. Ca(s) Ca2+

(aq) 2e–

B. Fe3+

(aq) + e– Fe

2+(aq)

C. H2(g) 2 H+(aq) 2e

–

D. Zn(s) Zn2+

(aq) 2e–

S20 Final Review

Practice

22. When zinc metal is placed into a solution of silver nitrate, silver metal and zinc

nitrate are produced according to this reaction:

Zn(s) 2 AgNO3(aq) 2 Ag(s) Zn(NO3)2(aq)

a. What chemical atom or ion in the reaction is oxidized? Give a reason for

your choice.

b. What chemical atom or ion in the reaction is reduced? Give a reason for

your choice.

c. What chemical atom or ion in the reaction is a spectator? Give a reason for

your choice.

23. A student listed the following possible reactants in redox reactions:

I. iron and copper(II) sulfate solution

II. silver and calcium nitrate solution

III. zinc and lead(II) nitrate solution

IV. copper and lead(II) nitrate solution

V. magnesium and zinc nitrate solution

Which combination will spontaneously react in a redox reaction?

A. I and II

B. I, III, and IV

C. I, III, and V

D. V only

S20 Final Review

Practice

Use the following voltaic cell to answer questions 24 to 27.

24. The reduction-half reaction for the cell is

A. Ag+(aq) e– Ag(s)

B. Ag(s) Ag+(aq) e–

C. Mg(s) Mg2+

(aq) 2e–

D. Mg2+

(aq) 2e– Mg(s)

25. The oxidation half-reaction for the cell is

A. Ag+(aq) e– Ag(s)

B. Ag(s) Ag+(aq) e–

C. Mg(s) Mg2+

(aq) 2e–

D. Mg2+

(aq) 2e– Mg(s)

26. The oxidation half-reaction occurs at

A. the anode

B. the cathode

C. the anode and the cathode

D. neither the anode nor the cathode

27. What is the chemical name for the liquid fuel component C10H22(l)?

A. butane

B. decane

C. nonane

D. methane

S20 Final Review

Practice

28. What is the name of the hydrocarbon on the

right?

A. 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane

B. 2-methyl-3-ethylhexane

C. 5-methyl-4-ethylhexane

D. 4-ethyl-5-methylhexane

29. The ending -yne is used for hydrocarbons with

A. only single bonds

B. at least one double bond

C. at least one triple bond D. only double and triple bonds

Use the following diagrams to answer questions 30 to 32.

I. III II. II.

III.

30. Compound I is

A. 3-pentene

B. 2-pentene

C. 3-pentyne

D. 2-pentyne

31. Compound II is

A. 2-methyl-1-pentene

B. 2-methyl-4-pentene

C. 4-methyl-1-pentene

D. 4-methyl-4-pentene

32. Compound III is

A. 2,5-dimethyl-3-hexyne

B. 2,5-dimethyl-3-heptyne

C. 2-ethyl-5-methyl-3-hexyne D. 2-ethyl-5-methyl-3-heptyne

S20 Final Review

Practice

33. Draw the complete structural diagram for C5H8.

34. Draw the condensed structural diagram for the following compound.

4-ethyl-7-methyl-2-octyne

35. Determine the balanced chemical equation for the complete combustion of

2,2-dimethylhexane.

36. Write the balanced chemical equation for the cracking of pentane into methane and

butane.

37. Write the balanced chemical equation for the hydrogenation of C4H8.

S20 Final Review

Practice

38. Explain why there is such a large variety of carbon-based compounds.

39. Draw the complete structural diagram of the hydrocarbon 3,3-diethylheptane.

Unit B – Changes in Motion

1. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. 45 km, north

B. 248 mL

C. 250 km[W]

D. 500 m[up]

2. The sound from a bolt of lightning travelled 4.08 km in 12.0 s. What was the speed of

the sound in metres per second?

A. 0.340 m/s

B. 49.0 m/s

C. 340 m/s

D. 343 m/s

3. A vehicle is travelling 1.0 102 km/h. What is the speed of the vehicle in metres

per second?

A. 28 m/s

B. 27.8 m/s

C. 3.6 102 m/s

D. 1.0 104 m/s

S20 Final Review

Practice

4. Which position–time graph most closely represents an object moving with uniform

motion?

Use the following graph to answer questions 5 and 6.

5. During which interval(s) did the robot arm move with uniform motion?

A. I only

B. I and IV

C. I, II, and III

D. I, II, and IV

S20 Final Review

Practice

6. During which interval(s) did the robot arm move the slowest?

A. I

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. IV

7. Examine the velocity–time graph of an object travelling with uniform motion. The

displacement of the object over the 25-s time interval is

A. 300 m

B. 475 m

C. 517 m

D. 600 m

8. The graph given shows the velocity of an

automobile as it accelerates uniformly to its

cruising speed. What is the displacement of

the car in the first 12 s of acceleration?

A. 90 m

B. 100 m

C. 180 m

D. 360 m

9. Based on a reaction time of 1.50 s and a braking rate of 5.85 m/s2, the stopping

distance of a vehicle initially travelling 90 km/h would be

A. 37.5 m

B. 53.4 m

C. 75.0 m

D. 90.9 m

S20 Final Review

Practice

10. A high-performance car initially travelling 97.2 km/h came to a stop in just 2.9 s. The

mass of the car and its contents was 1850 kg. What was the magnitude of the average net

force (braking force) on the car while it decelerated?

A. 1.7 104 m

B. 1.8 104 m

C. 4.9 104 m

D. 5.9 104 m

11. The applied force on a vehicle as it increased in speed was 4500 N. The force of

friction was 1000 N. The net force on the vehicle was

A. 5500 N

B. 3500 N

C. 3500 N

D. 5500 N

12. A hockey puck has a mass of 0.170 kg; a soccer ball has a mass of 0.425 kg; a

baseball has a mass of 0.145 kg; and a tennis ball has a mass of 0.0575 kg. Suppose these

objects were approaching your knee with the same velocity. Based on the most relevant

quantity of motion, you would least likely need protection from the

A. hockey puck

B. soccer ball

C. tennis ball

D. baseball

13. A puck with a mass of 0.170 kg has a velocity of 90.0 km/h. The momentum of the

puck is

A. 0.153 kgm/s

B. 4.25 kgm/s

C. 53.1 kgm/s

D. 55.2 kgm/s

S20 Final Review

Practice

14. A group of students listed the following expressions that are supposedly equal to

impulse:

I.

II.

III.

IV.

Which expressions are actually equal to impulse?

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. III and IV

15. A passenger vehicle collided with a barrier of sand-filled barrels. During this

collision, the change in momentum for the vehicle was 6.5 105 Ns, which occurred

over 0.095 s. What force was exerted on the front of the vehicle during

this time interval?

A. 6.8 103 N

B. 6.2 104 N

C. 6.2 105 N

D. 6.8 106 N

16. An 18 000-kg freight car travelling 1.75 m/s[E] collides with a 27 000-kg freight car

at rest. After the collision, the freight cars stick together. What is the velocity of the

freight cars after the collision?

A. 2.00 m/s[E]

B. 1.50 m/s[E]

C. 0.70 m/s[E]

D. 0.50 m/s[E]

S20 Final Review

Practice

Unit C – The Changing Earth

1. Oceanic crust and the continental crust make up the layer of Earth called the

A. asthenosphere

B. lithosphere

C. mesosphere

D. stratosphere

2. Which of the following is a name for Alberta’s earliest fossils?

A. ammolites

B. cyanobacterium

C. strata D. stromatolites

3. The following diagram represents the four eras of time in Earth’s existence.

The correct order for the eras from oldest to youngest is

A. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian

B. Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian

C. Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic

D. Precambrian, Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic

4. The organisms responsible for producing much of Earth’s atmospheric oxygen are

A. ammolites

B. cyanobacteria

C. jellyfish

D. stromatolites

S20 Final Review

Practice

5. The law of superposition states that

A. all rocks and fossils in a given area are the same age

B. for a given sequence of rock layers, any layer is younger than the one beneath it

C. all rock layers consisting of the same type of rock are the same age

D. a sequence of rocks is the chronological record of a given region

6. A fossil that can be used to correlate rock layers in different locations is a(an)

A. historic fossil

B. stratigraphic fossil

C. index fossil D. relative fossil

7. The era that spans the greatest number of years in Earth’s geological history is the

A. Mesozoic

B. Cenozoic

C. Precambrian

D. Paleozoic

Use the following diagram to answer questions 8 to 9.

8. Layer 2 in the diagram is younger than layers 3, 4, and 5.

This statement is based on the

A. rock cycle

B. principle of cross-cutting relationships

C. principle of superposition

D. principle of uniformitarianism

S20 Final Review

Practice

9. The correct order of the numbered layers from oldest to youngest is

A. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1

B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

D. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

10. Rock that forms when molten magma from the mantle intrudes into the crust and solidifies

is

A. igneous rock

B. metamorphic rock

C. sedimentary rock

D. none of the above

11. The process in which the nucleus of an unstable atom disintegrates and causes the atom to

become a new element is known as

A. unconformity

B. carbon dating

C. radioactive decay

D. half-life

Use the following graph to answer questions 12 to 15.

S20 Final Review

Practice

12. How many half-lives have elapsed when 25% of the parent nuclide is left?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

13. How much parent nuclide remains after three half-lives have elapsed?

A. 0%

B. 6.25%

C. 12.5%

D. 30%

14. If a sample of radioactive material contains 17% daughter nuclide, what percent of

parent nuclide is present in the sample?

A. 0%

B. 17%

C. 50%

D. 83%

15. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years. How old is a bone fragment if the

proportion of carbon-14 remaining is 25%?

A. 2865 a

B. 5760 a

C. 11 460 a

D. 17 190 a

16. The correct order of steps in the process of fossilization is

A. preservation, burial, death, discovery, life, recovery

B. discovery, recovery, life, death, burial, preservation

C. life, death, burial, preservation, discovery, recovery

D. burial, death, life, discovery, recovery, preservation

17. Which statement is not true of P-waves?

A. They result from an earthquake.

B. They are slower than S-waves.

C. They are longitudinal waves.

D. They can move through solids and liquids.

S20 Final Review

Practice

Use the following charts to answer question 18.

18. The magnitude of the earthquake is approximately

A. 2.0

B. 3.0

C. 4.0

D. 5.0

19. A factor that likely led to the Cretaceous Extinction was a

A. long-term drought

B. sudden reduction in oxygen levels

C. drastic cooling of the global climate

D. sudden increase in global temperatures

Seismograph Station S-P Interval (s)

Distance to Epicentre (km)

Maximum Amplitude of

S-waves (mm)

Station A 23 200 22

Station B 30 260 15

Station C 40 360 7

S20 Final Review

Practice

20. The period during which polar ice sheets advanced to cover large regions of

North America and northern Europe is known as

A. an ice age

B. glaciation

C. an epoch

D. a glacier

21. Which statement about CO2 levels and average global temperatures over Earth’s

history corresponds to the geological evidence?

A. The CO2 level increases and the average global temperature increases.

B. The CO2 level increases and the average global temperature decreases.

C. The CO2 level decreases and the average global temperature increases.

D. The CO2 level and the average global temperature both stay the same.

Unit D – Changes in Living Systems

1. An ecosystem includes

A. non-living (abiotic) components only

B. living (biotic) components only

C. both biotic and abiotic components

D. physiographic components only

2. The soil in a flower pot, the amount of water added to the pot, the amount of

sunlight received by the plant, the amount and type of fertilizer given, and the

temperature of the air surrounding the pot all make up the plant’s

A. abiotic factors

B. biotic factors

C. ecosystem

D. habitat

3. A rapid algal bloom can harm an aquatic ecosystem because

A. algae deplete the oxygen in the water

B. decomposing dead algae deplete the oxygen in the water

C. an extensive algal bloom blocks the sunlight for other organisms in the water

D. all of the above

S20 Final Review

Practice

4. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of an animal and absorbs nourishment from its

host. If the tapeworm multiplies enough, eventually the host becomes weak and may die

of some contracted disease. This relationship is an example of

A. commensalism

B. mutualism

C. parasitism

D. none of the above

5. Green plants, algae, and tiny aquatic organisms that convert light energy and store it

in the chemical bonds of organic molecules are called

A. consumers

B. herbivores

C. producers

D. primary consumers

6. An energy pyramid differs from a biomass pyramid because

A. the two pyramids are inverted to each other

B. an energy pyramid does not show organisms at each trophic level

C. an energy pyramid has fewer organisms at the top trophic level

D. an energy pyramid shows the amount of energy at each trophic level, while a

biomass pyramid shows the mass transferred at each trophic level

7. A food web is different from a food chain because a food web

A. does not begin with producers

B. shows the various trophic levels

C. does not show what each organism eats

D. is made up of various food chains that are part of an ecosystem

8. A soil temperature of 12.2° C at a depth of 10 cm is an example of which type

of factor?

A. an abiotic factor in a terrestrial ecosystem

B. a biotic factor in a terrestrial ecosystem

C. an abiotic factor in an aquatic ecosystem

D. a biotic factor in an aquatic ecosystem

S20 Final Review

Practice

9. The carbon cycle begins with the process of

A. cellular respiration

B. oxidation

C. photosynthesis

D. transpiration

10. A growing forest is valuable because it

A. removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

B. releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere

C. removes methane from the atmosphere

D. uses oxygen from the atmosphere

11. In the oxygen cycle, oxygen is

A. added to and removed from the atmosphere by photosynthesis

B. added to the atmosphere by decomposers and removed by photosynthesis

C. added to the atmosphere by cellular respiration and removed by photosynthesis

D. added to the atmosphere by photosynthesis and removed by cellular respiration

and combustion

12. A farmer plants alfalfa (a type of legume) to add nitrogen to the soil on his farm. The

process through which nitrogen gas is converted into ammonia is known as

A. denitrification

B. nitrification

C. nitrogen fixation

D. fertilizing

13. The following illustrates the sequence of events that led to a decline in the caribou

population due to habitat fragmentation.

I. Cleared forest areas attract moose to live in the area.

II. Human activities create open areas and cutlines throughout a habitat.

III. The caribou population declines due to increased predation.

IV. More wolves move into the area.

V. Cutlines and open areas allow wolves to spot and capture prey more easily.

The order of events beginning with habitat fragmentation and resulting in a decline in

the caribou population is

A. I, II, III, IV, V

B. V, I, II, IV, III

C. II, I, V, IV, III D. II, III, I, IV, V

S20 Final Review

Practice

14. Your ecological footprint is affected by

A. the type of food you consume

B. the type of transportation you use

C. the type of housing you maintain

D. all of the above

15. Fifty moose live in a particular region in northwestern Alberta. The factors which

affect the population within the region are

A. only the number of births and the number of deaths

B. only immigration and emigration

C. only the number of births and the amount of immigration

D. births, deaths, immigration, and emigration

16. The population of grouse in a particular region increases and decreases every five

years. The graph of the grouse population over 20 years would have the shape of

A. a straight line

B. a J-curve

C. an S-curve

D. an exponential curve

17. A population of sea monkeys in a fish tank is an example of a closed population

because

A. the birth rate of the sea monkeys is low

B. the carrying capacity of the fish tank is limited

C. there is a limited amount of food in the fish tank

D. there is no sea monkey immigration or emigration

18. Charles Darwin theorized that finches on the Galapagos Islands developed different

beak types because the finches

A. came from various places with these different beak types

B. developed different beak types due to interbreeding

C. developed different beak types because they needed to adapt to the different

types of food available

D. developed different beak types so they could defend themselves

S20 Final Review

Practice

19. The human arm, a whale flipper, and a bat wing are examples of

A. the theory of natural selection

B. Darwinian fitness

C. homologous structures

D. Lamarck’s theory of evolution

20. Soot deposits on the buildings and trees around Manchester, England, favoured the

survival of the black moth over the peppered moth. A change in conditions in the area

that favoured a return to a majority of peppered moths was

A. the removal of trees

B. the elimination of pollution

C. an introduction of more birds D. a decrease in the bird population