al hvac contractor comprehensive tutorial 10

Comprehensive Tutorial

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AL HVAC Contractor Comprehensive Tutorial

Lined duct inside clear 18X12. How many cfm are

being handled if the velocity is 1500 FPM?

1850

2000

1200

1725

1

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Duct Calculator

A duct is carrying 1000 CFM. The friction loss per 100' of duct is .11". What is the duct size?

18 x 12

20 x 10

20 x 12

20 x 8

2

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Duct Calculator

In a duct which measures 18 x 12 inside, the velocity is 1500 FPM. What is the CFM being handled by the

duct?

2100 CFM

2355 CFM

2450 CFM

225 CFM

3

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Duct Calculator

Copyrighted by Greenview Enterprises 1997 - 2010 Page 1 of 276


When any two of the following items are known, the

other two items can be determined using the Trane Ductulator:

1. Friction loss in inches of W.C. per 100' of duct

2. Desired velocity in round duct3. Round duct diameter

4. Dimensions for various rectangular duct

True

False

4

A.

B.

C.

D.


With the friction per 100' of duct known, match this

friction, found on the inner blue band, to coinside with

the required ___ on the outer blue band. The velocity

of this system can then be established.

CFM

FPM

Friction loss

rectangular duct size

5

A.

B.

C.

D.


Assume a required air volume of 5000 CFM, and, a

friction loss of .1" W.C. per 100' of duct. Which of

the following is true?

velocity is 1420 FPM

round duct diameter is 25"

rectangular duct dimension is 18" X 29"

all of these

6

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the Trane Ductulator, the maximum

recommended velocity in a branch line duct in a theater should not exceed:

1250 FPM

1275 FPM

1300 FPM

1325 FPM

7

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Duct Calculator

The least duct size allowed by the Trane Ductulator is:

2"

3"

4"

3" X 3"

8

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Duct calculator

Given: An industrial branch duct riser carrying 25, 000 CFM.

Assuming the maximum velocity recommended by the

Trane Ductulator, what is the size of the rectangular duct with the limitation of 40" on one side of the

rectangular duct.

40 X 40

40 X 52

50 " round

40 X 60

9

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Ductulator



When connecting fibrous glass duct board to sheet

metal, washers shall be __ inch think minimum with turned edges to prevent their cutting into the duct

board or the facing.

0.028

0.28

0.016

0.16

10

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Fibrous Glass Duct Construction

Standard 3.30

Deflection of the duct board relative to a flat position of the board is limited to __ of the span.

1/100

1/10

1/50

1/32

11

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard 1.1

The minimum width of pressure sensitive tape for 1 inch duct board is __ inch/es.

1

1 1/2

2

2 1/2

12

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard 2.02



__ fabrication is accurate, repeatable, and fast.

Machine

Hand

13

A.

B.

C.

D.


Standard 2.10

__ are the three methods for setting up cutting tools in

the grooving machine.

Forward, reverse and neutral

Neutral, standard and reverse

Preferred, forward and reverse

Preferred, reverse and standard

14

A.

B.

C.

D.


The principle of MDC is based on the use of __ inch nominal duct module for straight duct runs and

fittings of most types.

36

42

48

32

15

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard 2.2



The MDC principle __.

Minimizes the number of circumferential

joints

Simplifies fabrication of fittings

Improves the quality of workmanship

All of the above

16

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Fibrous Glass Duct Construction

Standard 2.2

___ tools are normally required to fabricate straight section of fibrous glass duct board.

Machine grooving

Hand grooving

17

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard 2.-5

When fabricating fittings from modules or flat board, use #__ plated sheet metal screws, board thickness +

1/4 inch with 2 1/2 inch square or 3 inch round

galvanized steel washers, 0.028 inch thick, volcano

type, with turned edges facing away from duct board, 12 inch nominal centers.

8

10

12

14

18

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard 3.1



All mechanical connections of fibrous glass duct to

sheet metal equipment must be __ inches maximum on center.

14

16

12

10

19

A.

B.

C.

D.


__ sided fibrous glass duct is approximately round din cross section and is an acceptable substitute for rigid

round duct.

6

8

10

12

20

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Fibrous Glass Duct Construction

Standard 3.31

Tape tabs, when staple flaps are not present, are used at seams and joints. Such tabs, made from 8 inch

minimum lengths of closure tape, are equally spaced

on either side of joints on __ inch maximum centers, with at least one tape tab per side.

14

15

16

12

21

A.

B.

C.

D.




You must use __ inch minimum wide tape for 1 inch

duct board when applying pressure sensitive aluminum foil tape closures.

1

1 1/2

2 1/2

2

22

A.

B.

C.

D.


For 2 inch duct board, you must use __ inch wide, minimum, when applying pressure sensitive aluminum

foil tape closures.

3

2 1/2

2

1 1/2

23

A.

B.

C.

D.


Standard 4.3

Referring to the insulated collar method of flexible duct connections to duct board, for an R-value of 4.2,

you would need to cut a ring from a 1 inch piece of

duct board whose inside diameter is the same as that of the sheet metal collar plus __ inch/es.

1

2

3

4

24

A.

B.

C.

D.




For reinforcement purposes, use #10 plated sheet

metal screws, board thickness plus __ inch thread length.

1/8

1/4

3/8

1/2

25

A.

B.

C.

D.


The number of tie rods required for an L angle length of 20 inches is __.

2

3

4

5

26

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard 5.15

You may use __ reinforcement method for fibrous glass duct system straight sections and fittings.

Tie rod

Channel

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

27

A.

B.

C.

D.




A tie rod termination method is __.

Fasloop

Pop rivet

Locking cap

All of the above

28

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Fibrous Glass Duct Construction

Standard 5.7

The __ is not be used on sloped panels of fittings.

Fasloop

Pop Rivet

Locking Cap

None of the above

29

A.

B.

C.

D.


Standard 5.7

You are permitted to reuse locking caps.

True

False

30

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction

Standard 5.7



Channels suspended trapeze style using __ gauge

minimum hanger wire are the preferred methods of support.

16

18

12

10

31

A.

B.

C.

D.


Straps or saddles in contact with hanging 10 sided and preformed round ducts shall be minimum __ inch.

1

3/4

7/8

1 1/2

32

A.

B.

C.

D.


The maximum permissible sag in hanging and supporting flexible duct is __ inch per foot.

1/4

3/8

1/2

3/4

33

A.

B.

C.

D.




Vertically installed flexible duct must be stabilized by

support straps located at __ feet on centers.

3

4

5

6

34

A.

B.

C.

D.


If damage extends into the insulation and to within __ inches of edge, cut out and repair the entire width of

the damaged panel.

3

5

6

8

35

A.

B.

C.

D.


Figure 2-4A shows that the __ is considered the industry standard for machine grooving.

Shiplap

Modified shiplap

V-Groove

Modified V-Groove

36

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard Figure 2-4A



Figure 2-5 shows ___.

4 ways to make a duct section

Modified shiplap fabrication method

V-groove fabrication method

Shiplap fabrication method

37

A.

B.

C.

D.


Standard Figure 2-5

According to Figure 3-28A, sheet metal tap

connection requires use of bearing plate inside duct. If the duct span is a span of between 31 - 54 inches, the

sheet metal gauge must be __.

26

24

22

20

38

A.

B.

C.

D.


Standard Figure 3-28A

Figure 3-2C shows __.

90 degree elbow with rail mounted metal turning vanes from module

90 degree elbow with turning vanes from flat grooved duct board

Three piece 90 degree elbow from duct board

module

Elbows of less than 90 degrees from duct

board module

39

A.

B.

C.

D.


Standard Figure 3-2C



Figure 3-6C shows __.

Tee from flat duct board with fibrous glass

turning vanes

Tee from duct board module with rail

mounted metal turning vanes

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

40

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction Standard Figure 3-6C

Figure 6-3B shows the use of __ inch wide hanger channels for ducts of less than 48 inch width x 24 inch

height.

3

2

2 1/2

3 1/2

41

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Fibrous Glass Duct Construction

Standard Figure 6-3B

The International Gas Code does not apply to ___.

Portable LP gas equipment

Brooders and dehydrators

Welding systems

All of the above

42

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 101.2.4 (1)(2)(4)



The purpose of the International Gas Code is to

provide ___ protection standards to safeguard life, limb, health and public property.

Maximum

Minimum

Complete

All inclusive

43

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 101.4

Generally, the International Gas Code shall not require the removal, alteration or abandonment of, nor

prevent the continued utilization and maintenance of

__ lawfully in existence at the time of the adoption of

this Code.

Historic installations

New installations

Installations outside the jurisdiction

Existing installations

44

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 102.2

Additions, alterations, repairs and renovations to existing systems shall conform to __.

The Code in existence at the time of

installation

The 2000 International Gas Code

The Code as adopted currently

None of the these

45

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 102.4



Historic buildings, judged safe, need not have repair

work conform to the current Code.

True

False

46

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 102.6

New work in moved buildings within the jurisdiction of this Code need not comply with this Code.

True

False

47

A.

B.

C.

D.


The Code official ___.

Shall be elected by the people

May be removed from office for cause

May be sued in his private capacity

May have charges brought before him by the

home owner

48

A.

B.

C.

D.




The Code official ___.

May be sued in his private capacity while

acting n accordance within the jurisdiction of the Code

May not be sued while in the employ of the jurisdiction, and acting outside his capacity

as a Code official

Both A and B

Neither A nor B

49

A.

B.

C.

D.


A Code official, while acting and discharging his duties as Code official who is sued must post bond and

pay for legal defense.

True

False

50

A.

B.

C.

D.


It is the duty of the Code official to ___.

Keep official records of the project

Issue work permits

Make all required inspections

All of the above

51

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 104.4, 104.3, 104.8



Materials, equipment and devices may be reused under

which of the following conditions?

If such apparatus is presently in working condition

If they have been tested and approved

Materials, equipment and devices may not be reused in fuel gas piping systems

Only after reconditioning

52

A.

B.

C.

D.


Construction documents, engineering data and diagrams shall be submitted in sets of __ or more with

each application for a permit.

2

4

6

8

53

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 106.3.1

It is the duty of the __ to review an application, construction documents and other data for the purpose

of issuing an permit.

Engineer

Contractor

Owner

Code official

54

A.

B.

C.

D.




A false statement or misrepresentation of material fact

on an application for permit could be cause for __.

Suspension of permit

Revocation of permit

Both A and B

Loss of license for one year

55

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 106.4.5

Work which proceeds before a permit is issued ___.

Is considered a misdemeanor

Qualifies for a civil fine of $5,000

Subjects the contractor to double permit fees

All of the above

56

A.

B.

C.

D.


The Code official shall not authorize the refunding of

any fee paid.

True

False

57

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 106.5.3



Upon notice from the Code official that work is being

done contrary to the provisions of this code or in a dangerous or unsafe manner, ____.

The Code official shall cordon off the area so

that work stops immediately

The Code official shall give the contractor

written notice to cease work in 24 hours

The Code official shall, along with the sheriff and or local law enforcement officers,

immediately shut down the entire project and

escort the work force off the site

The work shall cease immediately

58

A.

B.

C.

D.


A person shall have the right to appeal a decision of

the Code official to the Board of Appeals.

True

False

59

A.

B.

C.

D.


A Board of Appeals shall consist of __ members,

appointed by the Chief Appointing Authority.

2

3

4

5

60

A.

B.

C.

D.




Each newly appointed successor member of the Board

of Appeals shall serve for a term of __ years.

2

3

4

5

61

A.

B.

C.

D.


A low heat appliance produces flue gasses at temperatures of ____ degrees F or Less.

500

750

1000

1250

62

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 201 A

According to the IFGC, a room large in comparison with the size of equipment is a room having a volume

equal to at least __ times the total volume of a furnace

or air conditioning appliance or at least 16 times to

total volume of a boiler.

12

10

8

6

63

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202



A __ is a furnace designed with airflow discharge

vertically near the bottom of the furnace.

Forced air furnace

Downflow furnace

Gravity type furnace

Enclosed furnace

64

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202

The treatment of indoor and outdoor air so as to control temperature, humidity and cleanliness, when

delivered to a space is __.

Exhaust air

Warm air

Return air

Air conditioning

65

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 A

___ by the Code, official or other authority having jurisdiction, is which of the following?

Approved

Approval agency

Approval listing

Approval device

66

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 A



A broiler is a device which cooks food by which of the

following?

Convection

Convention

Radiation

Induction

67

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 B

BTU is the abbreviation for __.

Baking Transition Unit

Better Than Ultra

Below the U-Factor

British Thermal Unit

68

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 B

One BTU is the quantity of energy required to raise

the temperature of one pound of water 1 degree.

True

False

69

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 B



Forced-draft burner depends on a draft forced by a fan

that is an integral part of the appliance and is located ___ of the burner.

Outside

Inside

Upstream

Downstream

70

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 B

An induced-draft burner depends on draft induced by a fan that is an integral part of the appliance and is

located __ of the burner.

Outside

Inside

Upstream

Downstream

71

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 B

__ is the rapid oxidation of a fuel accompanied by the production of heat or heat and light.

Burning

Combustion

A flame

Water production

72

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 C



Concealed piping is not considered to be located

behind a removable panel.

True

False

73

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 C

The pipe that connects an approved appliance as a chimney, flue or vent is known as a ___.

Connector

Flue

Vent

Control

74

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 C

The pressure difference created by a vent or chimney because of its height, and the temperature difference

between the flue gasses and the atmosphere is known

as __.

Draft

Forced draft

Induced draft

Natural draft

75

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 D



A __ is a non-adjustable device built into a gas

utilization device.

Back draft damper

Volume Damper

Draft hood

Hand damper

76

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 D

Draft hoods __.

Provide for ready escape of flue gasses into the chimney

Prevent back draft from entering into the

appliance

Neutralize the effect of stack action upon the

appliance

All of the above

77

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 202 D

Fuel gases include all of the following except __.

Natural gas

Oxyacetylene

Liquefied petroleum gas

Hydrogen gas

78

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 F



A furnace designed for airflow discharge downward at

or near the bottom is a __.

Gravity flow furnace

Down flow furnace

Counter flow furnace

Unit heater

79

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 202 F

A joint made by bolting together a pair of flanged ends is a __ joint.

Mechanical

Flared

Flanged

Welded

80

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 202 J

A __ is a device responsive to changes to pressure, temperature and responsible for shutting off or

throttling back the supply of gas to the appliance.

Limit control

Thermostat

Sail switch

Pressure control

81

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 L



Space within a dwelling unit for the purpose of

sleeping and eating is a living space.

True

False

82

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 L

"Stay Warm Heating" has a project to install a total comfort HVAC unit in the new Rialto Theater. Jimmy

Lee, Stay Warm's project manager, must determine if

the new Bryant unit is large or small in comparison to

the room in which it is to be installed. Field measurements indicate the room is 12 feet wide by 18

feet long. The ceiling height is 10 feet. The Bryant

unit measure 5'6" long by 3'6" high. Is this room large

or small in comparison to the Bryant unit?

Large

Small

83

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 202 R

An appliance which required 36 inches of clearance to

combustibles, has 24 gauge sheet metal with ventilated

airspace installed to protect the combustibles, the allowed clearance is now __.

9 inches

18 inches

24 inches

30 inches

84

A.

B.

C.

D.




Low pressure boilers installed in rooms that are small

in comparison to the size of the equipment may use Table 308.2 for clearance reduction.

True

False

85

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 308.2 Table

Air conditioning equipment installed in rooms that are large in comparison with the size of the equipment

shall be installed with which of the following

clearances?

2 inches

4 inches or greater

In accordance with the terms of their listing

In accordance with Table 308.2 of this Code

86

A.

B.

C.

D.


Furnace plenum clearance to plaster on metal lath __.

Shall be 2 inches

Shall be measured to the surface of the plaster

Shall be measured to the inside face of the

metal lath

May be reduced to 2 inches

87

A.

B.

C.

D.




Gas piping may be used as a grounding electrode

where the engineer and the Code official have given approval.

True

False

88

A.

B.

C.

D.


Electrical connections between equipment and the building wiring, including the grounding of the

equipment, shall conform to the National Electrical

Code.

True

False

89

A.

B.

C.

D.


Each above-ground portion of a gas piping system that is likely to ___ shall be electrically continuous and

bonded to a ground-fault path.

Corrode

Rust

Become energized

Become deenergized

90

A.

B.

C.

D.




Gas piping bonding shall be connected to a circuit

other than that supplying the gas equipment.

True

False

91

A.

B.

C.

D.


Exposed gas piping systems shall be identified by which of the following colors?

Red

Yellow

Blue

Green

92

A.

B.

C.

D.


When sizing a gas piping system which name plate BTU input rating is unknown, a hydronic boiler for a

single family unit would have an approximate rating

___ BTU.

60,000

100,000

110,000

120,000

93

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to Table 402.2, an instantaneous water

heater with a capacity of four gallons per minute has a BTU/h input of approximately ___ BTU/h.

142,800

285,000

428,400

35,000

94

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, Table 402.3, a fuel gas piping system, with a developed length of

145 feet, carrying 1245 cubic feet of fuel gas, would

require a schedule 40 pipe size of:

1 1/4"

1 1/2"

2"

2 1/2"

95

A.

B.

C.

D.


Table 402.4(1) is used to size __. I. schedule 40 metalic pipe

II. pressure drop of 0.3 inches water column

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

96

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 402.4(1) Table



A segment of schedule 40 metallic pipe is carrying

670 cubic feet of gas per hour. Assuming a pressure drop of .3 inches water column and a maximum

branch length of 50 feet, what would be the minimum

pipe size required?

1 inch

1 1/4 inch

1 1/2 inch

2 inch

97

A.

B.

C.

D.


Given: Natural gas piping system; pressure drop of .5 inches water column; type cast tubing; tube size is 23;

maximum capacity of 38 cubic feet of gas per hour.

What is the maximum branch length allowed?

150

200

250

300

98

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 402.4(14) Table

Given: Type K copper pipe; pressure drop of .3 inches

water column; maximum branch length of 81 feet; 387

cubic feet per hour demand. What is the minimum size

pipe required?

1 inch

1 1/4 inch

1 1/2 inch

2 inch

99

A.

B.

C.

D.




At a maximum branch length of 153 feet, what is the

maximum cubic feet of gas that can be carried by a 5/8 inch type L copper semi-rigid tube?

50

45

41

39

100

A.

B.

C.

D.


The operating pressure for undiluted LP gas systems shall not exceed ___ psig.

8

10

16

20

101

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 402.6.1

Where plastic pipe is used for fuel gas piping systems, the joint shall be designed so that the longitudinal pull-

out resistance of the joint will be at least __.

20 pounds per square inch

Equal to the solvent weld medium

The compression strength of the pipe

The tensile strength of the pipe

102

A.

B.

C.

D.




Acceptable flanged gasket material include all of the

following except __.

Neoprene

Asbestos

Aluminum "O" rings

Spiral wound metal gaskets

103

A.

B.

C.

D.


Copper and brass tubing shall not be used in fuel gas piping systems where the natural gas contains more

than an average of __ grains of hydrogen sulfide per

100 cubic feet of gas.

.3

.03

3.0

30.0

104

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to code, thread compounds shall be resistant to the action of LP gas, fuel gas, and, any

chemical constituents of the gases conducted through

the pipe.

True

False

105

A.

B.

C.

D.




Portions of fuel gas piping systems in concealed

locations shall not include:1. Unions

2. Tubing fittings

3. Right and left couplings4. Brazed joints

5. Bushings

6. Swing joints

7. Compression couplings

All but #1

All but #2

All but #4

All but #6

106

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 404.3, 404.3(1)

Uncoated threaded or socket welded joints shall not be

used __.

True

In contact with soil

In an alkaline atmosphere

False

107

A.

B.

C.

D.


Mitered bends in excess of 3 degrees shall not be used

in fuel gas piping systems where the internal pressure

exceeds __.

20 psi

30 psi

40 psi

50 psi

108

A.

B.

C.

D.




A branch length of 45 feet of 2 1/2 inch fuel gas

piping requires purging with an inert gas.

True

False

109

A.

B.

C.

D.


Vertical spacing of hangers for fuel gas piping 1 1/4 inch and larger shall be no less than __.

6 feet

8 feet

Every floor

10 feet

110

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 415.1 Table

According to the International Gas Code, Chapter 5 covers all of the following except:

factory built

chimneys

chimney liners

single wall chimneys

111

A.

B.

C.

D.




Residential and low heat appliance flue lining systems

shall be clay flue lining, a listed chimney lining system, and any other approved materials which will

support temperatures up to ____ degrees F.

1200

1500

1800

2400

112

A.

B.

C.

D.


Category II, III, and IV appliance venting systems shall be sized in accordance with IGC section 504.

True

False

113

A.

B.

C.

D.


must be sized in accordance with manufacturers recommendations

According to the International Gas Code, masonry chimney flues shall be provided with a cleanout

opening having a minimum height of ____ inches.

6

8

10

12

114

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 501.15.3



According to the International Gas Code, masonry

chimneys equipped with a chimney lining system shall not be required to have clearance between combustible

materials and the exterior surfaces of the masonry

chimney.

True

False

115

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 501.15.4 exception

liner system must be "listed"

According to the International Gas Code, abandoned inlet openings in chimneys and vents shall be closed .

True

False

116

A.

B.

C.

D.


shall be closed by an approved method

According to the International Gas Code, positive pressure venting systems shall be:

I. Taped & sealedII. Designed for a minimum of .25" of positive

pressure

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

117

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, when

connecting an appliance to chimney flues serving fireplaces, a ____ shall be provided below the point of

connection to prevent entry of room air into the flue.

cleanout

combustible seal

noncombustible seal

damper

118

A.

B.

C.

D.


An appliance shall not be connected to a flue serving a factory-build fireplace.

True

False

119

A.

B.

C.

D.


If the appliance is specifically listed for such installation, then its OK!

According to the International Gas Code, when connecting a fuel gas appliance to a masonry fireplace

flue:

the connector shall extend to the fireplace flue

the connector shall extend to the fireplace

chamber

the connector shall extend to a point at least

4' vertical from the fireplace shelf

the ICG prohibits this arrangement

120

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, laboratory

burners must be vented.

True

False

121

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, Gas refrigerators need not be vented.

True

False

122

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, Type II clothes dryers need not be vented.

True

False

123

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, room heaters

listed for unvented use need not be vented as long as there is an openable window in the room.

True

False

124

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, paragraph 501.8, a room containing multiples of items 1-11,

where the sum of the input ratings is greater than ____

BTU per cubic foot of room volume, an approved

venting system shall be provided.

20

40

100

200

125

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, connectors shall connect to a masonry chimney flue at a point not

less than ____ inches above the lowest portion of the

interior of the chimney flue.

6

12

18

24

126

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, where vents

pass through insulated assemblies, an insulation shield constructed of not less than ____ gauge sheet metal

shall be used to provide clearance between the vent

and the insulation.

20

22

24

26

127

A.

B.

C.

D.


The entire length of a chimney vent connector shall have ___ for, inspection, cleaning and repair.

Confinement

Access doors

Access

Ready access

128

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.10.12

A gas utilization appliance shall not be connected to a chimney flue serving ___, disregarding exceptions.

Any other gas utilization appliance

Any appliance which has a draft hood

A fireplace

A space heater

129

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.10.13



A vent connector shall not pass through ___.

A ceiling

A floor

Fire resistant rated wall

All of the above

130

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.10.14

A single wall metal connector shall not pass through

any __.

Interior wall

Exterior wall

Living spaces

All of the above

131

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.14

According to the IFGC, for residential and low heat

appliances, the thimble shall be not less than __ inches larger in diameter than the vent connector.

12

9

7

6

132

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.15



Ventilated metal thimbles designed for Type B metal

vent shall be a minimum of ___ inches in diameter larger than the outside diameter of the metal vent.

2

4

6

8

133

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.10.15

Single wall metal pipe located within the exterior walls of a building in locales having a 99% winter

design temperature of __ degrees Fahrenheit or higher

shall be permitted to be used in unconditioned spaces

other than attics and crawl spaces.

-5

Zero

5

10

134

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.10.2.2 Exception

The minimum thickness for a galvanized steel vent connector 8" in diameter, shall be no less than ____

inches.

.019

.023

.029

.034

135

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.10.2.4 Table



The minimum thickness for a steel vent connector for

medium heat equipment connector, 8" diameter, shall be no less than ____ inches.

.053

.067

.093

.123

136

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.2.5

Vent connectors serving Category __ appliances shall not connect to any portion of a mechanical draft

system operating under positive static pressure.

I

II

III

IV

137

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.10.4

Joints between sections of connector piping and connections to flue collars and hood outlets shall be

fastened by any of the following methods except __.

Any approved means

Aluminum duct tape

Sheet metal screws

In accordance with manufacturers instructions

138

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.10.7



According to the IFGC, a vent connector shall be

installed without dips or sags and shall slope upward toward the vent or chimney at least __ inch per foot.

1/2

1/8

1/4

3/16

139

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.10.8

Without considering exceptions, the maximum horizontal length of a single wall vent connector shall

not exceed __.

100 feet

75 feet

100% of the vertical rise of the vent

75% of the vertical rise of the vent

140

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.10.9

According to the IFGC, a draft hood shall be located so its relief opening is not less than __ inches from

any surface except that of the equipment it serves and

the venting system to which the draft hood is

connected.

12

18

9

6

141

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.12.7



Manually operated dampers __ placed in the vent

connector of any appliance.

Shall not be

Are permitted to be

142

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, incinerators shall be permitted to be vented by means of a

mechanical draft system of an induced draft design.

True

False

143

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.3.3.2

According to the International Gas Code, ventilating hoods shall be permitted to vent____ equipment.

production

commercial

residential

process

144

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.3.3.4



In a mechanical venting system where a ventilating

hood is used, provisions shall be made to prohibit ____ when the ventilation loop's damper is not in the

open position.

ignition

flow of gas to main burner

flow of gas through the solenoid valve

the exhaust fan from operating

145

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, no portion of a venting shall extend through or into:

an attic

an air duct

an air plenum

B & C are correct

146

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, table 503.4, a listed, vented wall furnace can utilize ____ for its

flue.

single wall

Type B

Type L

Type BW

147

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, approved

plastic piping is permitted to be used for approved appliances.

True

False

148

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, masonry chimneys built in accordance with NFPA 211 shall be

built for temperatures up to ____ degrees F.

1500

1800

2400

3000

149

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, residential chimneys for a low-heat appliance, shall extend ____

feet above the highest point where it passes through a

roof.

2

3

4

5

150

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, residential

chimneys for a low-heat appliance, shall extend ____ feet above any portion of a building within a

horizontal distance of 10 feet.

2

3

4

5

151

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, chimneys for medium-heat equipment shall extend at least ____ feet

higher than any portion of any building within 25 feet.

2

3

10

25

152

A.

B.

C.

D.


Using the alternate method #1 of flue sizing in the International Gas Code, the maximum size individual

chimney for an appliance whose draft hood is 3" in

diameter would be ____ inches in diameter.

4

5

6

7

153

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.5.5 exception (1)



Using the alternate method #2 of flue sizing in the

IGC, the common flue size for a 4" and a 5" connected appliance would be a ____ inch diameter pipe.

4

5

6

7

154

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.5.5 exception (2)

According to the International Gas Code, an existing chimney which has previously been used for venting

solid-burning fuel shall be ____ prior to placing a new

fuel gas burning appliance into its service.

abandoned

replaced

cleaned

removed

155

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, fuel gas burning equipment shall be permitted to be connected

to a chimney flue serving a separate appliance

designed to burn solid fuel.

True

False

156

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.5.7.1



According to the International Gas Code, category I

gas utilizing equipment on more than one floor are permitted to be serviced by a common gas vent.

True

False

157

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.6.10

According to the International Gas Code, category I gas utilizing equipment on more than one floor which

is to be served by a common flue vent require the

following:

I. All equipment shall be located in rooms separated

from habitable living

II. Equipment rooms shall have exteriorly furnished combustion, ventilation and dilution air.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

158

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.6.10.1

According to the International Gas Code, when sizing

connectors in multi-story gas venting systems, the

available height (H) is the vertical distance between:

I. The level of the highest draft hood outlet

II. The centerline of the next highest interconnection

tee

Either I or II

Both I or II

Neither I nor II

159

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.6.10.2



According to the International Gas Code, when sizing

connectors in multi-story venting systems, the size of a connector segment is determined from:

it's draft hood outlet

draft hood inlet

Btu input

Btu output

160

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.6.10.2(2)

According to the International Gas Code, when sizing the common vertical vent in a multi-story venting

system, the size of the common vent is based upon:

I. Total connected Btu input of equipmentII. Total available height of common vertical vent

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

161

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 503.6.10.2(3)

According to the International Gas Code, a fuel gas

vent shall pass through the roof using all of the

following except:

roof flashing

pitch pocket

roof jack

roof thimble

162

A.

B.

C.

D.




Generally, Type L vents shall extend vertically with

off sets not exceeding ____ degrees.

30

45

60

90

163

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, Type B vents shall be permitted to have one offset of not more

than ____ degrees.

30

45

60

90

164

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, the total horizontal length of a vent, including the length of its

connector, serving a gravity vented appliance, shall

not exceed ____% of its vertical height.

30

45

60

75

165

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, a vent for a

fuel gas appliance shall terminate above the roof surface with:

room in the thimble for combustion air

a listed cap

a listed roof assembly

either B or C

166

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, gas vents 12 inches and smaller shall terminate at least ____ feet

from a vertical wall.

2

6

8

10

167

A.

B.

C.

D.


A type B gas vent shall terminate ____ feet in vertical height above the appliance draft hood.

2

3

4

5

168

A.

B.

C.

D.




A type B-W gas vent shall terminate ____ feet in

vertical height above the bottom of a wall heater.

5

7

10

12

169

A.

B.

C.

D.


A gas vent exiting through a wall shall not terminate:

on the wall

next to a wall

under an eave

all of the above

170

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, single wall

metal pipe for use in multi-story gas venting systems shall be made of ____ inch thick galvanized sheet

steel, or other approved materials.

.0123

.0231

.0304

.0434

171

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, uninsulated

single-wall metal pipe shall not be used outdoors in cold climates for fuel gas burning equipment.

True

False

172

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, single-wall metal pipe shall only be used for runs directly from the

space in which the ____ is located.

I. appliance

II. draft hood

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

173

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, single-wall metal pipe penetrations through a roof, a non-

ventilating shall be used which shall extend ____

inches above the roof and ____ inches below the roof.

18 ; 18

18 ; 6

6 ; 18

6 ; 6

174

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Gas Code, single-wall

metal pipe shall not originate in any of the following except:

unoccupied attic

unoccupied mechanical equipment room

concealed space

chase

175

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Gas Code, Table 503.7.7, the clearance of listed equipment with a draft

hood, and listed for use with Type B gas vents, from

combustible material to single-wall metal pipe shall be

no less than ____ inches.

3

6

9

not permitted

176

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.7.7 Table

According to the International Gas Code, Table 503.7.7, the clearance form Type B vent to

combustible material for a gas fired toilet shall be no

less than ____ inches.

3

6

9

not permitted

177

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 503.7.7 Table



According to the International Gas Code, the

minimum dimension for a single-wall pipe vent shall be no less than:

2"

3"

4"

5"

178

A.

B.

C.

D.


A mechanical draft venting system shall terminate at least ____ feet above any building inlet within 10 feet.

2

3

4

5

179

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 503.8(1)

A mechanical draft venting system shall terminate at least ____ feet above grade.

1

2

3

4

180

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 503.8(2)



The minimum input rating of a Category I fan-assisted

appliance connected to a vent or connector is the definition for ___.

Fan Minimum

Fan Maximum

National Minimum

National Maximum

181

A.

B.

C.

D.


The maximum input rating of a Category I fan-assisted appliance connected to a vent or connector is

the definition for __.

Fan minimum

Fan maximum

National minimum

National maximum

182

A.

B.

C.

D.


The maximum input rating of a Category I draft hood appliance connected to a vent or connector is the

definition for __.

Fan min

Fan max

Nat min

Nat max

183

A.

B.

C.

D.




The maximum combined appliance input rating of one

or more Category I fan-assisted appliances and one or more draft hood equipped appliances attached to a

common vent is the definition for __.

Fan max

Fan min

FAN + FAN

FAN + NAT

184

A.

B.

C.

D.


Given:1. Category I appliance with a draft hood, Type B vent

2. Name plate input rating is 96,000 BTU/h

3. Location is 5 feet horizontally from flue

4. Vertical height draft hood to vent outlet is 15 feetWhat is the minimum size flue?

4 inches

5 inches

6 inches

8 inches

185

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table

Use the following information to select the minimum

size flue:

1. Category I appliance, fan assisted, single appliance2. Name plate input rating of 575,000

3. Location is 15 feet horizontally from flue

4. Vertical rise of flue is 15 feet

5. Vent type is "B"

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

14 inches

186

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table



Use the following information to determine the

minimum flue size:1. Single, Category I appliance, 35,000 BTU/h

2. Single wall appliance vent connector

3. Type B vent4. Lateral distance is 12 feet

5. Flue height is 15 feet

3 inches

4 inches

5 inches

Not applicable

187

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table

The maximum horizontal length of a 10 inch vent

connector shall not be greater than __ feet.

10

12.5

15

17.5

188

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 504.2 (1) Table

A single appliance is to be vented with a type B vent.

Its label indicates a BTUh input rating of 120,000.

The venting system will require 3 elbows. If the "Nat

MAX" is 187, what is the rating with the elbows?

149.6

177.6

158.95

168.3

189

A.

B.

C.

D.


10 % reduction in the nat/Max rating for one additional elbow over the two allowed. 187 X .9 = 168.3



According to the IFGC, a multistory common vent

may be reduced by __% in size above the offset.

3

5

4

None of these

190

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 504.3.16

It shall NOT be reduced at all.

Vent connectors for draft hood equipped appliances:I. May

II. Shall not

be smaller than the draft hood outlet diameter.

I

II

Either

Neither

191

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.3.19

According to the IFGC, the maximum vent connector length, horizontally, for a connector diameter of 24

inches maximum, shall be __ feet.

36

33

27

21

192

A.

B.

C.

D.




Where vent connectors are combined, prior to entering

the vertical portion of the common vent to form a common vent manifold, the size of the common vent

manifold and the common vent shall be determined by

applying a __ reduction to the common vent capacity part of the common vent tables.

10%

8%

5%

2%

193

A.

B.

C.

D.


Commingling a combination of pipe sizes, double wall and single wall metal pipe shall not be permitted by

this Code.

True

False

194

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 504.3.21

The minimum distance from the lowest part of a floor

furnace to the surrounding grade shall not be less than

__ inches.

4

5

6

8

195

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 504.3.22



At the point where a tee or a wye fitting connects to a

common vent ___.

This arrangement is not permitted

The size of the tee or wye shall not be

diminished

This arrangement is only permitted when common vent sizes are 10 inches or larger

The opening size of the fitting shall be of a

size equal to the common vent

196

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, for each elbow up to and including 445 degrees in the common vent, the

maximum common vent capacity listed in the venting

tables shall be reduced by __%.

5

3

7

10

197

A.

B.

C.

D.


When using corrugated metallic chimney liners, the

table capacities shall be reduced by __.

15%

20%

25%

30%

198

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the IFGC, a distance of at least __ inches

from 2 adjoining sides of a floor furnace register to walls shall be provided.

12

18

24

36

199

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, floor furnaces shall not be installed in concrete floor construction built on grade.

True

False

200

A.

B.

C.

D.


A duct furnace shall be installed on the __ side of the blower.

Positive pressure

Negative pressure

Upstream

Intake

201

A.

B.

C.

D.




All air handled by a non recirculating direct fired

industrial heater, including combustion air, shall be ducted directly from __.

The space being heated

Any return air location

Any indoor location

Any outdoor location

202

A.

B.

C.

D.


Ducts that exhaust clothes dryers shall not be located or penetrate __.

Concealed location

Accessible locations

Masonry walls

Fireblocking

203

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, direct fired industrial air heaters shall incorporate a means to supply outside

ventilation air to the space at a rate of not less than __

cubic feet per minute per 1,000 Btu/h or rated input of

the heater.

12

6

4

2

204

A.

B.

C.

D.




Clothes dryer exhaust ducts which exhaust __ CFM

shall be provided with make up air.

200

220

300

400

205

A.

B.

C.

D.


Volume damper placed in the inlet side of a forced war air furnace ___.

Are not permitted

Are permitted but may not restrict the

required air flow to the unit

Are permitted without restriction

This topic is not addressed in this Code

206

A.

B.

C.

D.


The minimum nominal size of an exhaust duct for domestic clothes dryers must be __ inches.

6

4

3

2

207

A.

B.

C.

D.




The maximum length of a clothes dryer exhaust duct

must not exceed __ feet from the dryer location to the outlet terminal.

50

10

25

15

208

A.

B.

C.

D.


Ducts in a Type 2 clothes dryer must have a minimum clearance of __ inches to combustible materials.

18

12

9

6

209

A.

B.

C.

D.


If a thermostat is not an integral part of a sauna heater, the heat sensing element must be located

within __ inches of the ceiling.

12

6

18

14

210

A.

B.

C.

D.




The minimum unobstructed total area of the outside

and return air ducts to a forced air warm air furnace shall not be less than __ square inch/es for each 1,000

Btu/h output rating capacity of the furnace.

2

1

3

4

211

A.

B.

C.

D.


A refrigeration machinery room is __.

A hazardous location

Must have mechanical as well as gravity

ventilation

A prohibited source for return air

A source for contaminated air

212

A.

B.

C.

D.


What does a kitchen, toilet, closet, garage, bathroom and boiler room have in common?

They all qualify for placement of gas

utilization equipment

They are all residential type rooms

They are all living spaces

They are all prohibited spaces for return air

inlets

213

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 618.3 (3)



Required outdoor air inlets shall be covered with 1/2

inch mesh type screen.

True

False

214

A.

B.

C.

D.


Open top broiler unit hoods shall have a minimum clearance of __ inches maintained between the

cooking top and combustible material above the hood.

18

24

30

36

215

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, suspended type unit heaters shall be installed with clearances to combustible

materials of not less than __ inches at the sides.

12

18

10

24

216

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the IFGC, floor mounted type unit

heaters shall be installed with clearances to combustible materials at the back and one side only of

not less than __ inches.

12

18

6

10

217

A.

B.

C.

D.


Group ___ occupancies shall not have unvented room heaters installed in them.

A

E

I

All of these

218

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, the aggregate input rating of all unvented appliances installed in a room shall not

exceed __ Btu/h per cubic foot of volume of such room.

100

70

20

45

219

A.

B.

C.

D.




A Category I appliance utilizes a draft hood. Its name

plate rating is 96,000 BTU/h input. The appliance is located 5 feet horizontally from the vent. The vertical

height from the outlet of the draft hood to the outlet of

the vent is 15 feet. What is the maximum BTU/h rating this vent can handle?

87,000 BTU/h

142,000 BTU/h

130,000 BTU/h

219,000 BTU/h

220

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, if instructions are not available, at least __ inches of clearance must be

provided above the top of a refrigerator.

6

12

8

18

221

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, means for interrupting the

electrical supply to the air conditioning equipment and

to its associated cooling tower shall be provided within

sight of and not over __ feet from the air conditioner and cooling tower.

100

75

50

25

222

A.

B.

C.

D.




A room or space which is intended exclusively to

house a gaseous hydrogen system is called a hydrogen cut-off room.

True

False

223

A.

B.

C.

D.


Hydrogen-generating appliances utilize __ to generate hydrogen.

Electrolysis

Reformation

Chemical processes

All of the above

224

A.

B.

C.

D.


Referring to gaseous hydrogen systems, 2 permanent openings, one located entirely within __ inches of the

ceiling of a garage and one located entirely within 12

inches of the floor of the garage shall be provided in

the same exterior wall.

6

12

18

24

225

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 703.1.1.1



Piping used to convey gaseous hydrogen shall be

marked at intervals not exceeding __ feet.

10

12

18

20

226

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 704.1.2.2

According to the IFGC, shield plates shall cover the area of a pipe where the member is notched or bored,

and shall extend a minimum of __ inch/es above sole

plates.

1

2

3

4

227

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IGC 2003 704.1.2.3.5

Piping below ground shall be protected against __.

Corrosion

Freezing

Water

All of the above

228

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 704.1.2.3.7



According to the IFGC, when referring to the location

of gaseous hydrogen systems, operable windows are not prohibited in interior walls.

True

False

229

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IFGC, to determine the size of piping used in a gas piping system, all of the following except

__ must be considered.

Diversity factor

Numbers of elbows to be used

Maximum gas demand

Specific gravity of the gas

230

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IGC 2003 Appendix A

Assume you have a 120,000 Btu/h input appliance with a 5-inch diameter draft hood outlet that needs to

be vented into a 10-foot high Type B vent system.

What size vent should be used assuming a 5-foot

lateral single wall metal vent connector is used with 2 90 degree elbows?

5-inch diameter

7-inch diameter

3-inch diameter

6-inch diameter

231

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IGC 2003 Appendix B



According to Table A.5.1, if the nominal size of

Schedule 40 steel pipe is 1/4 inch, the internal diameter would be __ inch.

0.493

0.622

0.364

1.049

232

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IGC 2003 Table A.5.1

A device or method which has been approved by the code official or any other authority having jurisdiction

is:

listed

approved

certified

accepted

233

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003

What is the minimum gauge galvanized steel for a Type I hood?

20 GA

22 GA

18 GA

24 GA

234

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 507.4



The purpose of Intent is to safeguard ____

property and public welfare, health, limb or

life.

health, wealth, public and property welfare.

equipment, buildings, welfare of others.

life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.

235

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 101.3

Disregarding exceptions, this code shall not require:I. Removal of lawfully installed equipment prior to

the acceptance of the code

II. Abandonment of mechanical systems lawfully in

existence at the time of adoption of this code

I only

II only

both I and II

either I or II

236

A.

B.

C.

D.


Buildings or structures that are moved into a new area that already has mechanical systems must comply with

the provisions of code ____ for new installations.

102.2

202.1

102.1

201.1

237

A.

B.

C.

D.




Who does the chief appointing authority of the

jurisdiction appoint?

chief of police.

mechanical inspector.

code official.

presiding judge.

238

A.

B.

C.

D.


The code official shall have authority, as necessary in the interest of public health, safety and general welfare

to:

I. Interpret and implement provisions of the code

II. Enter a premise at anytime an unsafe condition exists

I only

II only

both I and II

neither I nor II

239

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 104.2 and 104.5

Margaret Kelly is the code official inspecting the structures of a building. Before she can begin her

inspection she must show ____.

birth certificate and drivers license.

rules and regulations of the IMC.

estimate of repairs.

proper identification.

240

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 104.6



Permits shall not be required for all of the following

except:

portable heating appliances

portable cooling units

portable evaporative coolers

self contained refrigeration systems that

contain 10 pounds or more refrigerant

241

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Mechanical Code, who is responsible to notify the authority that work is ready

for inspection?

licensed journeyman

the qualifying party

the permit holder

the company owner

242

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Mechanical Code, the building official may call for re-inspection ____.

All of these.

when approved plans are not readily available

to the inspector.

when there is failure to provide access on the

day the inspector is required to be there.

When the portion of work for each inspection is called for and is not complete or

corrections have not been made.

243

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 107.2.3



A dated declaration of test for a refrigeration system

shall show the signatures of which one of the following?

owner

installer

mechanical official

mechanical designer

244

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 108.4

Upon notice from a code official of a violation of the code for mechanical work:

I. Such work shall cease within 3 days

II. Such notice shall be given to the property owner

both verbally and in writing

I only

II only

both I and II

neither I nor II

245

A.

B.

C.

D.


A toilet room consists of ____.

a shower, spa, bathtub or a similar fixture

a toilet, bathtub, vanity and water closet

a Jacuzzi, changing room, toilet

a water closet and frequently a toilet

246

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202



Air removed from a conditioned space and intended

for reuse as supply air is:

return air

combustion air

outdoor air

recalculated air

247

A.

B.

C.

D.


A duct is a _____ utilized for conveying air.

gas compressor

welded joint

tube or conduit

warm-air heating appliance

248

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 202

A furnace is a self-contained heating unit that is

designed to supply ____.

combustible liquid from a source of supply to a fuel-oil-burning appliance.

heat that is transferred from one medium to another.

a passageway within a chimney or vent.

heated air to spaces remote from or adjacent

to the appliance location.

249

A.

B.

C.

D.




Any appliance which produces a temperature from

combustion at the point of entry into the flue is:

low-heat appliance

high-heat appliance

medium- heat appliance

category I appliance

250

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 202 (c)

A pilot that burns without turn down, whether or not the main burner is firing is:

standing pilot

continuous pilot

blue flame pilot

ignition pilot

251

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 (c)

At what maximum pressure may a low pressure boiler supply hot water?

150 psi

160 psi

170 psi

180 psi

252

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 b



What is the name of the appliance that generates

steam or other vapors in excess of 15 PSI?

steam boiler

low pressure boiler

low temperature boiler

power steam boiler

253

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202 b

A central heating furnace that is not listed for closet or alcove installation is being installed. The room

SHALL HAVE a volume of at least ___ times greater

than the total volume of the furnace.

10

12

18

20

254

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 c

A joint obtained by the joining of metal parts with alloys which melt at temperatures higher than 800

degrees F is a ____ joint.

fusion

soldered

mechanical

brazed

255

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202 definitions B



What does a Type 1 kitchen hood remove?

grease

dust

smoke

steam

256

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 202 definitions H

A unit is considered to be readily accessible if it can be

reached for operation, to renew or repair quickly ____:

by using a step ladder

by removing a panel

without using a step ladder

by removing a door

257

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 202 definitions R

A natural draft, automatically controlled gas appliance

shall be equipped with a device that will shut off the fuel supply to the burner in the event of:

low draft condition

the flue temperature reaches 100 F

pilot flame goes out

combustion chamber temperature reaches 100

degrees F

258

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 202 s



A listed device that will automatically shut off a

supply of fuel is required on which of the following appliances?

stove top gas boiler

kitchen range

gas fire log

warm air furnace

259

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 202 s

According to Code, the minimum depth of a trap seal is:

30,700 BTU

28,800 BTU

45,100 BTU

60,500 BTU

260

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 u

A residence of ordinary tightness gets all or part of its combustion air to supply its appliances by infiltration.

How many cubic feet per 1000 BTUH of combustion

air are required to supply each appliance in the

building?

50

30

40

20

261

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 202 u



In ordinary construction, combustion air is considered

adequate by means of infiltration provided the volume of the room is not less than ___ CF per 1,000 BTU

input of the appliance.

75

50

25

40

262

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 202 u

A furnace is being installed in a garage to heat an attic apartment. Concrete filled steel posts will be installed

in front of the furnace so no vehicle will actually be

able to hit the furnace. How high above the garage

floor do the burners have to be to comply with the minimum height specified by the code?

24"

6"

12"

18"

263

A.

B.

C.

D.


Central furnaces within a compartment shall have a

minimum working space clearance from the back and

sides of:

2"

3"

4"

5"

264

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Mechanical Code, a

furnace room shall have an opening or passage large enough to remove the largest piece of equipment in

such room and not be less than ___ wide x ___ high.

2', 3'-6"

2', 6'-8"

2', 6'-9"

2', 7'-6"

265

A.

B.

C.

D.


The total distance from a passageway opening to any furnace located in a crawl space shall not be more than

____ feet

15

20

25

30

266

A.

B.

C.

D.


A level working platform of not less than ____ inches in depth shall be provided in front of the entire fire

box side of an attic furnace including access to other

controls.

30

32

42

36

267

A.

B.

C.

D.




Which of the following is required when a warm air

furnace is installed in an attic?

the electric outlet and lighting fixture must be installed near the furnace

the attic must have fire-resistive decking

an electric outlet and lighting fixture must be installed near the attic access door

all air ducts must be installed at least 5' above

the service area

268

A.

B.

C.

D.


A furnace located under the floor shall have ____ at or near the furnace?

the service record

a permanent electric outlet and light fixture

a light fixture

a starting collar

269

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 306.4.1

According to the International Mechanical Code, a non-listed furnace which is to be installed on a roof

that is 18' high:

may be installed on a properly constructed

roof jack

must be provided with permanent means of

access

must be in a properly constructed penthouse

must be water tight

270

A.

B.

C.

D.




Furnaces located on a roof with a pitch greater than 4'

on 12, shall have a level working platform of at least:

48" x 48"

24" x 30"

30" x 48"

30" x 30"

271

A.

B.

C.

D.


Where condensate drain lines serve more than one fuel burning appliance in the same residence, the drain line

diameter shall be:

approved by building official before

installation

no less than 1"

approved by local fire Marshall after

installation

not less that the appliance connection

272

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 307.2.2

Combustion air vent openings that terminate on the outside of the building shall be covered with a

corrosion resistant screen that has a wire mesh of:

1/8"

1/16"

1/4"

1/2"

273

A.

B.

C.

D.




Natural ventilation is defined by the code as being

obtained through all of the following except:

an open window

make up air fan

an open door

infiltration

274

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Mechanical Code, in which chapter of the International Building Code shall

natural ventilation of an occupied space comply to?

3

6

9

12

275

A.

B.

C.

D.


Mechanical ventilation may be provided by all of the following except:

supply air fans

bathroom exhaust fan

make up air fan

gravity roof ventilator

276

A.

B.

C.

D.




In what section of the International Mechanical Code

would you refer to in order to find the minimum ventilation rate of required outdoor air?

401.6

402.2.4

403.2

404.5

277

A.

B.

C.

D.


Public toilet rooms shall be ventilated with exhaust air at the rate of:

75 cfm per water closet or urinal

25 cfm per square foot

.5 cfm per cubic foot

no less than 150 cfm exhaust fans

278

A.

B.

C.

D.


An auditorium is being designed for an occupant load of 100 persons per 1000 square feet. The theater

measure 157' x 127' of conditioned floor area. What is

the design outdoor air cfm?

398

299

199

20

279

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 403.3 table



Mechanical ventilation systems for public garages

must activate upon detection of ____ ppm of carbon monoxide.

25

30

33

41

280

A.

B.

C.

D.


Air from a public building may be exhausted to the outdoors in all of the following locations except:

side wall louver

positive discharge roof ventilator

an adequate louvered attic space

basement air shaft

281

A.

B.

C.

D.


In what area shall an inlet to an exhaust system be located?

at floor level.

in the area of the heaviest concentration of

contaminants.

to the immediate left of an outlet door.

in the crawl space of the attic.

282

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to Code, electric ARC projectors without an

exhaust connection shall have the contaminates removed through a mechanical exhaust system at a

rate of ____ cfm per lamp.

100

150

200

250

283

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 502.5.2

In accordance to the International Mechanical Code, during the construction, alteration or demolition of a

structure where the use of materials that contain

solvents that are flammable ____ must be used.

ceiling fan

both manuel and automatic shut-off valves

automatic sprinkler system

ventilation

284

A.

B.

C.

D.


Parts of fans in contact with explosive or flammable vapors shall be made of?

nonferrous material

forged steel

cast steel

molybdenum/steel alloy

285

A.

B.

C.

D.




Ducts from clothes dryers shall:

I. Terminate on the outside of the building with a volume damper

II. Have a smooth interim finish with a maximum

developed length of 20'

I only

II only

both I and II

neither I nor II

286

A.

B.

C.

D.


Ducts conveying exhaust from hoods over commercial kitchen ranges, should have a conveying velocity of

____.

1500 fpm

1000 fpm

2000 fpm

500 fpm

287

A.

B.

C.

D.


The velocity in a grease duct serving a commercial range hood shall not be less than ____ feet per minute.

1200

1500

1800

2000

288

A.

B.

C.

D.




Duct systems serving a type I hood shall slope not less

than ___ inch per linear foot towards the hood.

1/4

1/2

3/4

1

289

A.

B.

C.

D.


A Type I island hood is being sized for a deep fat fryer. The open area of the hood is 24 square feet (4' x

6'). According to the IMC, the cfm requirement for

this hood is:

2400 cfm

3200 cfm

3600 cfm

4800 cfm

290

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 507.13.4

Each exhaust outlet in a Type I hood shall serve no more than a ____ foot section of hood.

10

12

14

16

291

A.

B.

C.

D.




When using copper to construct a Type II exhaust

hood, the sheets shall be no less than ____ ounces per square foot.

24

22

20

18

292

A.

B.

C.

D.


The portion of a type I hood shall have clearance from unprotected combustible construction of not less than

____ inches.

15

18

21

24

293

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to Code, the temperature difference between the makeup air and the kitchen space where

cooking fumes are being exhausted shall not exceed:

5 degrees F

10 degrees F

ambient outside temperature

ambient indoor temperature

294

A.

B.

C.

D.




Ducts used to convey flammable vapors in excess of

the acceptable lower flammability limit shall extend directly:

to the exterior of the building without

entering other spaces

to the exterior of the building but may pass

through no more than one building space

to the exterior of the building but may pass through no more than two other building

spaces

into a filtering system to reduce the level of the flammables and then recirculate the air to

other building spaces

295

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 510 5.7

A hazardous exhaust galvanized duct has a square

dimension of 28". The material used for fabricating

the duct should be ____ gage.

18

16

14

12

296

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 510.8 Table

A dust conveying duct system shall be provided with:

safety relief system

explosion relief system

both A and B

Either A or B

297

A.

B.

C.

D.




Stud wall cavities and the spaces between solid floor

joists utilized as air plenums shall:I. Not be utilized as a plenum for supply air

II. Be isolated from adjacent concealed spaces by

approved fire blocking

I only

II only

both I and II

either I or II

298

A.

B.

C.

D.


What minimum clearance is required between a fabricated metal duct and the ground below?

8"

2"

6"

4"

299

A.

B.

C.

D.


You are directed to fabricate 100 feet of 14x10 low pressure galvanized iron ductwork, using a 10%

waste factor for joints and seams. In accordance with

able 603.3 of the International Mechanical Code, this duct system would weigh approximately ____ pounds.

234

343

421

512

300

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 603.3 Table

28 gage is the minimum required thickness for this duct. It weighs .7812 pounds per square foot. 14 X 10

duct has a perimeter of 48 inches or 4'. 1 lf weighs 4 X .7812 or 3.12 pound per LF. 100 LF weighs 312

pounds. Add 10% for seams = 343#



Round aluminum ducts used in a single family

dwelling shall be of ____ minimum gage.

28

26

24

22

301

A.

B.

C.

D.


What cannot be used for the fabrication of evaporative cooling ducts?

a masonry shaft connected to the outdoors

galvanized steel

copper

gypsum wall board

302

A.

B.

C.

D.


What class of non-metallic duct is designated to convey conditioned air?

0

1

2

3

303

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the UL 181, nonmetallic ducts shall be

constructed with ____ duct material.

Class 0 or Class 3

Class I or Class 2

Class 2 or Class 5

Class 0 or Class I

304

A.

B.

C.

D.


Class 0 duct shall have a flame spread rating not to exceed:

0

25

50

75

305

A.

B.

C.

D.


What must be done to ducts installed in the ground?

embedded in 2" of 200 PSI or less concrete

tested for water leaks at 3 PSI per hour

embedded in 3" of light weight concrete

joints tightly sealed

306

A.

B.

C.

D.


How are joints in ducts made air tight?

use of ductmate flanges

tape, mastic, gasketing

silicone sealant

companion angle rings

307

A.

B.

C.

D.




Before the concrete encasement can be pored all ducts

must be ____.

tested

inspected by the code official

secured and sealed

sloped to allow for proper drainage

308

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 603.8.2

In accordance with the ASTM D 2412, plastic ducts are constructed of ____.

metal

fibrous glass

gypsum

PVC

309

A.

B.

C.

D.


Air ducts are being installed for a central air conditioner. Supply air ducts run through a ventilated

attic in Heating Zone I. All of the following

insulations may be used except:

1 1/2 " mineral fiber or glass blanket

1" mineral fiber or glass blanket

vapor barrier with PERM Rating of 1.5

1 1/2 " mineral board

310

A.

B.

C.

D.




What maximum flame spread rating is allowed for

insulation jacketing?

75

50

25

100

311

A.

B.

C.

D.


Exposed materials used inside a duct system shall have what maximum flame spread rating?

75

50

25

100

312

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Mechanical Code, central heating and air-conditioning systems shall be

equipped with:

I. air filters II. Air filters installed din the return air side

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

313

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Mechanical Code,

ductwork shall connect to fire damper sleeves so that a collapse of the duct system during a fire:

will not impair the sleeve connection

will not dislodge the hangers

will not impair the damper operation

will maintain the bolted connection

314

A.

B.

C.

D.


Which of the following is not one of the purposes of the combustion air ducts provided to an appliance?

provides draft dilution air

provides ventilation air for the equipment

provides exhaust in case of a gas leak

provides air for fuel combustion

315

A.

B.

C.

D.


When combustion air vents are terminated in a vented attic space, the attic shall have a clear vertical height

of no less than ___ inches.

15

20

25

30

316

A.

B.

C.

D.




Combustion air for gas appliances shall not be taken

from ____.

an attic

a refrigeration machinery room

a crawl space

an appliance enclosure

317

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Mechanical Code, a warm air furnaces' combustion air supply may NOT be

taken from:

communicating residence air

attic

outside air shaft

a well ventilated refrigeration machinery room

318

A.

B.

C.

D.


Combustion air must be delivered to a mechanical room and divided equally to the lower?

8"

10"

12"

6"

319

A.

B.

C.

D.




In a building of unusually tight construction, an

appliance is to be installed in an unconfined space. Combustion air to supply the appliance shall be taken

directly from the outdoors through 2 openings. Each

opening shall have a minimum free area for all appliances requiring combustion air of one square inch

per:

1000 BTUH

5000 BTUH

2000 BTUH

4000 BTUH

320

A.

B.

C.

D.


Combustion air vents for a gas fired 25,000 btu/per

hour appliance will terminate in the attic. The attic

space communicates directly with the outdoors. What

minimum diameter vertical vents are required? (If between sizes, go to larger size.)

6"

7"

8"

9"

321

A.

B.

C.

D.


A boiler room of tight construction contains three

boilers: 2 rated at 1,000,000 BTU each, and one rated

at 500,000 BTU. The minimum required area for combustion air is ____square inches. (NOTE:

Combustion air taken exclusively from outdoors and

meets Condition 1)

3000

2500

2000

1500

322

A.

B.

C.

D.




When an opening or duct is required to supply fresh

air to a gas fired water heater, the smallest dimension shall be at least:

2

3

4

5

323

A.

B.

C.

D.


In a single family dwelling, an unobstructed stud space may be used as a combustion air duct provided no

more than ___ fire stops are removed.

4

3

2

1

324

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 709.1 (1) exception

According to the International Mechanical Code, combustion air ducts for heat producing appliances

shall not be installed in a location that requires the use

of____ except when electrically interlocked with the

firing cycle of the appliance.

manual dampers

fire dampers

volume dampers

sheet metal screws

325

A.

B.

C.

D.




What is the minimum distance at "A"?

1'

2'

3'

4'

326

A.

B.

C.

D.


A Type B gas vent must terminate not less than ___

above any vertically extended portion of a building when it is within 10' of the vertical portion.

1'

2'

3'

4'

327

A.

B.

C.

D.


A listed residential water heater with a draft hood has a chimney connector made of single wall metal pipe.

What minimum clearance is required between the

connector and any unprotected combustible material?

9"

3"

6"

12"

328

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 803.10.4 Table



Where is the water discharge line from a cooling tower

required to be piped?

to an open type expansion tank

into the supply side of a water softener

into a boiler feedwater system

to an approved disposal system

329

A.

B.

C.

D.


What minimum clearance is required between a swinging door and a vented wall furnace?

8"

6"

4"

2"

330

A.

B.

C.

D.


A furnace located under the floor shall have a clearance of ____ from the ground?

6"

10"

12"

3"

331

A.

B.

C.

D.




A floor furnace shall not be installed:

using lag bolts supported by floor joists

on concrete slab on grade

with a 2" clearance to the ground when sealed by the manufacturer

with a 12" clearance to an inside corner from the outlet register or grille

332

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to IMC, a sauna room is to have a ventilation opening near the top of the door not less

than:

3" x 6"

4" x 8"

5" x 10"

5" x 12"

333

A.

B.

C.

D.


A blower type warm air furnace must have its air supply duct sized according to BTUH output rating of

the furnace. What minimum unobstructed cross

sectional supply duct area is required for a 180,000

BTUH furnace?

360 sq. inches

720 sq. inches

240 sq. inches

180 sq. inches

334

A.

B.

C.

D.




The minimum unobstructed total area of supply duct

from a forced warm air furnace shall not be less than ____" per 1000 Btuh output rating of the furnace.1

1

2

3

4

335

A.

B.

C.

D.


From which of the following places is return air prohibited?

a dining area

a tool room

a closet

none of these

336

A.

B.

C.

D.


When is the return air from one apartment unit permitted to mix with the return air from another

apartment?

with permission of the administrative

authority

when the apartment building is multi-floor

when apartments are separated by a fire wall

not permitted

337

A.

B.

C.

D.




What minimum return vent opening is required for a

120,000 BTUH upflow warm air furnace in a residence?

240 square inches

840 square inches

480 square inches

720 square inches

338

A.

B.

C.

D.


Water heaters used for both potable water and space heating shall be limited to a maximum temperature of:

120 degrees F

130 degrees F

140 degrees F

150 degrees F

339

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1002.2.1

What is the minimum clearance for a residential gas boiler from the sides & back?

12"

14"

16'

18"

340

A.

B.

C.

D.




The controls have been set for a new hot water boiler

and it has passed its operational test. A set of operating instructions has been given to the new

owner. The Code also requires the installer to give the

new owner:

warranty

pressure test results

control wiring diagram

inspection notice

341

A.

B.

C.

D.


When a natural gas fired low pressure boiler has a low water condition and the burner is operating, the

________ shuts off gas to the burner.

manual reset valve

main gas solenoid

zero reducing governor

vapor stat

342

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to Code, open type expansion tanks for hot water heating systems shall have an overflow pipe

with a minimum diameter of:

1"

1 1/4"

1 1/2"

2"

343

A.

B.

C.

D.




The pressure test gauge used for testing a boiler or

pressure vessel shall be graduated over a range of:I. Not less than 1 1/2 times maximum test pressure

II. Not more than 4 times maximum test pressure

I only

II only

both I and II

either I or II

344

A.

B.

C.

D.


What minimum clear height is required in a refrigeration machinery room?

7'- 2"

6'- 2"

6'- 4"

6'- 8"

345

A.

B.

C.

D.


Refrigeration machinery rooms shall contain a refrigerant detector with:

I. An audible alarm

II. A visual alarm

I only

II only

both I and II

either I or II

346

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to the International Mechanical Code, the

frequency for the air to be changed in a room that houses a refrigeration condensing unit is:

every 30 minutes

not less than .5 cfm per square foot

25 cfm per person in the room

.25 cfm per aggregate tons of refrigeration in

the room

347

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1105.8.3

A refrigeration room for ammonia shall be equipped with a detector that will energize the ventilation

system when the room reaches ___ ppm saturation of

ammonia.

1000

1500

2000

2500

348

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1106.3.1

What is the maximum nominal size soft drawn copper tubing that may be used for lines on a refrigeration

system?

7/8"

3/4"

5/8"

1/2"

349

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1107.4.3



What is required to be installed at each refrigerant

piping outlet from a receiver?

stop valve

pressure relief valve

pressure limiting device

check valve

350

A.

B.

C.

D.


What type of material should not be used in a low pressure steam or hot water system?

brass tubing

wrought iron

galvanized pipe

aluminum tubing

351

A.

B.

C.

D.


A metal sleeve is installed through an interior wall to hold high temperature water pipes. The pipes shall be

insulated with:

the same thickness as the insulation required

for the other sections of exposed pipe

1/2 the thickness of the required insulation of

the other sections of the exposed pipe

twice the thickness of the required insulation on the exposed suspended pipes

at least 1/2 the thickness of the sleeve minus the nominal pipe size

352

A.

B.

C.

D.




Which of the following codes has been adopted as the

Mechanical Code for Oklahoma?

UMC

IMC

1997 UMC

1997 IPC

353

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the International Mechanical Code, if an appliance has been designed for a certain type of fuel

in which it will be connected to, before it can be

converted from the specified fuel listed on the rating

plate for use with a different fuel, the code official must give reapproval.

True

False

354

A.

B.

C.

D.


Exposed fuel gas piping other than black steel pipe shall be:

I. Identified by a black label marked "GAS"

in yellow letters II. Spaced at intervals not less then "5' "

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

355

A.

B.

C.

D.




To calculate CFH of gas required for an appliance,

divide the maximum Btuh input of the appliance by:

1000 Btuh per cubic foot

the average Btuh per cubic foot value supplied

1150 Btuh per cubic foot

the minimum Btuh per cubic foot value

supplied

356

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1302.2.1

According to the IMC, the demand for a domestic clothes dryer is:

35,000 Btuh

45,000 Btuh

50,000 Btuh

55,000 Btuh

357

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1302.3 Table

According to the IMC, an emergency steam boiler of 50 horsepower, would have a demand factor of:

50,000 Btuh

250,000 Btuh

1,500,000 Btuh

2,500,000 Btuh

358

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1302.3 Table



A plastic pipe gas piping system has been installed.

The developed length of the system is 27'. The total demand of the system is 375,000 Btuh. What is the

minimum allowable size for the yardline?

5/8"

7/8"

1 1/8"

1 1/4"

359

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1302.5 (4)

The common gas supply line to a multiple family dwelling unit is permitted to be sized for a percentage

of the total gas demand. The gas demand for heating

equipment for each dwelling unit shall be multiplied

by ____ and added to the demand value of the common pipe system.

120%

110%

100%

90%

360

A.

B.

C.

D.


An apartment complex of 40 units contains gas ranges

and water heaters. What multiplier is used to find the

derated connected load?

.21

.22

.23

.24

361

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1302.9 Table



An apartment complex of 50 units will have the

following appliances in each unit:

gas ranges free standing

30 gallon water heater

What is the total connected load?

1,850,000

950,000

4,750,000

3,350,000

362

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1302.9 Table

A length of malleable black pipe which has been

previously used in a portable water system is found on

the truck and is just the right length for the last

segment of a natural gas piping system. Since the length of pipe is less than 10', the pipe is installed and

put under pressure for testing. The pipe system has

passed the test. What code section does this installation violate?

G103.10

312.3

312.9

G103.8

363

A.

B.

C.

D.


Joints between differing pipe materials shall be:

stainless steel adaptors

approved adaptor fittings

brass couplings

schedule 80 PVC

364

A.

B.

C.

D.




Which of the following methods shall be used to join

PE or PB piping?

compression fittings

insert fittings

solvent weld

heat fuse

365

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1303.17.2

All pipe which has been cut for use in a fuel gas piping system shall:

I. Be cut square with the pipe

II. Reamed to full bore

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

366

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IMC, a 120' length black malleable pipe carrying 46,000 Btuh of gas demand shall have

____ threads cut on the pipe at each fitting or joint.

8

10

12

13

367

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B IMC 2003 1303.23.2



Joint compound used for fuel gas piping systems shall:

I. Be applied to mail threads only II Be resistant to action of fuel gas.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

368

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1303.3.3

Gas piping inside any building shall not be run in all of the following locations except:

air duct

chimney

elevator shaft

concealed chase

369

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IMC, the minimum bury depth for an underground gas piping system is:

12"

14"

16"

18"

370

A.

B.

C.

D.




A tracer wire for underground plastic gas piping shall:

I. Have green insulationII. Not be less than 20 awg

III. Suitable for direct burial

I only

II only

III only

None of these

371

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1304.17.1

When testing for tightness in a fuel gas piping system all of the following except ____ are permitted.

air

oxygen

nitrogen

argon

372

A.

B.

C.

D.


When gas piping is installed through wood studs and is less than 1 1/4" from the nearest edge of the stud,

the point of passage shall be protected with a face

plate not less than ____.

1/32

1/16

3/32

1/8

373

A.

B.

C.

D.




Gas piping shall not be installed in:

solid floors

2 x 10 floor joists

concealed walls

attics

374

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1305.2.1

The installation of gas piping is a trench containing

water piping is:

prohibited

encouraged

permitted with administrative authority

approval

permitted when 12" separation is maintained

375

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1305.2.1

Each gas meter shall have its own shut off valve located:

up stream of the meter

downstream of the meter

near the building entrance

within 2' of the building entrance

376

A.

B.

C.

D.




A shut off valve shall be installed for each appliance.

Each shut off valve shall:I. Be in the same room as the appliance.

II. Be within 3" of the appliance.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

377

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IMC, the maximum distance between horizontal supports for 1 1/4" schedule 40

black pipe is:

8'

10'

12'

14'

378

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to the IMC, and disregarding exceptions, the maximum length of an appliance fuel connector

shall be:

3'

4'

5'

6'

379

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A IMC 2003 1309.1.2



According to the IMC, the maximum length of a fuel

connector to a dryer is:

3'

4'

5'

6'

380

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D IMC 2003 1309.1.2

According to the IMC, a 1' long semi rigid connector of 3/8" OD can carry ____ Btuh.

25,000

35,000

40,000

50,000

381

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C IMC 2003 1309.1.2 (1)

Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in ACCA manual "D". The minimum standard duct size

required to supply outlet #3 is ____ inch diameter.

5

4

3

6

382

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual D



Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in

ACCA manual "D". The total effective length of the duct supplying outlet #5 is ____ feet.

53

30

48

18

383

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual D

Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in ACCA manual "D". The minimum standard round

duct size required to supply outlet "D".

384

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual D

Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in ACCA manual "D". The minimum standard round

duct size required to supply outlet # 4 is ____ inch

diameter.

4

3

6

7

385

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual D



Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in

ACCA manual "D". To achieve a 45 degree F temperature rise across the heat exchanger, a furnace

blower needs to deliver ____ of air.

1600 CFM

1350 CFM

930 CFM

1870 CFM

386

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual D

Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in ACCA manual "D". The branch design static pressure

for outlet 10 during heating is:

.65" WG per 100'

.55" WG per 100'

.6" WG per 100'

.5" WG per 100'

387

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual D

Refer to the whole house drawing and floor plan in ACCA manual "D". The total respective length of the

duct supplying outlet # 4 is ____ feet.

13

38

70

83

388

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual D



The maximum air velocity through a rigid walled

branch duct on the return side of an HVAC system is recommended to be ____ FPM.

500

400

600

700

389

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual D

Refer to the branch duct drawing. The branch plenum velocity factor at point "A" in the diagram is equal to

____ of equivalent length.

cannot tell from the diagram

20'

30'

10'

390

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual D 4-2

Heat loss calculations for buildings slab on grade according to Manual J the heat loss near the edge will

be greater than near the center. A perimeter system

will affect the change in temperature.

True

False

391

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A MANUAL J



What are the annual heating degree days in San

Antonio, TX?

2220

2837

1560

3456

392

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C MANUAL J

What are the annual heating degree days in San Antonio, TX?

2220

2837

1560

3456

393

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C MANUAL J

An 8" sand and gravel concrete block has an overall R-value of approximately ____.

.11

1.11

4.6

10.1

394

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J



An 8" sand and gravel concrete block has an overall R-

value of approximately ____.

.11

1.11

4.6

10.1

395

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Refer to drawing MJ-HC-G. Use ACCA Manual J for calculations. Excluding duct loss, the total design

heating load for this house is ____ Btuh.

30,001-35,000

under 30,000

35,001-40,000

over 40,000

396

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Manual J should not be used to estimate heating and cooling loads for all of the following except:

residential designs which include solariums

and atriums

residential designs which include five or more bedrooms

residential designs which include hot tubs or

swimming pools

residential designs which include passive or

active solar construction

397

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J



Sizing of furnaces, air-conditioning equipment, fan,

and ductwork is selected using:

the number of rooms in a structure

the number of persons occupying the dwelling

load calculation for the entire structure

the load calculations of the occupied areas

398

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

Sizing of furnaces, air-conditioning equipment, fan, and ductwork is selected using:

the number of rooms in a structure

the number of persons occupying the dwelling

load calculation for the entire structure

the load calculations of the occupied areas

399

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

When heating/cooling equipment is oversized:I. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes up.

II. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes down.

III. Operating cost go up; efficiency goes down; system

control goes down.

I only

II only

III only

Neither I nor II nor III

400

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J



When heating/cooling equipment is oversized:

I. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes up.II. Operating costs go down & efficiency goes down.

III. Operating cost go up; efficiency goes down; system

control goes down.

I only

II only

III only

Neither I nor II nor III

401

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

Undersizing residential equipment:I. Will provide comfort even in extreme weather

conditions.

II. Is not generally preferred to oversizing equipment.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

402

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J

Undersizing residential equipment:

I. Will provide comfort even in extreme weather

conditions.

II. Is not generally preferred to oversizing equipment.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

403

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J



Maximum heat loss in a residence occurs:

in January

on overcast days

during hours of precipitation

just before sunrise

404

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J

Maximum heat loss in a residence occurs:

in January

on overcast days

during hours of precipitation

just before sunrise

405

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J

Outside design temperature is:

I. Not the lowest temperature experienced in a locality.II. The winter temperature experienced in a locality

under average winter weather.

I only

II only

Either I or II

Both I and II

406

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J



Outside design temperature is:

I. Not the lowest temperature experienced in a locality.II. The winter temperature experienced in a locality

under average winter weather.

I only

II only

Either I or II

Both I and II

407

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J

According to Manual J, Table 1, the outside design temperature for 97 1/2 % dry bulb value for Amarillo

TX is:

35 degrees F

11 degrees F

27 degrees F

34 degrees F

408

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

According to Manual J, Table 1, the outside design temperature for 97 1/2 % dry bulb value for Amarillo

TX is:

35 degrees F

11 degrees F

27 degrees F

34 degrees F

409

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J



According to Manual J, the design temperature

difference (TD) is calculated:

by multiplying the outside design temperature by 97 1/2%

by multiplying the indoor design temperature by 97 1/2%

by subtracting the indoor design temperature

from the outdoor design temperature

by subtracting the outdoor design temperature

from the indoor design temperature

410

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J

According to Manual J, the design temperature difference (TD) is calculated:

by multiplying the outside design temperature

by 97 1/2%

by multiplying the indoor design temperature

by 97 1/2%

by subtracting the indoor design temperature from the outdoor design temperature

by subtracting the outdoor design temperature

from the indoor design temperature

411

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J

According to Manual J, the recommended indoor

design temperature to be used in heat loss calculations

is:

68 degrees F

70 degrees F

72 degrees F

80 degrees F

412

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J



According to Manual J, the recommended indoor

design temperature to be used in heat loss calculations is:

68 degrees F

70 degrees F

72 degrees F

80 degrees F

413

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Building losses, according to Manual J, are losses associated with:

building envelop

losses through ductwork

losses through kitchen exhaust

infiltration

414

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

Building losses, according to Manual J, are losses associated with:

building envelop

losses through ductwork

losses through kitchen exhaust

infiltration

415

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J



Conductive losses through glass windows, solid doors

and walls below grade are examples of:I. Building losses.

II. System losses.

I only

II only

Both I & II

Neither I nor II

416

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

Conductive losses through glass windows, solid doors and walls below grade are examples of:

I. Building losses.

II. System losses.

I only

II only

Both I & II

Neither I nor II

417

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

Heat loss in ductwork passing through an unheated space, ventilation air heated prior to space

introduction and bathroom exhaust which increases

infiltration are examples of :I. Building losses.

II. System losses.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

418

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J



Heat loss in ductwork passing through an unheated

space, ventilation air heated prior to space introduction and bathroom exhaust which increases

infiltration are examples of :

I. Building losses.II. System losses.

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

419

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Heat loss through a slab on grade floor and combustion air requirements in an older home being

met by infiltration are examples of:

I. Building losses.II. System losses.

I only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

420

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

Heat loss through a slab on grade floor and

combustion air requirements in an older home being

met by infiltration are examples of:I. Building losses.

II. System losses.

I only

II Only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

421

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J



When a garage is to be heated, the preferred system to

be used is:

zonal

central

baseboard

solar

422

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

When a garage is to be heated, the preferred system to be used is:

zonal

central

baseboard

solar

423

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

Which of the following best describes window 6?

casement

jalousie

sliding

basement

424

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Which of the following best describes window 6?

casement

jalousie

sliding

basement

425

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J



Which of the following does not enter into the loss

calculation of a window or door?

glazing

material

color

size

426

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

Which of the following does not enter into the loss calculation of a window or door?

glazing

material

color

size

427

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

Storm windows and storm doors:I. Reduce infiltration losses

II. Reduce transmission losses

I only

II only

Both I and Ii

Either I or II

428

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J



Storm windows and storm doors:

I. Reduce infiltration lossesII. Reduce transmission losses

I only

II only

Both I and Ii

Either I or II

429

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

The formula:Q= 1.1 x CFM x TD

can be used to calculate:

I. Heat loss due to infiltration

II. Heat loss due to ventilation air

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

430

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J

The formula:Q= 1.1 x CFM x TD

can be used to calculate:

I. Heat loss due to infiltrationII. Heat loss due to ventilation air

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

431

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J



Given: Supply air duct is encased in concrete below a

slab which has edge insulation with an R-valve of 6. If the supply air is below 120 degrees F, what is the

duct loss multiplier when the winter design

temperature is 16 degrees F?

.04

.05

.06

.07

432

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Given: Supply air duct is encased in concrete below a slab which has edge insulation with an R-valve of 6.

If the supply air is below 120 degrees F, what is the

duct loss multiplier when the winter design temperature is 16 degrees F?

.04

.05

.06

.07

433

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J

Given: OAT 10 degree; supply air temperature inside

duct is 122 degrees F; duct location is attic; duct

insulation is R2. What is the duct loss multiplier?

.2

.25

.3

.35

434

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J



Given: OAT 10 degree; supply air temperature inside

duct is 122 degrees F; duct location is attic; duct insulation is R2. What is the duct loss multiplier?

.2

.25

.3

.35

435

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

According to Manual J, ducts installed in attics and garages should be insulated:

I. With a recommended R6 insulation.

II. With a minimum of R4 insulation.

I only

II only

Either I or II

Neither I nor II

436

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J

According to Manual J, ducts installed in attics and garages should be insulated:

I. With a recommended R6 insulation.

II. With a minimum of R4 insulation.

I only

II only

Either I or II

Neither I nor II

437

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J



Given: A frame wall with brick veneer, gypsum board

and 12-13 insulation has an area of 260 square feet. The indoor design temperature is 72 degrees F and the

outside design temperature is 15 degrees F. What is

the heat loss through this section of wall?

1040 Btuh

1144 Btuh

1248 Btuh

1352 Btuh

438

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J and Table 2 (12-D)

Multiply the area of the wall by the HTM in table 2. NOTE: The TD was in between 55 & 60 degrees F. the

HTM for this problem is then found in the 60 degree column, or 4.8. 4.8 x 260=1248

Given: A frame wall with brick veneer, gypsum board and 12-13 insulation has an area of 260 square feet.

The indoor design temperature is 72 degrees F and the

outside design temperature is 15 degrees F. What is the heat loss through this section of wall?

1040 Btuh

1144 Btuh

1248 Btuh

1352 Btuh

439

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J and Table 2 (12-D)

Multiply the area of the wall by the HTM in table 2. NOTE: The TD was in between 55 & 60 degrees F. the

HTM for this problem is then found in the 60 degree column, or 4.8. 4.8 x 260=1248

Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J for

calculations. Excluding infiltration, ventilation, and

duct loss the heat loss for this house is ____ Btuh.

over 25,000

15,001-20,000

20,001-25,000

under 15,000

440

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 1-1 and Figure 3-

3

Refer to line 12 of Figure 3-3. The infiltration load is 15,673 Btuh. Line 15 shows the total Btuh for the house

is 47,808 Btuh. There are no vetilation or duct losses therefore the heat loss for this house is the difference

betwee 47,808 - 15,673.




calculations. Excluding infiltration, ventilation, and duct loss the heat loss for this house is ____ Btuh.

over 25,000

15,001-20,000

20,001-25,000

under 15,000

441

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 1-1 and Figure 3-3

Refer to line 12 of Figure 3-3. The infiltration load is

15,673 Btuh. Line 15 shows the total Btuh for the house is 47,808 Btuh. There are no vetilation or duct losses

therefore the heat loss for this house is the difference betwee 47,808 - 15,673.

Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J for calculations. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss

through the floor for this house is ____ Btuh.

under 1,000

1,001-1,750

1,751-2,500

over 2,500

442

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-10 and

Figure 3-3


calculations. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss

through the floor for this house is ____ Btuh.

under 1,000

1,001-1,750

1,751-2,500

over 2,500

443

A.

B.

C.

D.


Figure 3-3



Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J

for calculations. The winter infiltration load for this house is ____ Btuh.

under 20,000

20,001-23,000

23,001-26,000

over 26,000

444

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-14 and Figure 3-3

Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J for calculations. The winter infiltration load for this

house is ____ Btuh.

under 20,000

20,001-23,000

23,001-26,000

over 26,000

445

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-14 and

Figure 3-3

Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J for calculations. The ventilation heating load for this

house is ____ Btuh.

over 3400

1801-2600

2601-3400

under 1800

446

A.

B.

C.

D.


Figure 3-3



Refer to Manual J Figure 1-1. Use ACCA Manual J

for calculations. The ventilation heating load for this house is ____ Btuh.

over 3400

1801-2600

2601-3400

under 1800

447

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-15 and Figure 3-3


for the ceiling is ____ Btuh.

6,001-7,000

5,001-6,000

under 5,000

over 7,000

448

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-9 and

Figure 3-3


for the ceiling is ____ Btuh.

6,001-7,000

5,001-6,000

under 5,000

over 7,000

449

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J Figure 1-1, 2-9 and

Figure 3-3



Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to Figure 3-

1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through the windows for this house is ____ Btuh.

under 500

501-1,000

4,001-4,500

over 6,500

450

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line 6

Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to Figure 3-1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through the

windows for this house is ____ Btuh.

under 500

501-1,000

4,001-4,500

over 6,500

451

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line

6

Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to Figure 3-1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through walls

for this house is ____ Btuh.

over 15,000

6001-8,000

8,001-10,000

under 6,000

452

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line

9



Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to Figure 3-

1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through walls for this house is ____ Btuh.

over 15,000

6001-8,000

8,001-10,000

under 6,000

453

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and 3-3 Line 9

Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to figure 3-1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through the

front door for this house is ____ Btuh.

501-700

under 500

701-900

over 900

454

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and Figure 3-

3 line 6

Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to figure 3-1. Excluding infiltration, the heat loss through the

front door for this house is ____ Btuh.

501-700

under 500

701-900

over 900

455

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual J Figure 3-1 and Figure 3-

3 line 6



Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to figure 3-

3. The winter HTM for the exposed walls is _____.

between 60 and 80

between 25 and 50

less than 20

over 100

456

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 3-3 line 9

Use ACCA Manual J for calculations, refer to figure 3-3. The winter HTM for the exposed walls is _____.

between 60 and 80

between 25 and 50

less than 20

over 100

457

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J Figure 3-3 line 9

Given: A ceiling with an R-19 rating is below a vented attic. The outside design temperature is 10 degrees F

and the indoor design temperature is 70 degrees F.

What is the HTM?

5.3

3.4

3.2

2.9

458

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J Table 2 (16-D)



Given: A ceiling with an R-19 rating is below a vented

attic. The outside design temperature is 10 degrees F and the indoor design temperature is 70 degrees F.

What is the HTM?

5.3

3.4

3.2

2.9

459

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual J Table 2 (16-D)

Given: A sliding glass door, double pane with low "e" glass, metal frame, 6'-0" x 6'-8" dimension is installed

in a location that has a winter "TD" across the glass of

65 degrees F. What is the heat loss or Q for this door?

1242.18

1405.26

1260.72

1358.64

460

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J Table 2 (8R)

the area of the sliding glass door is found by multiplying

6 x 6.7=42.2 square feet. The HTM (heat transmission multiplier) is 30.9 (from table 2). 42.2 x 30.9= 1242.18

Btuh

Given: A sliding glass door, double pane with low "e"

glass, metal frame, 6'-0" x 6'-8" dimension is installed

in a location that has a winter "TD" across the glass of

65 degrees F. What is the heat loss or Q for this door?

1242.18

1405.26

1260.72

1358.64

461

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J Table 2 (8R)

the area of the sliding glass door is found by multiplying 6 x 6.7=42.2 square feet. The HTM (heat transmission

multiplier) is 30.9 (from table 2). 42.2 x 30.9= 1242.18 Btuh



According to Manual J, a dwelling of 1600 square feet

of average construction and 3 fire places would have ____ winter air changes per hour, due to infiltration.

1.6

1.4

1.3

1.0

462

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J table 5

According to Manual J, a dwelling of 1600 square feet of average construction and 3 fire places would have

____ winter air changes per hour, due to infiltration.

1.6

1.4

1.3

1.0

463

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual J table 5

What do you compare when you do your heat loss calculation?

highest day temp to lowest day temp

highest summer temp to lowest winter temp

indoor to outdoor temp

highest winter time temperature to lowest

winter time temperature

464

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual N



Heat transfer through walls below grade and a

concrete slab is not a factor in a cooling load.

True

False

465

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A MANUAL N

According to Manual N:I. Building orientation is important for cooling load

consideration

II. Building orientation is important for heat load

calculations

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

466

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual N

According to Manual N, occupancy analysis for a retail establishment would include all of the following

except:

Christmas season traffic

summer month activity

Easter season traffic

restaurant evening patrons

467

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual N



All of the following effect a building's heat loss and

heat gain except:

construction details

physical dimensions

lighting

restroom facilities

468

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual N

According to Manual N, table 1 values are for ____ in July and August.

3 pm

3 am

6 pm

6 am

469

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual N

According to Manual N, outside design temperature for calculating heating loads are taken from the

ASHRAE weather data. These temperatures will be

exceeded for ____ % the winter heating hours.

2 1/2%

97 1/2%

2 %

98%

470

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual N



Indoor comfort heating temperatures should be

designed:

between 68 degrees F and 77 degrees F

between 20% RH and 55% RH

to prevent frosting on eaves

to prevent condensation on glass

471

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual N

In door comfort cooling design temperatures should:

consider temperature, humidity and air velocity

consider temperature, activity and humidity

consider air velocity, humidity and solar

radiation

consider solar radiation, activity, humidity

472

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual N

Solar gain in a facility is affected by all of the following except:

amount of radiation incident on the glass

thermal storage of the buildings materials

type of glass

the area of the glass

473

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual N



What is the solar heat gain of a clear (1/8") glass panel

3' x 4' in an office building of medium construction located 48 degrees north latitude at 6 pm. Consider no

shading.

196 Btuh

312 Btuh

336 Btuh

300 Btuh

474

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual N

The heat which is radiated through glass must be

included in the cooling load calculation. The radiatin gain can be calculated by the following formula.

Q = SHGF x SF x AQ = Solar heat gain for glass (Btuh)

SHGF = Solar Heat Gain Factor from Table 2 (Btuh/sq. ft.)

A = Area (sq. ft.) glass areaSHGH = 26 (for medium construction at 48 degrees

north latitude at 6 pm. See table 2A on pg. 63)SF = 1.00 (clear, see table 3 on pg. 65)

A = 3' x 4' = 12 sq. ft.Q = 26 x 1.00 x 12 = 312

Heat that is transmitted through glass must be:

I. Included in the heat loss calculationII. Included in the heat gain calculation

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

475

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual N

U-values for a building material:

I. Is the overall heat transmission coefficientII. Are the same for both heating and cooling

I only

II only

Bother I and II

Neither I nor II

476

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual N



Heat gain from sources inside a building must be

calculated from all of the following except:

motors

people

furniture

appliances

477

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Manual N

According to Manual N, the design CFM for ventilation is determined by:

I. Addition of the fresh air requirement to the return

air loading

II either the fresh air requirement or the make-up air requirement

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

478

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual N

According to Manual N, which of the following statements are true:

I. Dehumidification occurs when air is cooled at or

above its dew point temperatureII. Humidification occurs when water is evaporated

into an air stream requiring approximately 1040 Btu

per pound of water

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I nor II

479

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual N



According to Manual N, heat gain and heat loss

through ductwork located in an conditioned spaces:

can be ignored

can be appreciable

is negligible

can be calculated before duct is designed

480

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual N

According to Manual N, the outdoor summer design wet bulb temperature for Greensboro NC, is:

91

73

23

72

481

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Manual N

According to Manual N, the u-value of 4" block wall construction with exterior siding is: (assume no

insulation and sand and gravel mortar)

.182

.169

.159

.286

482

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Manual N



A bridge construction is particularly hazardous, not

well-defined, and a train of cars will have to weave back and forth between one, two or more lanes.

Which is the best method of traffic control to use when

cars and trucks have to weave in and out of different lanes during a bridge construction that is particularly

hazardous.

Official flag car

Flagger control people

construction barrels

Pilot car

483

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Manual of Uniform Traffic

Control Devices 6C-5 c

What is a thermocouple ?

a safety device that generates electricity

several thermal expansion valves

a safety device

limit switch

484

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning

The pressure in an evaporator containing R-22

refrigerant is 60 PSIA. What is the saturated

temperature of the refrigerant?

45

34

53

29

485

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning



Where is the TXV located in the refrigeration system?

between the condenser & compressor

between the high pressure side and the low pressure side - OUTLET SIDE OF THE

EVAPORATOR

between the evaporator & compressor

on the discharge side of the compressor

486

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning

The most likely reason for a high pitched noise from a floor register is:

air hitting sharp metal edges

air velocity at the register is too low

a burr in the duct

restriction in the register fitting

487

A.

B.

C.

D.


Which of the following types of solar collectors are the most popular in the United States?

ethylene glycol

caustic soda

drain down

passive

488

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning



When is it recommended to charge a refrigeration

system from the high side?

before starting the compressor

after starting the compressor

upon initial start up

not recommended

489

A.

B.

C.

D.


A gas furnace has a yellow flame. Which of the following is true?

I. Could be caused by lack of primary air

II. Reset secondary air port and check flame color

I only

II only

both I and II

neither I nor II

490

A.

B.

C.

D.


What indicates a lack of refrigerant in a TEV

installation?

unit shuts down

sight glass is clear

there is a knocking sound at the refrigerant

control

there is frost or sweat at the outlet of the

evaporator to the sensing bulb of the TEV

491

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



When the specific ventilation requirement for a

building is not known, it is best to size the ventilation system based on ____ CFM per square foot of floor

area.

1

2

3

4

492

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

What is the purpose of the access valve on a filter dryer?

change the core

allows the addition of refrigerant

adjust the pressure

allows the service tech to check the pressure

drop

493

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning

A solar water heating system uses a device to mix the

solar heated water with the cold water supply. This is

called:

mixing valve

tempering valve

motorized valve

flow control valve

494

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning



Superheat is heat added to a refrigerant ____.

in raising water temperature

after all the liquid has been changed to a vapor

in changing a liquid to a vapor

to increase pressure

495

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

What instrument is used to test the strength of a brine solution?

tachometer

barometer

hydrometer

anemometer

496

A.

B.

C.

D.


Which of the following refrigerants are possible replacements for R-12 and R-11?

123 and 501

134a and 501

134a and 123

R-22

497

A.

B.

C.

D.




A 330 Kw electric heater will produce approximately

____.

1,102,390 Btu's an hour

1,023 Btu's an hour

204,780 Btu's an hour

2,457 Btu's an hour

498

A.

B.

C.

D.


Solution: 330 KW = 333,000 watts

The term ___ indicates that portion of the refrigerant which evaporates instantly as it passes through the

refrigerant control orifice.

superheat

subcooling

flash gas

out gassing

499

A.

B.

C.

D.


In a refrigeration system, the function of the condenser is to ____ the refrigerant has absorbed in the

evaporator.

absorb heat into

dissipate heat from

control

pump

500

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



What is the name of the refrigerant system that has

two compressors with the discharge of one compressor going into the suction of the second compressor.

secondary

parallel

compound

cascade

501

A.

B.

C.

D.


A refrigeration system has two compressors connected so they will operate at the same time. The evaporator

of the first system cools the condenser of the second

system. This is a ____ system.

secondary

parallel

compound

cascade

502

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

When refrigerant is sub-cooled it is at a temperature

lower than its saturated temperature.

True

False

503

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



The two types of fuel that a halide leak detector can

use are:

propane & acetylene

kerosene and acetylene

propane and kerosene

acetylene and hydrogen

504

A.

B.

C.

D.


___ overload devices are the most common safety device for motor protection.

circuit breaker

bimetal switches

fuse

time-delay relay

505

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning

On a household refrigerator, the thermostat has three wires on it. Of these, one is a ground and one is the

power supply line connected to one of the thermostat

terminals. Where does the third wire go to?

the door switch

the compressor relay

the defrost timer

the mullion heater

506

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning



Of the following metering devices, which one is the

most widely used in today's household refrigerator's, freezers, air conditioners, dehumidifiers, and small

commercial applications?

high side float valve

automatic expansion valve

low side float valve

capillary tube

507

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

The simplest type of domestic refrigerator uses which of the following methods of defrosting?

off time

hot gas

resistance heaters

reverse cycle

508

A.

B.

C.

D.


Breaker strips, usually made of plastic, ___ used in a household refrigerator.

releases the ice into the hopper

connects the metal case of the freezer to the

outer shell

covers evaporator fan

moulds the cabinet hinges

509

A.

B.

C.

D.




The electrical controls in a small refrigerator operate

at ____ volts.

48

12

24

120

510

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning, the best method for joining copper

tubing in a refrigeration system to prevent leaks is:

threading

flaring

crimping

brazing

511

A.

B.

C.

D.


The velocity pressure method of measuring air velocity uses an instrument called:

pitot tube

sono tube

ohmmeter

millimeter

512

A.

B.

C.

D.




By adjusting a variable pitched pulley to make the belt

ride at the outer edge of the motor pulley instead of the shaft, the expected result would be:

fan speed decrease

fan speed increase

motor speed increase

motor speed decrease

513

A.

B.

C.

D.


When a steady low pitched rumble travels along a duct system it is usually caused by:

fan and motor misalignment or imbalance

rapid expansion and contraction of the ducts

caused by temperature fluctuations

air inside the duct is hitting sharp edges

causing a harmonic vibration

air velocity inside the duct is too high

514

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

Filter dryers used in refrigeration systems have access

valves used for:

adding refrigerant oil

recharging the system with refrigerant

reactivating the desiccant

measuring the pressure drop in the filter

515

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



To prevent refrigerant from liquefying in the

compressor crankcase and being trapped in the refrigerant oil during cold weather it is sometimes

necessary to use a ____.

crankcase heater

low pressure cutout switch

heat exchanger

suction line accumulator

516

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning, which one of the following type of

Stainless Steel is most often used when Stainless Steel

tubing is required for a dairy plant installation.

302

304

303

301

517

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

According to Modern Refrigeration and

Airconditioning, a modulating gas regulator changes

the size of the gas flame size in response to the

temperature difference between the _______.

thermostat setting and bonnet control

thermostat setting and fan control

thermostat setting and room temperature

fan control and limit switch

518

A.

B.

C.

D.





Airconditioning, a modulating gas valve used in an electronically controlled gas furnace will start the

burners at about _____ % of capacity and then adjust

the flame.

50 - 80

30 - 60

40 - 70

20 - 50

519

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning, a two-stage warm air furnace

combines two-stage heating with:

two stage air delivery

constant air circulation

variable air delivery

variable temperature delivery

520

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

Which one of the following controls is designed to

shut off the compressor to protect it from possible

overloading and overheating?

low pressure control

head pressure control

evaporative fan control

condenser fan control

521

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



Which one of the following controls is NOT normally

installed on a residential air conditioning condensing unit?

low pressure control

head pressure control

oil pressure control

condenser fan control

522

A.

B.

C.

D.


Zero gauge pressure is equal to what pressure on the absolute pressure scale?

32 PSIA

14.7 PSIA

0 PSIA

9 PSIA

523

A.

B.

C.

D.


In newer furnaces the _____ has been replaced by an electronic ignition system as an energy conservation

measure.

high limit control

gas burner control

thermocouple safety gas shut-off

pilot

524

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



How many btu's are required to lower the temperature

of 3 lbs of water 2 degrees F. ?

2 Btu

5 Btu

4 Btu

6 Btu

525

A.

B.

C.

D.


Solution: Btu = pounds of water X number of degrees F change. Btu = 3 X 2 = 6

Cleanliness of refrigerant tubing is always at the forefront of the technicians mind when cutting the

tube. To prevent contamination of the tube, the

technician should ____ before cutting the tubing.

wipe down the tubing with refrigeration oil

burn off any dirt on sludge with his torch

scrape the tubing with the reamer end of the tubing cutter to mark the end and then cut it

wipe down the tubing with rag and then clean

the tubing with emery cloth or steel wool

526

A.

B.

C.

D.



Airconditioning, the heat pump is best used for:

ventilation

heating

cooling

heating and cooling

527

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



Which of the following compounds is used by the

compressor to operate an unloader?

electro-mechanical switch

oil

natural gas

LP gas

528

A.

B.

C.

D.


Refer to the condensing unit wiring diagram. The compressor motor is "ON" when:

I. Switches 1 and 2 are closed

II. Switches 2 and 3 are closed

III. Switches 1 and 3 are closed

I only

II only

III only

both II and III

529

A.

B.

C.

D.


Of the characteristics of a desiccant, ___ would be the

LEAST desirable.

replaceable core

chemical dryer

water soluble

refrigerant tolerant

530

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



When warming a cylinder of refrigerant for charging,

___ degrees F should be considered to be the maximum temperature.

80

90

100

120

531

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to Modern Refrigeration and Air-conditioning, the minimum cooling air changes per

hour is:

3

4

5

6

532

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

According to Modern Refrigeration and Air-conditioning, when two pieces of soft copper tubing

are swaged, the overlap should be at least ____ pipe

diameters.

1/2

3/4

1

1 1/8

533

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



According to Modern Refrigeration and Air-

conditioning, ___ would be a safe radius for a tubing bend.

15 times the radius

12 times the radius

8 times the radius

you should not bend tubing

534

A.

B.

C.

D.


Use the following HVAC data to determine the round duct size to correctly handle the CFM required for

Rooms 1, 2, 5:

1. .1" friction loss per 100'

2. If sizing results in between sizes, use the next larger

10"

9"

8"

7"

535

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to "Modern Refrigeration", additional

refrigerant oil should be added to a system if the

suction and liquid lines are not more than ___ feet

long.

30

20

25

15

536

A.

B.

C.

D.




As the moisture content of the air surrounds an

electronic humidistat changes, the humidistat sensor changes its:

wattage

voltage

amperage

resistance

537

A.

B.

C.

D.


A moisture indicator is installed in an air conditioning system. How much time is required to obtain an

accurate color signal?

1 hrs

4 hrs

6 hrs

8 hrs

538

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

According to Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, refrigeration service tubing for domestic

work is made from:

I. Soft copper for domestic use II. Hard drawn for commercial use

I only

II only

both I and II

neither I nor II

539

A.

B.

C.

D.




Using the information in the picture, determine which

terminals will be wired.

Wire this thermostat only for heating, single stage, fan

operation auto run

RC, G, W

RH, G, W

RH, Y, G

Y, W, G

540

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning, the function of an external equalizing line in a in a

thermostatic expansion valve is:

compensates for any pressure loss through the

evaporator while the compressor is running

prevents excess refrigerant from entering the

evaporator

prevents liquid refrigerant from entering the

suction line

compensates for any pressure loss through the condenser while the compressor is running

541

A.

B.

C.

D.


Which of the following sources of air should be used

to replace exhausted air in a building?

make-up

return

outside

exhaust

542

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning



A modulating gas valve is used in electronically

controlled gas furnaces. It changes the burner flame in response to the temperature difference between the

thermostat setting and the room temperature.

True

False

543

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

A housing that contains a blower or fan for the purpose of distributing supply air to a room, space, or

area is called:

return air fan

exhaust fan

air handling unit

makeup air fan

544

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

In a multiple evaporator unit refrigeration system,

individual suction lines are connected to a header.

According to Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning, which of the following terms describes this installation?

cascade system

compound system

cryogenic system

manifold system

545

A.

B.

C.

D.




A shell and tube condenser may also be used as a/an:

evaporator

receiver

oil separator

oil pump

546

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

Which of the following components would be found in

an open-reciprocating type refrigeration compressor?

rotor

vane

impeller

piston

547

A.

B.

C.

D.


What type of air is brought back from the conditioned space, reconditioned, and then sent back to the

conditioned space?

make-up

outside

return

supply

548

A.

B.

C.

D.




What does a yellow pilot light on a furnace indicate?

dirty thermocouple

adjusted to produce a blue flame

unit shut-down and red-tagged

the flame OK

549

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

A variable pitch pulley is adjusted so that the belt rides

at the top edge of the motor's pulley. What will happen when the motor is turned on?

the fan speed will increase

the fan speed will decrease

the motor speed will increase

the motor speed will decrease

550

A.

B.

C.

D.


The moisture holding capacity of dessicant increases when:

head pressure decreases

at lower refrigerant temperatures

lower condensing pressures

increased refrigerant temperatures

551

A.

B.

C.

D.




An evaporative cooler is most efficient during days:

when the sky is overcast

of high humidity

of low humidity

when it is raining or storming

552

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

The compressor in the picture is:

hermetic

screw

centrifugal

open type

553

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning

How does an evaporator remove moisture from the air?

evaporation of moisture in space

humidification of space

absorption of heat in space

super heated refrigerant

554

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 1. 2

The boiling point of a liquid increases:

when its temperature is lowered

when the pressure is lowered

when more heat is added

when the pressure is increased

555

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 1.19



Heat transfer is by _______.

convection

all of these

radiation

conductivity and conductance

556

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 1.26

Heat may be transferred by means of ____.

I. Convection II. Conduction

II only

neither I or II

Both I & II

I only

557

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 1.26

If you heat one end of an iron bar, the other end is heated by ______ ?

radiation

conduction

convection

none of the these

558

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 1.26.2



Repeated bending of soft copper tubing is a sure way

too cause:

colloidal copper

annealing

work hardening

thermal quenching

559

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 2.1.1

Hard drawn copper tubing is purchased in ___ foot lengths.

10

12

20

21

560

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 2.1.1

The difference in sizes between nominal and outside diameter tubing is:

1/8"

1/16"

1/32"

1/64"

561

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 2.1.1



Type ___ copper tubing is used on flare fittings.

Type K soft drawn

Type L hard drawn

Type L soft drawn

Type K hard drawn

562

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 2.1.1

Repeated bending of soft drawn copper tubing causes:

colloidal development

annealing

work hardening

thermal quenching

563

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 2.1.1

Type ___ copper tubing should be used to flare

fittings.

Type K hard drawn

Type L hard drawn

Type K soft drawn

Type L soft drawn

564

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 2.1.1



Repeated bending of soft drawn copper tubing causes:

work hardening

annealing

colloidal development

thermal quenching

565

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 2.1.1

According to Modern Refrigeration and Air

Conditioning, before copper tubing is flared, the flaring should be:

coated with Teflon

coated with refrigeration oil

coated with melted bee's wax

wire brushed

566

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 2.3.1 (6)

What is the major difference between soldering and brazing?

the exposed surface area of the joint

The temperature at which the filler material

melts

weather or not the parent metal melts

the hardness of the filler metal

567

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 2-20



Which of the following terms describes oil at the

lowest point at which it will flow?

boil level

pour level

flash level

critical level

568

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 2-73

The device in the air located between the compression hot gas outlet and the liquid line inlet is _______ ?

evaporator

condenser

TXV

metering device

569

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 3- 7

A ___ type of refrigerating system that has two compressors with the discharge of one compressor

going to the suction of the second compressor.

cascade

compound

parallel

secondary

570

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 3.11



What is the name of the type of refrigerant system that

has two compressors with the discharge of one compressor going to the suction of the second

compressor?

secondary

cascade

parallel

compound

571

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 3.11

Of the following refrigerant controls, ___ is a metering device.

capillary tube

solenoid valve

sensing bulb

high head pressure switch

572

A.

B.

C.

D.


Compressors with cylinder unloaders should start:

unloaded

90% loaded

75% loaded

fully loaded

573

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 4.24



What is used to prevent refrigerant from liquefying in

the compressor crank case during cold weather?

low pressure cut-out switch

crankcase heater

heat exchanger


574

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 4.27

___ is used to prevent refrigerant from liquefying in the compressor crank case during cold weather.


low pressure cut-out switch

heat exchanger

crankcase heater

575

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 4.27

When liquid refrigerant passes through a metering device and suddenly changes to vapor, it is called:

liquefied gas

flash gas

solidified gas

compressed vapor

576

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to Code, a vibration isolator in an air

supply system, which is also known in the trade as a flexible connector, and, is installed between an air

handler and a duct system. The maximum length of a

vibration isolator is:

back-seating the suction service valve

front-seating the suction service valve

almost front-seating the discharge service

valve

almost front-seating the suction service valve

577

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 4.7

When a refrigeration system is charged using the low

side method, proper system charging may be speeded

up by:

back-seating the suction service valve

front-seating the suction service valve

almost front-seating the discharge service valve

almost front-seating the suction service valve

578

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 4.7

In a compression system the expansion valve is located

____

at the exit of the condenser

on the coil

at the exit of the evaporator

at the entrance of the evaporator

579

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 4-20



Which of the following is not a type of compressor

lubrication?

pressure system

splash

injector

force feed

580

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 4-53

___ would only be seen in a cross charged thermostatic expansion valve.

vapor & moisture

liquid & vapor

moisture & oil

wax & vapor

581

A.

B.

C.

D.


What does a thermostatic expansion valve that is cross charged contain?

liquid and gas

water and air

fluid different from the refrigerant in the

system

a thermal electric device used to sense the

temperature

582

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 5.1.2



What does a thermostatic expansion valve that is cross

charged contain?

liquid and gas

water and air

fluid different from the refrigerant in the

system

a thermal electric device used to sense the

temperature

583

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 5.1.2

Identify the IC symbol used on internal and wiring diagrams for control systems.

transformer

transducers

capacitors

sparking cap

584

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 6- 8

Using the information shown in the diagram, identify the symbol.

test fitting

resistor

capacitor

motor

585

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 6- 9



What is the purpose of an ammeter?

current flow control

check the current flow

measures the watts consumed by an electrical device

measures units of electromotive force

586

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 6-14

According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning. a circuit with too much current flow

has an excess. This excess is converted to what form

of energy?

watts

heat

amp

current

587

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 6-29

What type of motor does NOT need an external start switch?

capacitor-start

capacitor-run

induction-run

impedance-run

588

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 7- 2f



What should happen when you jumper across the

starting capacitor on a motor ?

rupture the capacitor

blow the internal fuse

both of these

none of these

589

A.

B.

C.

D.


The chemical formula for refrigerant R-12 is ____.

CHCLF2

F2L2

CHCL3

CCL2F2

590

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 9- 1

What is the saturation psig of R-12 at 110 degrees F?

131.86

137.9

117.16

183.4

591

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 9- 5f



Sulfur Dioxide is a fairly stable refrigerant and is ____.

flammable

toxic

explosive

irritating

592

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 9-15

Normally, in a refrigerating system, the refrigerant

will be ____ degrees F colder than the evaporator temperature when the unit is running.

10

15

18

5

593

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 9-29

Moisture in a refrigeration system will cause _______ ?

freezing up the metering device

all of the these

break down of the insulation on the motor

windings

chemical changes in the oil

594

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 9-33



What color flame does a halide leak detector give off

in the presence of hydrocarbons.

Red

Yellow

Blue Green

white

595

A.

B.

C.

D.


To charge a system with vapor you must connect a cylinder to the ___.

evaporator

liquid line

discharge line

suction line

596

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 11-46

The effect of sub-cooling is _______ ?

increases the sensible cooling effect in a refrigeration process

decrease the overall efficiency of the total

refrigeration process

increase the overall efficiency of the total


decreases the sensible cooling effect in a


597

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 12- 3



The electronic leak detector carries a 1-B, CD rating,

and therefore may saftly be used in areas containing explosive or flamable vapors.

True

False

598

A.

B.

C.

D.


NOT to Be used in areas containing explosive or

flamable vapors

Evaporators operating between 20 and 32 degrees F must frequently be ____.

purged

defrosted

painted

repaired

599

A.

B.

C.

D.


Contactors are used ____.

instead of manual switches

because they are low cost

to replace controls

because of heavy electrical load

600

A.

B.

C.

D.




When an oil separator is used in a low temperature

application it should be kept in a cool place for best performance.

True

False

601

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning, the metering, two temperature valve

acts more like a ____ than a shut-off valve.

throttling device

modulating valve

flow control device

check valve

602

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 13.10.1

Cooling tower water is circulated to prevent what kind of buildup?

algae

scale

chloride buildup

static pressure

603

A.

B.

C.

D.





Airconditioning, panels for prefabricated walk-in boxes use ____ to secured to each other.

partition panel locks

eccentric cam fasteners

stainless steel clamps

spring steel clamps

604

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 13-7f

The Ph scale is 1 - 14. Which of the following numbers represents an acidic condition?

6

7

8

9

605

A.

B.

C.

D.


The purpose of a filter dryer in a refrigeration line is:

keeps the evaporator defrosted

removes excess oil from the refrigerant

keeps the condenser coils defrosted

removes moisture from the refrigerant

606

A.

B.

C.

D.




How is a dryer used in a refrigeration system?

removes moisture from the refrigerant

removes excess oil from the refrigerant

keeps the condenser coils defrosted

keeps the evaporator defrosted

607

A.

B.

C.

D.




Airconditioning, after city water is circulated through an evaporative cooling system approximate _____

times it must be bled off or treated to prevent scale.

2

4

6

8

608

A.

B.

C.

D.



According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning, when winterizing and draining a

refrigeration system, the condenser water system and

other shut downs, all of the following plugs should be removed except:

condenser circulating pump drain

condenser shell drain

tower sub drain

refrigerant crankcase oil drain

609

A.

B.

C.

D.





Airconditioning, a drain line for a cooling tower should be installed with a pitch of ___ inches per foot,

or a pump should be installed to lift the condensate to

its discharge location.

1/16

1/8

1/4

1/2

610

A.

B.

C.

D.



When first charging a commercial refrigeration system, which side of the system is refrigerant vapor

introduced?

mechanical room side

high pressure side

compressor side

low pressure side

611

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15.9

Caution must be exercised when charging a unit with

refrigerant using the low side method. If the suction

pressure is too low it mat cause:

overwork the compressor

oil pumping

flash gas

the refrigerant cylinder to act as a condenser

612

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15.9




Airconditioning, the method recommended to charge a system with refrigerant is:

liquid refrigerant into the low side

liquid refrigerant into the high side

refrigerant vapor into the low side

refrigerant vapor into the high side

613

A.

B.

C.

D.


When a refrigeration system is charged using the low side method if the suction pressure is to low, it may

cause:

the compressor to pump oil

rapid condensation of the refrigerant in

evaporator

rapid evaporation of the refrigerant in

condenser

the refrigerant cylinder to collapse

614

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15.9

When a refrigeration system is charged using the low

side method, if the suction pressure is too low, it may

cause:

rapid evaporation of the refrigerant in

condenser

rapid condensation of the refrigerant in

evaporator

the compressor to pump oil

the refrigerant cylinder to collapse

615

A.

B.

C.

D.




What is a dry evaporator designed for ?

systems which require a low RH in the room

being cooled

a system where water surrounds the

evaporator

a system where air is to be blown over the

evaporator

systems which require a high RH in the room

being cooled

616

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15-18

A flooded type evaporator has excellent heat transfer efficiency because ____.

the thinner the fluid the lesser the heat flow

the denser the fluid the lesser the heat flow

the thinner the fluid the greater the heat flow

the denser the fluid the greater the heat flow

617

A.

B.

C.

D.


To achieve low temperature in refrigeration applications, cascade systems are used. They may be

connected in series.

True

False

618

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15-36



Cascading refrigeration systems connect two or more

refrigeration systems.

True

False

619

A.

B.

C.

D.


As condensing pressures approach the outlet temperature of the compressor, what will you expect to

experience?

all of these

an increase in flash gas

the compressor will pump to the higher

temperature and pressure

added loss in effective latent heat

620

A.

B.

C.

D.


Which of the following is used to determine compressor displacement?

all of these

RPM

diameter of the cylinder

length of the piston stroke

621

A.

B.

C.

D.




Clearance in a compressor has no effect on ____.

compressor capacity

varies depending on compressor speed

has an effect on compressor capacity

varies depending on piston size

622

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15-47

A compressor's displacement is determined by ____.

all of these

diameter of the cylinder

length of stroke of the piston

number of pistons

623

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15-47

The COP of a hot water HVAC system is 1.58. The

input of the system is 62,000 Btu. What is the output of the HVAC system?

160,00 Btu

28.6 KW

62,000 Btu

150,000 KW

624

A.

B.

C.

D.




When charging a refrigerant system using the low side

method, PROPER system charging may be sped up by:

almost front-seating (closing) the suction service valve

closing the suction service valve

almost closing the discharge service valve

opening the suction service valve

625

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 15-9

Where does cooling tower water go after it leaves the cooling tower?

condenser

evaporator

compressor

generator

626

A.

B.

C.

D.


Relative humidity can be described as the ratio of water vapor in the air compared to the maximum

amount of water vapor that the air can contain at a

given temperature and pressure.

True

False

627

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 18- 5



Human comfort requires a relative humidity of about

____.

40 %

50 %

10 %

20 %

628

A.

B.

C.

D.


The stratification of air can be avoided by ____.

larger return air grilles

larger diffusers

the lowest possible position of return air grilles

sufficient air flow

629

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 18-46

A radial flow fan is one in which ____.

the air flows at right angles to the axis

the air flow is parallel to the axis

is a power type fan

is a slow speed fan

630

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 22-26



A 6" diameter duct will carry 50 CFM with a pressure

drop of ____ "per 100' of duct length.

.034

.013

.02

1.023

631

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 22-34f

6000 CFM of air with a velocity of 1500 FPM will have a friction loss of ____ per 100' of duct length.

.15 inches of water

1 inches of water

.1 inch of water

.02 inches of water

632

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 22-48f

6000 CFM of air with a velocity of 1500 FPM will have a friction loss per 100 feet of duct of ____ inches

of water.

.02

1

.15

.1

633

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 22-48f




Airconditioning, the minimum number of air changes per hour for ventilation in a residence during th e

heating season is 3.

True

False

634

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 23.3

If a high sounding noise is coming from a ceiling diffuser, and, the noise stops when the diffuser is

removed, the cause of the noise problem is:

restricted fitting in the duct

air velocity too low

sharp edges on the diffuser

sharp exposed edge in the duct

635

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 23.5.1

Which of the following statements about heat pumps is

true?

the reversing valve never operates while the

system thermostat is set on heating

the most effective method to defrost the

outside coil is to reverse the system to the

cooling cycle

an accumulator is not necessary

when the outside air temperature drops below

freezing, all the heat is supplied by the

electric strips

636

A.

B.

C.

D.




Before pre-charged refrigerant lines are installed,

fittings should be coated with:

refrigerant oil

with leak-lock

with Teflon tape

fittings should never be coated

637

A.

B.

C.

D.


The gas fired portions of a roof mounted heating/cooling units, usually uses a electronic

ignition for a gas pilot.

True

False

638

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 24.19

What is the purpose of a lockout relay?

senses changes in temperature in the heated space

prevent system from being opened by a non-EPA certified technician

protect the compressor when a safety device

opens

turns the condenser fan off in the event of

insufficient air flow across the

evaporator coil

639

A.

B.

C.

D.




A motor for operating dampers uses power to open the

damper works against ____ and holds the damper open until the set point is reached.

spring pressure

pneumatic pressure

gravity

inertial pressure

640

A.

B.

C.

D.


When the high-pressure gauge of a gauge manifold is firmly installed on the high side of a refrigerant

system, the dial scale may be graduated in ____

increments.

2.5 #

1.5 #

1.2 #

2 #

641

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 2-56

In determining heat gain for a structure, which of the

following must be considered?

the summer outside design temperature

all of these

radiation from the sun

heat and moisture gained by infiltration

642

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 26- 4



Internal heat gains of a space may consist of the

following:

lights

people

copy machine

all of these

643

A.

B.

C.

D.


The "R" value of a substance is a measure of ____.

Conductivity

Thermal transmittance

Conductance

Resistance

644

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 26- 8

According to Modern Refrigeration and Airconditioning, which one of the following describes

what may cause a lockout relay to energize on a warm

air heating system?

contacts on the thermostat open

contacts on the motor protector open

contacts on automatic pilot close

contacts on the fan control close

645

A.

B.

C.

D.





A lock out relay will energize in a warm air heating

system if the contacts:

close on the motor protector

open

close

open on the motor protector

646

A.

B.

C.

D.


Which of the following is defined as a series of operating controls used in a pre-set order to stop or

start a heating unit?

primary controls

sequencing controls

secondary controls

staging controls

647

A.

B.

C.

D.


The specific heat of ice is ___.

.504

57.5

1.00

5.04

648

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning 30- 3



What is the specific heat of ice?

.504 Btu per pound

.999 Btu per pound

143.5 Btu per pound

.5 Btu per pound

649

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 30- 3

What is the Btu value of ice?

.999 Btu per pound

.504 Btu per pound

.555 Btu per pound

143.5 Btu per pound

650

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 30- 3

If an electric heater is rated at 30 KW, how many Btu

per hour output is the heater?

2,457

1,023

204,780

102,420

651

A.

B.

C.

D.




One pound of water has ____ grains.

700

7

70

7000

652

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 30-14

A temperature is listed as 35 degrees Celsius. What is

the degrees in Fahrenheit degrees?

95

35

67

105

653

A.

B.

C.

D.


Entropy is the engineering calculations for the power required for compression.

True

False

654

A.

B.

C.

D.




Total resistance is equal to the sum of individual

resistances.

True

False

655

A.

B.

C.

D.


What are the proper installation locations for two refrigerant connections used for a dual pressure motor

control?

compressor suction and receiver king valve

outlet

liquid line receiver outlet and compressor

suction

liquid line and compressor discharge

compressor suction and discharge service

valves

656

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning 5-28 Figure

Why is it necessary to be cautious when handling

contaminated refrigeration oil?

it is a controlled substance according to the

DEA

it may be acidic

it may be alkaline

it may stain your clothes

657

A.

B.

C.

D.




Which of the following is most closely related to 1 ton

of refrigeration.

12,000 BTU'S

British thermal unit

50 degrees or above

Refrigeration ratings

658

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions B 1045

Which of the following is NOT a basic type of condenser?

Air-cooled

Refrigerated

Evaporated

Water Cooled

659

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions C

How is density expressed?

rpm

psi

pounds per cubic feet

pounds

660

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning Definitions D



Enthalpy is ____.

sensible heat loss

the total heat content of a substance

latent heat of a substance

none of these

661

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning Definitions E

Enthalpy is the total amount of heat in one pound of a

substance calculated from accepted temperature base.

True

False

662

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions E

Heat exchangers are used in process heating and cooling.

True

False

663

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions H



Define the term hermetically sealed.

air leakage on jalousy window

degree of penetration of silicone caulking

closure between aluminum glassing and casement

traps air between sheets of glass

664

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning Definitions H

There are two latent heats for each substance.

melting and condensing

freezing and condensing

melting and freezing; and vaporizing and condensing

vaporizing and condensing

665

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning Definitions L

A reciprocating pump is a pump having a(an) ____ moving up and down or back and forth.

scroll

pump rod

impeller

piston

666

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions P



The relationship between water vapor present in air to

the greatest amount possible at a given temperature is termed ____.

humidity ratio

density

humidity index

relative humidity

667

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions R

A super heated gas may be defined as a gas where no liquid is present.

True

False

668

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B Modern Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Definitions S

A thermister is _______ ?

a device whose resistance changes in response to a change in temperature

a thermostat with a resistor inside

two thermostats wired in series

a device used in VAV air distribution systems

669

A.

B.

C.

D.


Conditioning Definitions T



If a fatal accident occurs on the job, it must be

reported to OSHA within ____ hours.

3

6

8

12

670

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA

According to OSHA, what is potable water?

any water carried in a container

water that is fit for drinking

water that is transported to a job site

water that is used in concrete mix design

671

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA

An OSHA poster:

Must be continuously displayed in the work

place

Is the standard guideline for inspection

procedures

Must be prepared within 36 hours of any

occupational or illness

Must be prepared directly after Form 100 and

submitted to the registrar of contractors

672

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1903.2 (a)(1)



Kit Carson Construction Company is expanding its

work force. How many employees must Kit Carson Construction have before it must maintain records of

all employee occupational injuries and illnesses?

10

11

12

13

673

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1904.1 (a)(1)

According to OSHA, a safety log shall be available for inspection at all times. Within how many calendar

days must any new posting to the log be completed?

5 days

4 days

7 days

3 days

674

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1904.29 (b)(3)

If the contractor's employee is under the day-to-day supervision of the ____ , the ____ is responsible for

recording the injury or illness.

contractor, employee

contractor, contractor

employee, contractor

employee, employee

675

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1904.31 (b)(3)



Federal OSHA requires employers to post an annual

summary of occupational injuries and illnesses. This summary shall be posted for at least 30 days. When

must this summary be posted?

December 1st

January 1st

February 1st

June 1st

676

A.

B.

C.

D.


If an employee has a work related accident in 1998 what is the earliest year which a company may destroy

any record of this accident?

2000

2001

2002

2003

677

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1904.33 (a)

Note: Records are required to be kept for five years.

When workers are subject to contaminates that are less than 2 microns in diameter and, the contaminate is

considered dangerous to health, which of the following

must be provided?

air purifying respirator with a filter certified for particulates

half mask respirator with chemical cartridge

half mask respirator with particulate filter

half mask respirator without filter cartridge

678

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134 (d) (3)

(iv) (C)

NOTE: 1 micron equals 1 micro meter



According to OSHA, and oil lubricated compressor is

being used to supply breathing air. It must be equipped with:

I. High temperature alarmII. Carbon dioxide alarm

III. Carbon monoxide alarm

I only

I and II

II and III

I and III

679

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134 (i)(7)

According to OSHA, safety-toe footwear for employees

shall meet the specifications of the:

American Industrial Standards Council

(AISC)

American Society of Mechanical Engineers

(ASME)

American Society of Testing Materials (ASTM)

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

680

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1910.136 (b)(1)

According to OSHA, how many bathrooms are

required for ninety (90) construction workers?

3

5

7

9

681

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.141 (c)(1)(i)



According to OSHA, ___ is the acceptable oxygen

level range in a confined space.

19.5% to 23.5%

23.6 to 26.5

26.5 to 28.1%

28.2 to 32.1%

682

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146 (b) Hazardous Atmosphere (3)

All of the following are major components of a quadruple sling EXCEPT:

master link

chocker hitch

master coupling link

sling hook

683

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.184 figure N-184-3

According to OSHA, a circular saw may not be equipped with a locked-on control button on the power

switch.

True

False

684

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1910.243 (a)(2)(i)

& (ii)



According to OSHA, all tube and coupler scaffolding,

shall be securely guyed or tied to the building or structure at intervals not exceeding ____ feet

horizontally, or ____ feet vertically.

25, 30

25, 25

30, 26

30, 30

685

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1910.28 (c)(13)

The minimum clearance between a backhoe (or other heavy equipment) and a 50 KV power line shall be

____ .

8'

10'

15'

12'

686

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.333 (c)(3)(iii)

Suspension wire rope shall be inspected by a competent person for visable defects and gross damage

to the rope:

once a day

after every use

before every use

weekly

687

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1910.66 (g)(5)(ii)



Employees shall not use any spiral stairways that will

not be a permanent part of the stucture on which construction work is being performed.

True

False

688

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1920.1051 (a)(1)

Using the diagram and the following information, according to OSHA, determine the maximum

allowable depth of "A".

1. C is a 1:1 slope

2. simple trench 3. type "B" soil

20'

22'

24'

26'

689

A.

B.

C.

D.

"C"

"A""B"

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P Appendix B 1.2, 3

According to OSHA, referring to the diagram shown,

when "A" equals 20' in a simple trench, type "C" soil,

what is the maximum slope at "C" :

1½:1

⅞:1

2½:1

⅔:1

690

A.

B.

C.

D.

"A""Type C"

"C"

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P

Appendix B Table B-1



According to OSHA, when trenching in Type A soil,

the minimum size douglas fir timber used for bracing for a trench which is 6' deep and 24" wide is:

4 x 4

4 x 6

6 x 6

6 x 8

691

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P Appendix C Table C-2.1

According to OSHA, a trench wall made of what soil type will can be excavated with vertical sides and

remain intact while exposed?

Stable rock walls

Heavy clay walls

Any trench under 6'

Loose rock walls

692

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P,

Appendix A, definition of stable rock.

According to OSHA, a trench wall made of Type

_____ cohesive soil has an unconfined compressive

strength of 1.5 tons per square foot or greater.

A

C

E

G

693

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926 Subpart P,

Appendix A, definition of type A soil.



According to OSHA, ___ is specifically prohibited as a

hearing protection device.

expandable foam

ear muffs

cotton

hearing & head protection combination

helmets

694

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.101 (c)

Money to purchase eye protection required by OSHA comes from:

the OSHA mandated equipment fund

the state mandated equipment fund

employer

employee

695

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.102 (a)(1)

According to OSHA, what is the maximum developed length in feet of a lanyard safety line?

2

4

6

8

696

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.104 (d)



According to OSHA, the a safety lanyard shall be a

minimum thickness of ____ inch, nylon or equivalent.

1/2

3/4

1

1 1/4

697

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.104 (d)

According to OSHA, what is the maximum developed length in feet of a lanyard safety line ?

2

4

6

8

698

A.

B.

C.

D.


Safety nets shall be provided when the work surface is more than ___ above the ground or water surface.

5

10

15

25

699

A.

B.

C.

D.




At what height does OSHA require the use of a safety

net if a safety lanyard cannot be attached to a secure point?

8'

12'

25'

30'

700

A.

B.

C.

D.


Mesh size of safety nets shall not exceed:

4" X 4"

6" X 6"

8" X 8"

8" X 6"

701

A.

B.

C.

D.


The temporary stairs on a job site should have landing every ____ feet or less of vertical height.

8

10

12

16

702

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, temporary stairs on a jobsite

shall have landings every ____ feet of vertical height.

8

10

12

16

703

A.

B.

C.

D.


A Type 1A metal or plastic self supporting portable extra heavy duty ladder, shall be capable of sustaining

a load without failure that is at least____ the

maximum intended load:

2.6 times

3.0 times

3.3 times

4.5 times

704

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1053 (a)(1)(i)

Wood ladders are permitted to be coated with an opaque covering.

True

False

705

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1053 (a)(12)



According to OSHA, what minimum distance must be

unsecured ladder extend above an eave?

2'

3'

4'

5'

706

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, a ladder leaned against a wall, the top of which is 20' above grade, must be ___ feet

from the wall at the base.

3

4

5

6

707

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1053 (b)(5)(i)

20' ÷ 4= 5' (therefore 1/4 of the distance)

Asbestos standards apply when material containing more than ___ % is involved in construction

demolition or transportation activities.

.5

1

1.5

2

708

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1101 (a)(1),

(a)(6) & (b)

Definition of Asbestos-Containing Material



What is the maximum amount of asbestos that can be

allowed on a permissible level of exposure based on an eight hour time weighted average?

.10 fibres per cubic centimeters of air




709

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.1101 (c)(1)

According to OSHA, the travel distance the nearest fire extinguisher should not be more than ____ feet.

75

100

150

200

710

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.150 (c)

A fire extinguisher rated at 2A shall be provided for each 3000 ft of protected building area. According to

OSHA the travel distance from any point of the

protected area to the nearest fire extinguisher shall not

be more than ___ feet.

65

75

100

150

711

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.150 (c)



A multi-purpose ABC dry chemical fire extinguisher

is listed for: I. A fire classification

II. B fire classification

III. C fire classification

I only

II and III only

I, II and III (all three)

III only

712

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.150 Table F-

1

According to OSHA, portable tanks used for storage of flammable liquids shall be placed at least how far from

any building?

5'

10'

15'

20'

713

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.152 (c)(1)

A vehicle carrying flammable materials must have a

___ fire extinguisher on board (according to OSHA).

I. 20-B:C

II. 20-A:B

I only

II only

Neither I nor II

Either I or II

714

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.152 (d)(4)



According to OSHA, all vehicles transporting

flammable or combustible liquids, shall be provided with at least one fire extinguisher having a rating of

not less than ____.

20-A

20-B

20-B:C

20-B:D

715

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.152 (d)(4)

When operational requirements make portable use of LP-Gas containers necessary, and their location

outside of buildings or structures is impractical, said

containers are permitted to be used inside of a building

or structure in accordance with all of the following EXCEPT:

regulators shall be either directly connected to

the container valves or to a manifold

connected to the container valves

aluminum piping or tubing shall be used

hose shall be designed for a working pressure

of at least 250 p.s.i.g.

Portable heaters shall be equipped with an

approved automatic device to shut off the flow

of gas to the main burner in the event of a flame failure

716

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.153 (h)(1)

According to OSHA, The prime contractor on a

construction project has the responsibility for compliance with OSHA standards for all employees on

the project.

True

False

717

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.16



Danger signs shall be used only where a(n) _____

hazard exists.

potential

immediate

imminent

likely

718

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA 1926, which of the following is not defined as a confined or enclosed space?

process vessel

trench less than 4' deep

boiler

air return duct

719

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.21 (b)(6)(ii)

According to OSHA, materials stored inside buildings at a construction site shall not be placed within ___

feet of any hoistway or floor opening.

3

4

5

6

720

A.

B.

C.

D.




Brick stacks shall not be more than ____ feet in height.

5

6

7

8

721

A.

B.

C.

D.


Bricks shall not be stacked more than 7 feet in height.

When a loose brick stack reaches a height of 4 feet, in shall be tapered back ____ of height above the 4 foot

level.

1 inch in every 3 inches

2 inches in every 6 inches

2 inches in every foot

4 inches in every foot

722

A.

B.

C.

D.


Eyes in wire rope bridles, slings or bull wires shall not be formed by wire rope clips or knots.

True

False

723

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.251 (c)(4)(iii)



According to OSHA, what is the maximum distance

that waste materials may be dropped off from a roof without the use of totally enclosed chute?

16'

20'

28'

48'

724

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.252 (a)

According to OSHA, when debris is dropped through a hole in the floor without the use of a chute, the area

onto which the material is dropped shall be completely

enclosed by a barricade not less than _____ high and

not less than 6 feet back from the opening above.

36"

42"

48"

52"

725

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.252 (b)

The area onto which debris material is dropped through holes in the floor without the use of chutes,

shall be completely enclosed with barricades to

provide what minimum clearance back from the opening above?

6'

8'

10'

12'

726

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.252 (b)



Which one of the following is responsible for

requiring the wearing of personal protective equipment when hazardous conditions exist?

foreman

employee

employer

superintendent

727

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.28 (a)

According to OSHA, the person responsible to insure that appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE)

is worn in every operation where exposure to

hazardous conditions exists is:

foreman

employee

employer

superintendent

728

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.28 (a)

According to OSHA, the ____ is responsible for making sure each employee coming onto a worksite is

wearing her personal protective equipment.

employee

OSHA inspector

city safety inspector

employer

729

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, which of the following power

tools MAY HAVE a "positive on/positive off" switch?

router

circular saw

4" diameter grinder

chain saw

730

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, all of the following power tools require a "positive on/positive off" switch, EXCEPT:

circular saw

scroll saw

router

grinder with a 2" wheel or less

731

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, hand held power tools such as skill saws, chain saws and power tools without

positive accessory holding means, shall have a _____

that shall shut off the power when the pressure is

released.

momentary contact on/off control

constant pressure switch

positive on/off control

dead-man release

732

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, extension cords for use with

portable electric tools must:

be at least 2 wire if the tool is double insulated.

two wired with 3 prong plugs.

have the same number of wires as the tool connected.

be 3 wired type.

733

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.302 (a)

A pneumatic nail gun is equipped with an automatic fastener feed. The nail gun does not have a safety

device on the muzzle to prevent the ejection of nails

when the muzzle is not in contact with the work

surface. What is the maximum operating pressure allowed?

95 PSI

100 PSI

105 PSI

110 PSI

734

A.

B.

C.

D.


29 CFR 1926.302 (b)(3) states that a safety device on

the muzzle is required for a pneumatically driven nailer with an automatic fastener feed that operate at more

than 100 p.s.i.

According to OSHA, the ___ paint spray system

requires the use of a nozzle tip guard.

DFRT

HVLP

airless

electrostatic

735

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.302 (b)(8) &

(b)(9)



Powder actuated fastening devices may NOT be used

in face brick, hardened steel, or cast iron.

True

False

736

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.302 (e)(7)

According to OSHA, all woodworking power tools shall be equipped with all of the following EXCEPT:

a work rest

the operating speed etched on the motor of a

circular with a 20" diameter blade

automatic feeding devices when the nature of the work will permit

guards above and below the base plate or shoe

737

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.304 (b), (c)

& (d)

According to OSHA, a person who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards,

unsanitary working conditions and is authorized to

take corrective actions to eliminate them is a:

state inspector

qualified person

contractor

competent person

738

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.32 (f)



According to OSHA, corrective action to eliminate

existing and predictable hazards and unsanitary working conditions can be performed by:

the prime contractor

competent person

industrial inspector

any project manager

739

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.32 (f)

Hot electrode holders shall not be dipped in water; to do so may expose the operator to:

cancerous vapors

dangerous bursts of steam

radiation

electrical shock

740

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.351 (d)(2)

According to OSHA, workers in the vicinity of the direct rays of arc weldinng shall be shielded by:

I. Noncombustible or flame proof screens

II. Lexan screens or canvass barriers

I only

II only

Both I and II

Neither I or II

741

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.351 (e)



Chlorinated solvents shall be kept at least _____ from

an inert gas metal arc welding process.

96'

125'

200'

210'

742

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.353 (d)(1)(i)

According to OSHA when an employee is working in proximity to an electric power circuit and contact may

be possible during the course of work, ___ should be

done to protect the employee from electric shock.

kill the circuit

issue protective shoes

issue rubber gloves

ground and de-energize circuit

743

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.416 (a)

The structural member of a supported scaffold used to increase the base width of a scaffold in order to

provide support for and increase stability of a scaffold

is called:

a needle beam

an outrigger

a stilt

a crawling board

744

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.450 (b)

Definitions



Scaffolding should be capable of supporting its own

weight and at least ____ times its' intended load.

2

3

4

10

745

A.

B.

C.

D.


Scaffold planks should extend over their end supports not less than ____ (according to OSHA).

2''

4''

1''

6''

746

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA rules and regulations, scaffold planks should extend past their end supports a

MAXIMUM of _____ inch(es).

4

6

8

12

747

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, the minimum overlap of

planking on scaffold is:

4"

6"

8"

12"

748

A.

B.

C.

D.


Stairways on scaffolds shall be installed between _____ from the horizontal

45° and 40°

80° and 90°

15° and 30°

40° and 60°

749

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (e)(4)(xi)

Guardrails should be installed on 4.5' wide scaffolding over _____ feet above a lower level.

10 feet

8 feet

4 feet

12 feet

750

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(1)



According to OSHA, guardrails are required on

scaffolding at heights above ___ feet above the working surface.

10

15

20

25

751

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(1)

According to OSHA, the top edge height of top rails on supported scaffolds shall be installed between ___

inches and 45" above the platform surface.

38

36

34

32

752

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(ii)

The required guard rails that are installed on scaffolding should be a minimum of ____ inches high.

32

38

40

44

753

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(ii)



According to OSHA 1926, if guard rails are required

for fall protection, the height of the guard rail shall be ___ minimum height.

32"

34"

36"

38"

754

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(ii)

Vertical lifelines, independent support lines, and suspension ropes shall not be attached to each other,

nor shall they be attached to or use ____, nor shall

they be attached to the same point on the scaffold or

personal fall arrest system.

an automatic locking device

the guardrail system

a safety net

the same point of anchorage

755

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (g)(4)(iv)

OSHA requires what minimum clearance between the bottom of a toe board and a walking or working

surface of a scaffold?

1/4"

3/16"

5/8"

11/16"

756

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 (h)(4)(ii)



According to OSHA, the minimum permissible size

for planking on a wood pole scaffold used for light duty up to 60 feet shall be ______.

2" x 4"

2" x 8"

2" x 10"

2" x 12"

757

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.451 Subpart L Appendix A, 2 (Specific

Guidelines and Tables)

According to OSHA, employees shall not be permitted to ride on a mobile scaffold unless which of the

following conditions exist?

when there is less than 4 persons on the

scaffold

when outriggers are used

when the height to base ratio is 5% or less

when the floor is within 3 degrees of level

758

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.452 (w)(6)(i)

According to OSHA, an employer shall not allow

employees to ride on manually propelled scaffold

unless:

more than one person propels the scaffold

the floor is within 3% of level and free of pits, holes and obstructions

the scaffold is less than 12' high

the employees have safety lanyards attached

759

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.452 (w)(6)(i)



According to OSHA, employees may not ride on a

manually propelled scaffold unless:

the scaffold is less than 12' high

the floor is within 3% of level

the employees have safety lanyards attached

more than one person propels the scaffold

760

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.452 (w)(6)(i)

According to OSHA, the location of a job-site first aid kit, must be:

readily accessible

accessible

unconcealed

easily accessible

761

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.50 (d)(1)

According to OSHA standards for the construction industry, first aid kit supplies must be:

replaced at the beginning of each week

replaced weekly

replaced daily as needed

checked weekly

762

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, Employers must provide fall

protection for each employee working on roofs with unprotected sides or edges which is _____ feet or more

above a lower level or grade.

6

8

10

12

763

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.501 (b)(1)

According to OSHA, fall protection shall be provided on low slope roofs when the distance is ___ feet or

more that a worker can fall.

6

8

10

12

764

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, fall protection shall be provided on low slope roofs when the distance meets or exceeds

____ feet that a worker can fall.

6

8

10

12

765

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, fall protection shall be provided

when employees are required to work on the leading edge of a roof that is a minimum of what distance

above lower levels?

6'

8'

12'

16'

766

A.

B.

C.

D.


or (b)(11)

According to OSHA, a personal fall-arrest system shall be rigged so that an employee can fall no farther

than:

6'

8'

10'

12'

767

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.502

(d)(16)(iii)

Personal fall arrest systems when stopping a fall, shall

be rigged so that an employee can neither free fall

more than ___, nor contact any lower level.

5'

5.5'

6'

6.5'

768

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.502

(d)(16)(iii)



According to OSHA standards, if you have 20 workers

at a jobsite, you are required to provide no less than ____ toilets.

1

2

3

4

769

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA standards for construction industry, how many toilets should a job site have when

the number of employees on a job is 20 or less?

1

2

3

4

770

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, employees are not to be subject to impact or impulsive noises that exceed ___ sound

pressure level.

140 dB

120 dB

130 dB

160 dB

771

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.52 (e)(1)



According to OSHA, an employee should not be

exposed to a noise sound pressure level of more than 92 db for a period of ____ hours.

2

4

6

8

772

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.52 Table D-2

According to OSHA Standards, when is it required to replace wire rope cables?

yearly

when 5% of the wires in running rope per lay

are broken

when there are more than 2 broken wires in

one strand in one lay

when there are more than 2% of the wires in standing rope per lay are broken

773

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.550 (a)(7)(i)

When should wire rope cables be replaced?

yearly

when any one of the wires per lay are broken

when 10% of the wires per lay are broken

when any 3 of the wires in one strand in one

lay are broken

774

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.550 (a)(7)(i)



When should wire rope cables be replaced?

yearly

when any 1 of the wires per lay are broken

when 10% of the wires per lay are broken

when any 3 of the wires per lay are broken

775

A.

B.

C.

D.


When an employee is involved in an abrasive blasting

operation, he shall be equipped with heavy canvas or leather gloves and aprons or equivalent protection to

protect from the impact from abrasives.

True

False

776

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.57 (f)(5)(b)

According to OSHA, respiratory protection equipment used in sand blasting operations, is approved

by______:

Bureau of Land Development

NIOSH

Department of Health

Department of Medical Methods

777

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.57 (f)(5)(i)



All mechanized or motorized equipment ___ ,

adjacent to a highway in normal use, or adjacent to construction areas where work is in progress, shall

have have appropriate lights or reflectors, or

barricades equipped with apprpriate lights or reflectors, to identify the location of the equipment.

left unattended duirng the day

left attended during the day

left attended at night

left unattended at night

778

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.600 (a)(1)

On a jobsite, heavy equipment, or parts thereof, which are suspended or held aloft by use of slings, hoists or

jacks shall be substantially blocked or cribbed to

prevent falling or shifting before employees are permitted to work under or between them.

blocked

cribbed

both blocked and cribbed

blokced or cribbed

779

A.

B.

C.

D.


The name of the horizontal member placed parallel to

the excavation face, according to OSHA, in shoring, is:

cross brace

a soldier brace

brace wall

wale

780

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.650 (b)



According to OSHA, what safety precautions are to be

taken when a backhoe digs in an area where utilities are located?

get off and check occasionally

move the backhoe closer to the hole edge

use a spotter to direct movement

proceed with caution

781

A.

B.

C.

D.


At a trench depth of _____ feet OSHA requires an adequate means of exit.

1

2

3

4

782

A.

B.

C.

D.


Such as a Ladder!

The intervals of ladders placed in trenches for egress shall be no further than:

35'

40'

45'

50'

783

A.

B.

C.

D.


No more than 25 feet of lateral travel.



OSHA requires a ladder in every excavation _____ or

deeper.

5'

3'

4'

6'

784

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (c)(2)

Which of the following trench conditions, according to OSHA, would require a second means of access/egress?

a trench, 4' deep, where employees are

required to enter

a trench, 25' in length, where employees are required to enter

a trench, 4' deep, where employees are

required to enter or, a trench, 25' in length, where employees are required to enter

a trench, longer than 25' in length, where employees are required to enter, or, a trench,

4'or deeper, where employees are required to

enter

785

A.

B.

C.

D.


At what depth of an excavation does OSHA require a

ladder?

3'

4'

5'

6'

786

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (c)(2)



According to OSHA, materials shall be stored a

distance of at least ____ feet from the edges of an excavation, to protect employees from falling debris.

2'

4'

6'

10'

787

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (j)(2)

While trenching and excavating, OSHA requires at least _____ feet of clear unobstructed distance from

the trenches edge to the toe of the spoil pile.

1'

2'

3'

4'

788

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (j)(2)

According to OSHA, employees must be protected from materials that could fall into an excavated area.

Materials shall be stored at least _____ feet from the

edges of an excavation?

1

2

3

4

789

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (j)(2)



According to OSHA, _____ should inspect

excavations daily after a rain storm.

a licensed engineer

on site supervisor

a general building contractor

a competent person

790

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(1)

According to OSHA, inspections shall be made after every rainstorm of excavations by:

culvert contractor

culvert engineer

OSHA official

"competent" person

791

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(1)

According to OSHA, while excavating a trench, how often should a competent person in addition to daily

inspection, check the safety of the trench?

After a rain storm

Each additional 10 feet of depth

Every 2 hours

Each time workers enter the trench

792

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(1)



When an excavation is inspected by a competent

person and evidence of a situation that could result in a possible cave-in is found, OSHA requires that:

the job be closed

employees be removed immediately

life lines be issued

immediate correction

793

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.651 (k)(2)

According to OSHA, a trench must be shored at a minimum depth of ___ feet, when workers are to enter

the trench.

2'

5'

12'

124"

794

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (a)(ii)

According to OSHA, the sides of a ditch above _____ shall be sloped back to prevent a cave-in.

3'

4'

5'

8'

795

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (a)(ii)



According to OSHA, when employees are required to

work in trenches in unstable ground, sheeting or sloping is required at a trench depth of ____ or more

feet.

3

4

5

6

796

A.

B.

C.

D.


At what depth does OSHA require a trench to be shored on the sides?

>3'

>4'

>5'

>8'

797

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, sidewalks which have been undermined for the purpose of working underneath,

I. Shall have a support system installed

II. While employees are working or not

I only

II only

both I and II

neither I nor II

798

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (i)(3)



According to OSHA, while excavating a trench, how

often should a competent person in addition to daily inspection, check the safety of the trench?

After a rain storm

Each additional 10 feet of depth

Every 2 hours

Each time workers enter the trench

799

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.652 (k)(1)

According to OSHA, the process of temporarily supporting a deck after the removal of formwork so

that higher level work may commence is:

re-shoring

shoring

vertical-shoring

scaffold-shoring

800

A.

B.

C.

D.


Manually-operated power concrete trowels shall be equipped with a ___.

hand release type shut-off

blade guard

shock absorbers

spark arrestor

801

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.701 (c)



Concrete pumping systems using discharge pipes shall

be provided with pipe supports designed for ___ overload.

50%

75%

100%

125%

802

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1926.702 (e)(1)

According to OSHA, during the erection of structural steel members there shall not be more than ____

between the erection floor and uppermost permanent

floor.

4 stories

60 feet

8 stories

120 feet

803

A.

B.

C.

D.


According to OSHA, at no time shall there be more than four floors or ___ feet of unfinished bolting or

welding above the foundation or uppermost

permanently secured floor.

36

48

54

60

804

A.

B.

C.

D.




According to OSHA, during the final placing of solid

web structural membersused for diagonal bracing, the load shall not be released from the hoisting lines until

the members are secured with not less than ___ , or

the equivalent at each connection and drawn up wrench tight.

1 bolt

2 bolts

tach welded

fillet welded

805

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A OSHA 29 CFR 1926.756 (b)

While in violation of the OSHA regulations, an employee has been discriminated against and

discharged for filing a complaint. Within what time

period after the violation occurs must the employee file a complaint about discriminations?

45 days

30 days

60 days

90 days

806

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B OSHA 29 CFR 1977.15 (d)

According to the SMACNA Standard Symbols for

Ventilation and Airconditioning Ductwork drawings,

this symbol means:

direction of flow

duct size

supply air duct section

return air duct section

807

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A SMACNA HVAC Duct System

Design




Ventilation and Airconditioning Ductwork drawings, this symbol means:

Duct Section, Positive Pressure

Duct Section, Negative Pressure

Duct Size

Change of Elevation

808

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C SMACNA HVAC Duct System Design

According to the SMACNA Standard Symbols for Ventilation and Airconditioning Ductwork drawings,

this symbol means:

Duct Section, Positive Pressure

Duct Section, Negative Pressure

Direction of Flow

Change of Elevation

809

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design


this symbol means:

Flexible Connection

Acoustical Lining (insulation)

Sound Attenuator

Cowl (Gooseneck) and Flashing

810

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B SMACNA HVAC Duct System

Design





Sound Attenuator

Flexible Connection


Flexible Duct.

811

A.

B.

C.

D.



this symbol means:

Flexible Connection

Sound Attenuator

Flexible Duct.

Terminal Unit

812

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design


this symbol means:

Terminal Unit, Mixing

Flexible Duct.

Flexible Connection

Terminal Unit, Reheat

813

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design





Terminal Unit, Variable Volume


Transition


814

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D SMACNA HVAC Duct System Design


this symbol means:


Acoustical Lining

Terminal Unit, Variable Volume


815

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: C SMACNA HVAC Duct System

Design


this symbol means:

Detectors, Fire / Smoke

Transition

Turning Vanes

Heater Duct, Electric

816

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design





Vertical Position

Electric Operated Damper

Pneumatic Operated Damper

Fire Damper and Sleeve

817

A.

B.

C.

D.



this symbol means:

Horizontal Position

Fire Damper and Sleeve

Vertical Position

Electric Operated Damper

818

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D SMACNA HVAC Duct System

Design


this symbol means:

Manual Volume

Fire Damper and Sleeve, Vertical Position

Fire Damper and Sleeve, Horizontal Position

Manual Splitter

819

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design





Standard Branch Return, No Splitter

Smoke Damper

Standard Branch Supply, No Splitter

Heater, Duct, Electric

820

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B SMACNA HVAC Duct System Design


this symbol means:





821

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design


this symbol means:





822

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design





Return or Exhaust Grille

Supply Register

Supply Outlet Ceiling Round

Supply Outlet Ceiling Square

823

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: B SMACNA HVAC Duct System Design


this symbol means:

Terminal Unit


Exhaust or Return Air Inlet Ceiling


824

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design


this symbol means:

Supply Outlet Ceiling Square

Terminal Unit

Combination Diffuser and Light Fixture


825

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design





Door Grille

Fan & Motor with Belt Guard & Flexible

Connections

Combination Diffuser and Light Fixture

Sound Trap

826

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: A SMACNA HVAC Duct System Design


this symbol means:

Fan & Motor with Belt Guard & Flexible

Connections

Ventilating Unit

Sound Trap

Unit Heater (Downblast)

827

A.

B.

C.

D.



Ventilation and Airconditioning Ductwork drawings,

this symbol means:

Unit Heater (Downblast)

Fan & Motor with Belt Guard & Flexible Connections

Sound Trap

Ventilating Unit

828

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design





Louvers and Screen

Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Exhaust

Unit Heater (Horizontal)

Thermostat

829

A.

B.

C.

D.

CORRECT: D SMACNA HVAC Duct System Design


this symbol means:

Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Louvered

Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Intake

Louvers and Screen


830

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design


this symbol means:


Louvers and Screen

Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Intake

Power or Gravity Roof Ventilator-Louvered

831

A.

B.

C.

D.


Design


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