3625993 ccna 2 exams solved

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CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers

1. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a

router?

-use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router

telnet to the router through a serial port

use a vty port through the Ethernet interface

use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

2. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow

a connection to the console port of a router?

2400

4800

-9600

14200

38400

3. What is the default sequence for loading the IOS?

NVRAM, TFTP, FLASH

NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

FLASH, ROM, TFTP

-FLASH, TFTP, ROM

TFTP, FLASH, ROM

4. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are

correct? (Choose three.)

-User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.
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Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router

operation.

Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC

or privileged EXEC modes.

-On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode

is Core1#.

The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.

-A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

5. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from

the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)

-the last restart method

the command buffer contents

the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used

-the configuration register settings

-the location for loading the IOS

6. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from

the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)

-the last restart method

the tftp software version installed

the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used-the configuration register settings

-the location used for loading the IOS

7. Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are

those two levels? (Choose two.)


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global

-privileged

local

-user

interface

8. Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)

immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start

-after issuing the command Router#setup

-during the initial configuration of a router-after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router

after deleting the running configuration

9. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and

enable secret are both configured on a router?

enable password

-enable secret

Neither. They are both enabled.

Neither. They cancel each other out.

10. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following

connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

consoleAUX

-Telnet

modem

11. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially


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configure a router?

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

2) a straight through cable

3) the router's console port

1) PC's Ethernet port

2) a crossover cable

3) the router's Ethernet port

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

2) a rollover cable


-1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port

-2) a rollover cable

-3) the router's console port

1) PC's Ethernet port

2) a rollover cable


12. Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)

-recover from system failures

create startup configuration files

-recover from lost passwords

configure IP addresses on all router interfacesperform high level diagnostics

13. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

-load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration


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load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS

load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware

check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

14. What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?

all show commands allowed in privileged mode

-all commands beginning with the letters sh

an incomplete command error message

an invalid command error message

15. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?

-Ctrl-A

Ctrl-B

Esc-A

Esc-B

Ctrl-C

Ctrl-Z

16. What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network

administrator? (Choose three.)

the amount of NVRAM required to run the image

-the hardware platform the image runs on

the various software platforms the image can run on

-special features and capabilities of the imagethe bandwidth supported by the IOS

-where the image executes from and if it has been compressed

17. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?


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NVRAM, FLASH, ROM

FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE

-NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

FLASH, TFTP, ROM

18. What is the maximum number of commands allowed in the history buffer?

10

20

128

255

-256

19. The active IOS of the router is initialized from FLASH. In this scenario, what

commands would be used to display the name of the active IOS? (Choose two.)

Router#show IOS

-Router#show flash

Router#show nvram

-Router#show version

Router#show startup-config

Router#show running-config

20. Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the

interface configuration mode?

Ctrl-PCtrl-Shift-6, then X

-Ctrl-Z

Esc

21. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature?


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(Choose two.)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

-Set the command history buffer size.

-Recall previously entered commands.

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

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CCNA Discovery 4.0: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business or

ISP - Chapter 1 Exam Answers

1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose

two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

* the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to

return to the source

* whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
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the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to

respond

2. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer

once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and

other account information?

* help desk

customer service

network operations center

on-site installation team

planning and provisioning

3. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by

medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)

DSL

cable modem

Ethernet

* metro Ethernet

* T1

* T3

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

* echo request issued by source

echo reply issued by source

echo request issued by destination

echo reply issued by destination

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?

* peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone

uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone

pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents

limits the offered services to small geographic areas


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6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP

network to obtain Internet access?

* at a POP

at an IXP

at a Metro Ethernet link

on the ISP extranet

7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?

the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail

the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet* the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network

the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks

8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer

connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"

customer service

help desk

* network operations

on-site installation

9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has

existing network hardware and circuits installed?

customer service

help desk

network operations* planning and provisioning

10. What was the original purpose of the Internet?

voice communication

marketing


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* research

commerce

11. What is the purpose of an RFC?

to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet

* to document the development and approval of an Internet standard

to connect a business to an ISP

to provide data communication services to ISP customers

to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients

12. Which command generated this output?

1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec

2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec

3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec

* Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4

Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4

Router# ping 34.0.0.4

Router# telnet 34.0.0.4

13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and

identifies routers that packets travel across?

ping

ipconfig

* traceroute

ixp

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?

gateway routers

* IXPs

POPs

satellite dishes


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15. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?

a fixed number of interfaces

ease of repair

* modularity

low maintenance requirements

low cost

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-

owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access,

redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will

fulfill this need?

web hosting

planning and provisioning

application hosting

* equipment colocation

Tier 1 ISP services

17. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?

1979

1984

* 1991

1999

2000

18. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?

* bits per second

bytes per second

hertz

megabytes per second

packets per second


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19. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?

56 kbps

128 kbps

* 1.544 Mbps

2.4 Mbps

20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP?

(Choose three.)

* help desk

computer support

application readiness* network operations center

* planning and provisioning

implementation and documentation

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CCNA Discovery 4.0: Working at a Small-to-Medium Business orISP - Chapter 2 Exam Answers

1 What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to

Layer 4 of the OSI model?
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* bits, frames, packets, segments

frames, bits, packets, segments

packets, frames, segments, bits

segments, packets, frames, bits

2 Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?

incorrect subnet mask

incorrect default gateway

* loose network cable

NIC improperly installed

3 What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

adding the hardware address

* converting data to bits

encapsulating data into frames

* signal generation

routing packets

4 Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?

The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes

the trouble ticket.

Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration

error and close the trouble ticket.

* After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the

trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.

When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for

future reference.

5 A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI

model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?

* Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?

Do you have a link light on your network card?


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Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?

* What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?

Can you ping www.cisco.com?

6 Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?

Level 1

Level 2

* Level 3

Level 4

7 What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)

conserving support resources

* network optimization

competitive scalability

* customer retention

sales of network services

8 Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model?

(Choose two.)

placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission

* initiating the network communication process

* encrypting and compressing data for transmission

segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination

choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network

9 A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The

help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Whichquestion would the technician ask the customer first?

* Can you access other web sites?

Is there a firewall installed on your computer?

What is your IP address?

Is the link light lit on your NIC card?


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10 Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot

issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)

* ping

a packet sniffer

Telnet

* ipconfig

* traceroute

11 Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?

source MAC addressdestination MAC address

source IP address

* destination IP address

12 What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)

* opening a trouble ticket

using diagnostic tools to identify the problem

surveying network conditions for further analysis

configuring new equipment and software upgrades

* adhering to a problem-solving strategy

e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer

13 A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem

and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician

ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)

* Is the NIC link light blinking?

What is the IP address and subnet mask?

* Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?

* Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?

Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?

Can you access your e-mail account?


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14 Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?

* application, presentation, session

application, session, network

presentation, transport, network

presentation, network, data link

session, transport, network

15 An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that

no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing

the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the

customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the techniciansuspect is causing the customer's problem?

improper IP address configuration on the host

hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP

bad cables or connections at the customer site

* failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

16 Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?

An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.

A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.

* A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.

An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.

17 Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?

routes data between networksconverts data to bits for transmission

* delivers data reliably across the network using TCP

formats and encodes data for transmission

transmits data to the next directly connected device

18 What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic


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approach to helping a customer solve a problem?

identify and prioritize alternative solutions

isolate the cause of the problem

* define the problem

select an evaluation process

19 In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to

solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)

* talking to the customer on the telephone

upgrading hardware and software

* using various web toolsmaking an onsite visit

installing new equipment

* with remote desktop sharing applications

20 A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable

modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has

verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician

should ask the customer? (Choose three.)

* What is your subnet mask?

* What is your IP address?

Is the NIC link light blinking?

* Can you ping the default gateway?

Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?

Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?


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1. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two

statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)

Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.

* Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.

* Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for

unexpected events.

Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.

Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

2. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choosetwo.)

serial cable

* rollover cable

straight-through cable

crossover cable

patch cable

* console cable

3. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)

the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals

* the path that the data takes through a network

the wireless signal coverage area
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the wiring closet and access point locations

* the device names and Layer 3 addressing information

* the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

4. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer

network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service

provider?

backbone area

* point of presence

network distribution facility

intermediate distribution frame

5. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers

including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?

STP

UTP

*coaxial

fiber optic

6. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the

customer before beginning the network design?

to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take

to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment

* to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans

for expansion

to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and

replacements

7. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report?

(Choose three.)

* unlabeled cables

only two power outlets per wall in each room


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* poor physical security of network devices

horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters

* lack of UPS for critical devices

two users sharing the same computer

8. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)

does not require leasing costs for service

* can guarantee up to 99.999% availability

eliminates the need for data backup

* increases availability of help desk services

does not require a Service Level Agreement

9. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a

telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)

faster communication speeds

* improved physical security

more resistant to hacker attempts

* centralized cable management

less electrical usage

10. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the

current telecommunications room?

MDF

POP

* IDF

IXP

11. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s".

What is meant by this?

* A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.

A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.

Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.


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The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days

a week.

The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five

days a week.

12. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?

repeater

hub

* router

switch

13. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts andnetworking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while

performing the site survey?

any obsolete office equipment being stored

all product keys for site license software

* any planned growth anticipated in the near future

the memory requirements for installed application software

14. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite

technician perform? (Choose two.)

configure the servers and routers prior to delivery

* upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems

investigate and document the physical layout of the premises

* document the final design for approval by the customer

perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

15. Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?

hub

router

* switch

access point


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16. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)

user workstations

* switches and routers

fax machines

* network equipment racks

* the point of presence

copier

17. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?

* An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.

ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration

and management.

An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network

security measures.

ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to

the network than do other routers.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each

device?

A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight

A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console

* A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP

for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose

two.)

Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new

equipment.


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The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the

customer.

* Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.

Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT

staff to complete the upgrade.

* The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the

equipment upfront.

20. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit

growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?

a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated

* a networking device with a modular physical configurationa networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely

a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

21. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?

* scalability

manageability

compatibility

* reliability


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1. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?

127 to 191

127 to 192

* 128 to 191

128 to 192

2. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight

bits?

128

254

255

* 256

512

1024

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the

default subnet mask?

* 254

255

256

510

511

512

4. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)

It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first

bit.

* The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the

network.
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Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.

Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.

* Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.

Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental

use.

5. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)

* improved security

improved router performance

decreased processor load

* improved scalability

universal application compatibility* sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

6. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?

255 and below

* 1024 and below

1025 and above

64,000 and above

7. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?

* Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

Class E

8. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other

specific address type?

inside global

outside local

* outside global


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private IP address

9. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0

with the default subnet mask?

192.168.0.0

192.168.0.255

192.168.32.0

192.168.32.254

* 192.168.32.255

10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access

to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in theexhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

The host subnet mask is incorrect.

The default gateway is a network address.

The default gateway is a broadcast address.

* The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?

64

96

* 128

192

256

512

12. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correctanswer from the list below.

11110010

11011011

11110110

11100111


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11100101

11101110

13. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?

Class A

Class B

* Class C

Class D

Class E

14. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?

Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP

address.

A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP

address.

* Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different

port assignments.

Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use

for communications.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are

connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?

192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95

192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94

* 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96

192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)

* to preserve registered public IP addresses

to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks


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* to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet

to make routing protocols operate more efficiently

to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet

to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to

be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?

The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.

The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.

The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.

* The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

18. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?

Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.

* Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.

Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.

Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.

Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network

devices that access the Internet.

19. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of

255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts

in each subnet?

6

14

* 30

62

20. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?

2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13

2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13

2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13


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* 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13


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1

Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in asubnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network

administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway.

Assuming that the switch IP address is 192.168.5.147/24, what command will the

administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?

* X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

2

Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an
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administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)

ATM

CHAP

* Frame Relay

* HDLC

PAP

* PPP

3

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the

modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

* VTY interface

console interface

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

* privileged EXEC mode

* router configuration mode

4

A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following

connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

console

AUX

* Telnet

modem

5What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen?

(Choose three.)

* host name

DHCP options

* domain name


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interface IP addresses

* enable secret password

DNS server IP addresses

6

A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco

switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-

duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation.

However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and

excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?

The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.

* There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation

NIC.

The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of

the switch.

7

Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable

administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and

management? (Choose three.)

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192

* Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

* Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.66 255.255.255.192

* Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1

* Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192* Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown

* Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4

* Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco

* Switch1(config-line)# login


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Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login

8

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the

exhibit?

transmission of data

reception of data

* clocking for the synchronous link

noise cancellation in transmitted data

9Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a

Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do

from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?

Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.

* Telnet to the switch from the router console.

Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.

The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection

to check these settings.

10

Which command will display routing table information about all known networks

and subnetworks?

Router# show ip interfaces

Router# show ip connections

* Router# show ip routeRouter# show ip networks

11

Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

stores the routing table


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* retains contents when power is removed

* stores the startup configuration file

contains the running configuration file

stores the ARP table

12

In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

* SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-

band and out-of-band management.

SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a

web browser.

SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limitednumber of Cisco devices.

* SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-

based commands.

SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for

initial basic device configuration.

13

What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that

receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or

Internet?

host name

domain name

DHCP address pool

* DNS server IP address

14Which mode will a configured router display at login?

global configuration mode

setup mode

ROM monitor mode

* user EXEC mode


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15

Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial

interface to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.)

* Easy IP (IP negotiated)

IP unnumbered

No IP address

HDLC encapsulation

Frame Relay encapsulation

* PPP encapsulation

16

To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed bytyping which key or key combination?

* Tab

Ctrl-P

Ctrl-N

Up Arrow

Right Arrow

Down Arrow

17

What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to

"LAB_A"?

Router> enable

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

* Router> enable

* Router# hostname LAB_A

Router> enable

Router# configure router

Router(config)# hostname LAB_A


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Router> enable

Router(config)# host name LAB_A

18

Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the

show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

* platform

routing protocol

connected interface of neighbor device

* device ID

* IP addresses of all interfacesenable mode password

19

Which command turns on a router interface?

* Router(config-if)# enable

Router(config-if)# no down

Router(config-if)# s0 active

Router(config-if)# interface up

Router(config-if)# no shutdown

20

Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of

the configuration that is shown?

virtual terminal only

enable mode onlyconsole and virtual terminal only

enable mode and virtual terminal

only the service password

* all configured passwords

21


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A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command

will allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the

changes?

* router# show running-config

router# show startup-config

router# show flash

router# show version

22

Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are

attached to Router1 to access the remote server?

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252

Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000

Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0

Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252


* Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0

* Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.125 255.255.255.252

* Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000

* Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0

Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252


23

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose

two.)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

* Recall up to 15 command lines by default.


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* Set the command history buffer size.

Recall previously entered commands.

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

24

Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode?

(Choose two.)

All router commands are available.

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.

* A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.

Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.

* Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25

How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?

blinks rapidly amber

blinks rapidly green

* steady amber

steady green


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1

What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included inRIPv1 updates?

metric

* subnet mask

area identification

hop count

autonomous system number

2

Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator

suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can

be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)

* ping

show arp

* traceroute

* show ip routeshow interface

show cdp neighbor detail

3

In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system

number (ASN)?

when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet

when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork

when more than one interior routing protocol is used

* when the company uses two or more ISPs

4

What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing
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policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?

Internet

intranet

virtual private network

* autonomous system

5

What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

* It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet

forwarding.

6

What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?

Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols

are used by small ISPs.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing

protocols are used inside * organizations.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system.

Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.

* Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous

system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple

autonomous systems.

7Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-

state and distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.)

Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do

distance vector routing protocols.

Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing


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protocols update one router at a time.

Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector

routers know about every router in the network.

* Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using

distance vector routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.

* Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire

network. Link state routing protocols know about all routers in the network.

In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically

converge more rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

8

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could

separate HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to eachother?

14

* 15

16

17

9

Consider this routing table entry:

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1

What type of route is this?

a static route

a default route

* a RIP route

an OSPF routean EIGRP route

a directly-connected route

10

Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing

protocols?


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Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.

Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.

* Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has

converged.

Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has

converged.

11

Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes

down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?

* in 30 secondsin 60 seconds

in 90 seconds

immediately

12

Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?

source IP address

source MAC address

* destination IP address

destination MAC address

13

What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?

* border gateway router

DSLAMweb server

interior router

14

Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?


42/70

* BGP

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

15

Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

debug ip rip

show ip route

show ip interface

show ip protocols

* debug ip rip configshow ip rip database

16

Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and

configuration?

show version

show ip route

show interface

* show ip protocols

debug ip rip config

show ip rip database

17

Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)

They are created in interface configuration mode.* They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.

They automatically become the default gateway of the router.

* They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S

They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or

shutdown.


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18

Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?

* BGP

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP v2

19

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to

the output that is shown?

routerA(config-router)# no version 2

routerA(config)# interface fa0/0routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0

* routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0

routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

20

Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?

show ip route

show ip rip

debug ip rip

* show ip protocols

show ip rip database

21

Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in

an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?

router# show ip address

* router# show ip route

router# show ip networks

router# show ip interface brief

router# debug ip protocol

router# debug rip update


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22

What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own

autonomous systems? (Choose two.)

a home business with one ISP connection

a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs

* a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through

different ISPs

a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP

* a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

23What statement is true regarding an AS number?

* AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.

Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.

ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.

All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

24

What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP?

to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol

to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers

* to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates

to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP

to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router


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1

To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is

based on what two factors? (Choose two.)

accessibility

adaptability

* availability

* reliability

scalability

2A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP.

The company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services.

Which three protocols represent the key application services that are required b

are three charactey the company? (Choose three.)

* FTP

* HTTP

ICMP

PPP

Telnet

* SMTP

3

Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)

maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries

maintaining the ISP server
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* mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts

forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server

* forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

4

When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at

the same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session?

(Choose two.)

* IP address

MAC address

* session number

sequence number

5

What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)

It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.

It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link

layers.

* It supports authentication.

It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.

* It encrypts packets with SSL.

* It requires additional server processing time.

6

Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with

Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What

happens next?

Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.

Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.

Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.

Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.

* Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

7


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What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?

It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination

hosts.

It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.

* It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon

initial sequence numbers.

It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

8

Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.)

It uses well-known port 23.

The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.

* In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.* It requires two connections between client and server.

FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

9

User1 is sending an e-mail to [email protected]. What are two characteristics of

the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)

It utilizes TCP port 110.

A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client

computers in order to send the e-mail message.

* It utilizes a store and forward process.

The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from

the destination server.

* SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

10

Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a

valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80

Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045

* Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80

Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061

11


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Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number?

(Choose two.)

DNS - 25

FTP - 110

* HTTP - 80

POP3 - 25

* SMTP - 25

12

Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)

The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI

model.

The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actualprotocols.

* The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.

The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.

* The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven

layers.

13

Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?

dynamic lookup

forward lookup

resolution lookup

* reverse lookup

14

Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?

source port with destination port

source IP address with destination portsource IP address and destination IP address

* source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

15

What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)

connection oriented


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full-duplex operation

* low overhead

* no flow control

* no error-recovery function

reliable transmission

16

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)

* If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.

* The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.

If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the

Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.

The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from

DNS.

17

Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a

server to another server?

SNMP

FTP

* SMTP

HTTPS

18

What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)

* Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.

Reliability is measured as a percent.

Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.

* Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.* The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.

19

A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network.

How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?

The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.


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The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.

The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.

* The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.

20

What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?

* caching-only

root

second-level

top-level

21

What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resourcerecords with a DNS server whenever changes occur?

* dynamic

zone transfer

local recursive query

root domain query

top-level domain query


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1 Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting

and monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of everyaccess connection and device configuration change across the network?

authentication

accreditation

* accounting

authorization

2 Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network

technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose

two.)

applications

physical addresses

packet size

* ports

* protocols

3 A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using

Telnet yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this?authentication

authorization

* accounting

accessing

4 Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for

transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)

SMTP

* IPSEC

* SSL

* HTTPS

FTP

TFTP
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